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MLT > Serology > Flashcards

Serology Flashcards

1
Q

CD markers for B cells

A

CD 19
CD 20
CD 21
CD 40

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2
Q

CD markers for naïve T cells

A

CD 2

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3
Q

CD markers for T-helper cells

A

CD 2
CD 3
CD 4

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4
Q

CD markers for cytotoxic T cells

A

CD 2
CD 3
CD 8

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5
Q

CD markers for natural killer cells

A

CD 16

CD 56

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6
Q

Cd markers for macrophages and monocytes

A

CD 14

CD 64

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7
Q

Components of the buffy coat in whole blood

A

WBC’s

Platelets

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8
Q

The formed elements in whole blood

A

RBC’s
WBC’s
Platelets

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9
Q

Which type of immunity conveys the longest lasting immunity to an infectious agent

A

Natural active immunity

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10
Q

What substance will not stimulate an immune response unless it is bound to a larger molecule

A

hapten

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11
Q

B and T cells are produced by stem cells that are formed in

A

bone marrow

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12
Q

B cells mature in the……….. while T cells mature in the ……….

A

bone marrow

thymus

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13
Q

B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are called

A

plasma cells

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14
Q

Tissue macrophages are mature

A

monocytes

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15
Q

measures the strength of interaction between an epitope and an antibody’s antigen binding site

A

affinity

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16
Q

The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of C1 with

A

antigen-IgG or IgM complexes.

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17
Q

If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected?

A

IgM

IgA

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18
Q

The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human newborn is

A

IgG

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19
Q

The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in milk

A

IgA

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20
Q

Complement lyses cells by

A

insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane

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21
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is

A

IgG

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22
Q

Your patient is a child who has no detectable T or B cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in

A

stem cells originating in the bone marrow.

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23
Q

Complement can enhance phagocytosis because of the presence on macrophages and neutrophils of receptors for

A

C3b

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24
Q

The class of immunoglobulin that binds firmly to mast cells and triggers anaphylaxis

A

IgE

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25
Q

The class of immunoglobulin that is present in highest concentration in secretions

A

IgA

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26
Q

The class of immunoglobulin that contains 10 heavy and 10 light chains

A

IgM

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27
Q

Involved in the presentation of antigen to CD4-positive cells

A

Class I MHC proteins

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28
Q

Involved in the presentation of antigen to CD8-positive cells

A

Class II MHC proteins

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29
Q

The part of an antigen that is recognized by the adaptive immune system is called

A

epitope

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30
Q

The role of classical complement pathway is to

A

Lyse microbe

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31
Q

Which molecule is present on every mature T helper cell

A

CD 4

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32
Q

Thymus is the place of primary differentiation of

A

T cells

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33
Q

C3b is able to bind on a microbe that will make it more attractive for phagocytosis. This process is

A

opsonization

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34
Q

Which antibodies activate the classic complement cascade if bound to antigen

A

IgM

IgG

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35
Q

Antibodies of acute phase of infection are

A

IgM

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36
Q

A deficiency of complement component C2 will affect the:

A

Classical complement pathway

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37
Q

A deficiency in the Membrane attack complex will make a patient more prone to

A

Neisseria infections

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38
Q

In a sample of blood what is the percentage of plasma

A

55%

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39
Q

What kind of cells are indicative of a parasitic infection

A

eosinophils

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40
Q

Which part of the immunoglobulin binds the antigen

A

Fab fragment

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41
Q

C3 convertase in classical complement pathway

A

C4b2b

cleaves C3

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42
Q

C5 convertase in classical complement pthway

A

C4b2b3b

cleaves C5

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43
Q

Most common viral hepatitis that can cause cirrhosis

A

Hep B

Hep C

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44
Q

Viral hepatitis that are oral-fecal

A

Hep A

Hep E

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45
Q

Viral hepatitis with the highest mortality

A

Hep D

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46
Q

Viral hepatitis with highest chronicity

A

Hep C

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47
Q

The likelihood that a positive test results indicates real disease

A

Positive predictive value

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48
Q

The likelihood that a negative test result indicates no real disease

A

Negative predictive value

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49
Q

The percentage of sick people who are correctly identified as having the condition

A

Sensitivity

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50
Q

the proportion of negatives (healthy) which are correctly identified as such

A

Specificity

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51
Q

The proportion of a population who have the disease at a certain point of time

A

Prevalence

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52
Q

The frequency with which something, such as a disease or trait, appears in a particular population or area.

A

Incidence

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53
Q

Immunity acquired by natural exposure to an infection

A

Natural active immunity

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54
Q

Immunity acquired by the injection of an antigen

A

Artificial active immunity

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55
Q

Immunity acquired by the natural acquisition of antibodies

A

Natural passive immunity

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56
Q

Immunity acquired by the administration of pre-made antibodies

A

Artificial passive immunity

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57
Q

Vial hepatitis that is that is double is double stranded DNA

A

Hep B

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58
Q

Serologic test to diagnose Hep A

A

IgM to HAV

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59
Q

Serologic test to diagnose Hep C

A

HCVab to HCV

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60
Q

Only serologic test positive during the window period of a patient with Hep B

A

HBcAb IgM

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61
Q

Hep B serologic tests postives in a patient previously infected with Hep B

A

HBcAb IgG

HbsAb IgG

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62
Q

What does HBcAg mean

A

Hepatitis B core antigen

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63
Q

What does HBcAb

A

Antibody to the Hepatitis B core antigen

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64
Q

Which is the first antibody to appear in a person infected with hep B

A

HBcAb

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65
Q

What does HBeAg mean

A

Hep B e antigen

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66
Q

What does HBeAb mean

A

Antibody to the hepatitis B e antigen

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67
Q

In what part of the virus is the Hep B e antigen

A

in the core

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68
Q

Presence of HBsAg past 6 months indicates

A

Hep B chronic infection

69
Q

Presence of HBsAb IgG indicates

A

Prior infection or

previous immunization

70
Q

Where in the blood will we find immunoglobulins

A

serum

plasma

71
Q

First cell to arrive at a site of inflammation

A

Neutrophil

72
Q

Type of cell that produces antibodies

A

B lymphocyte (Plasma Cell)

73
Q

The process of being protected against foreign antigens

A

immunity

74
Q

Main component of the complement system that attracts neutrophils and macrophages to the site of inflammation

A

C5a

75
Q

Major cytokines that induce fever

A

Il1

tumor necrotic factor

76
Q

The conversion of IgM to either IgG, IgA or IgE is called

A

class switching

77
Q

Etiology of mononucleosis

A

Epstein Barr Virus

78
Q

The aggregation of soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce a visible insoluble complex

A

Precipitation

79
Q

Process whereby specific antigens aggregate to form larger visible clumps when the corresponding specific antibody is present in the serum

A

Agglutination

80
Q

The first reaction involving antigen-antibody combination through single antigenic determinants on the particle surface

A

Sensitization

81
Q

The sum of interactions between antibody and multiple antigenic determinants on a particle

A

Lattice formation

82
Q

The largest amount of precipitation is seen when antigens and antibodies are present in optimal proportions

A

Equivalence zone

83
Q

Zone of antibody excess

A

Prozone

84
Q

Zone of antigen excess

A

Postzone

85
Q

Antibody is detected when soluble antigen interacts with antibody and precipitate is formed.

A

Flocculation Test

86
Q

Antibody is bound to latex beads; visible agglutination occurs when antigen binds to the latex-bound antibody

A

Latex agglutination

87
Q

Antibodies bind to the surface antigens of bacteria in suspension, which results in visible agglutination

A

Direct bacterial agglutination

88
Q

The maximum dilution that gives visible agglutination

A

Titer

89
Q

Antibody that interacts with antigen on the surface of particles

A

Agglutinin

90
Q

Antigen on the surface of particles such as red blood cells that react with the antibody to produce agglutination

A

Agglutinogen

91
Q

Bacteria that belongs to group B strep

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

92
Q

Bacteria that belongs to group A strep

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

93
Q

Streptococcus most commonly associated with pulmonary infections and adult meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

94
Q

Streptococcus most commonly associated with pharyngitis, scarlet fever and impetigo

A

Group A strep

95
Q

Streptococcus most commonly associated with neonatal meningitis

A

Group B strep

96
Q

Serologic test for the detection of antibodies against Group A strep

A

ASO titer (antistreptolysin O)

97
Q

Serologic test where a bacterial capsule swells with the addition of type-specific antiserum)

A

Quellung reaction

98
Q

Streptococcus most commonly associated with dental caries

A

Streptococcus mutans

99
Q

Type of hypersensitivity mediated by IgE

A

Hypersensitivity Type I

100
Q

Type of hypersensitivity mediated by IgM or IgG against cell or tissue antigens

A

Hypersensitivity Type II

101
Q

Type of hypersensitivity mediated by immune complexes of circulating antigens

A

Hypersensitivity Type III

102
Q

Type of hypersensitivity mediated by T-Lymphocytes

A

Hypersensitivity Type IV

103
Q

Also called delayed type hypersensitivity

A

Hypersensitivity Type IV

104
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is allergic rhinitis

A

Hypersensitivity Type I

105
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is asthma

A

Hypersensitivity Type I

106
Q

What type of hypersensitivity can produce systemic anaphylaxis

A

Hypersensitivity Type I

107
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Hypersensitivity Type II cytotoxic

108
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is acute rheumatic fever

A

Hypersensitivity Type II cytotoxic

109
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is Goodpasture syndrome

A

Hypersensitivity Type II cytotoxic

110
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is Myasthenia Gravis

A

Hypersensitivity Type II non-cytotoxic

111
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is Graves disease

A

Hypersensitivity Type II non-cytotoxic

112
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is Pernicious anemia

A

Hypersensitivity Type II non-cytotoxic

113
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is systemic lupus erithematosus

A

Hypersensitivity type III

114
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is rheumatoid arhtritis

A

Hypersensitivity type III

115
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

Hypersensitivity type III

116
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is Multiple sclerosis

A

Hypersensitivity type IV

117
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is tuberculin test

A

Hypersensitivity type IV

118
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is contact dermatitis

A

Hypersensitivity type IV

119
Q

Confers immunity against HIV

A

CCR5 mutation

120
Q

Decreases CD4 and MCI expression on host cells

A

Nef gene

121
Q

Surface protein that binds to CD4

A

Gp 120

122
Q

Early marker for HIV infection

A

P24

123
Q

Evaluates progression of HIV infection

A

CD4:CD8 T cell ratio

124
Q

Initial screening for HIV infection

A

ELISA or latex particle agglutination

125
Q

Confirmation test for HIV infection

A

Western blot or IF

126
Q

Test for the detection of HIV infection in newborns of HIV + mothers

A

PCR

127
Q

Target cell for Human Immunodeficiency virus

A

CD4 T-lymphocytes

128
Q

Predominant cells in rheumatoid arthritis

A

T lymphocytes

129
Q

Gold standard serologic marker in rheumatoid arthritis

A

RF

130
Q

New medications used to inhibit inflammation in RA

A

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitors

131
Q

Screening test done on RA before intubation or anesthesia

A

X-Ray for atlantoaxial subluxation

132
Q

Gold standard serologic markers for SLE

A

anti-DS DNA ab’s

anti-SM ab’s

133
Q

Serologic markers diagnostic of a SLE flare

A

Decreased C3, C4

Elevated DS DNA

134
Q

Serologic marker to be screens for in a pregnant patient with SLE

A

anti Ro antibodies

135
Q

Serologic marker positive in drug induced lupus

A

Anti-histone antibodies

136
Q

Medications most commonly associated with drug induced lupus

A

Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Quinidine

137
Q

Medications associated with drug induced lupus that are often ANA negative

A

Quinidine

Hydralazine

138
Q

chronic multi-system disease characterized clinically by thickening of the skin caused by accumulation of connective tissue and by involvement of visceral organs (GI, lungs, kidneys)

A

Scleroderma

139
Q

Serologic marker positive in Scleroderma

A

scl-70

140
Q

Serologic marker positive in CREST syndrome

A

Anti-centromere antibodies

141
Q

Disease produced by a lack of thymus

A

DiGeorge syndrome

142
Q

How are T-cells in MHC class I deficiency

A

CD8 T cells decreased

CD4 T cells normal

143
Q

How are T-cells in MHC class II deficiency

A

CD4 T cells decreased

CD8 T cells normal

144
Q

Triad findings in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

Decreased immunity
Thrombocytopenia
Eczema

145
Q

Triad findings in Ataxia telangiectasia

A

Decreased immunity
Ataxia
Telangiectasia

146
Q

Immunoglobulins decreased in ataxia telangiectasia

A

IgA

IgE

147
Q

Diseased due to a deficiency of maturation of B-cells

A

Brutons X-linked hypo-gamma globulinemia

148
Q

Disease due to a deficiency of CD40L

A

X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome

149
Q

Diseased characterized by repeated sinopulmonary and GI infections

A

Selective IgA deficiency

150
Q

Most common immunoglobulin deficiency

A

Selective IgA deficiency

151
Q

Disease characterized by a delayed onset of normal IgG synthesis

A

Transient hypo-gamma-globulinemia of infancy

152
Q

Etiologic agent for syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

153
Q

Serologic markers for syphilis screening

A

VDRL

RPR

154
Q

Alpha-feto-protein (AFP) is elevated in

A

liver, ovaries and testicular cancer

155
Q

CA 15-3 is elevated in

A

Breast cancer

156
Q

CA 19-9 is elevated in

A

Pancreatic, gastric and colon cancer

157
Q

CA 125 is elevated in

A

Ovarian cancer

158
Q

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is elevated in

A

Choriocarcinoma, testicular and germ cell tumors

159
Q

Her2/neu is elevated in

A

Breast cancer

160
Q

Prostate specific antigen is elevated in

A

Prostate cancer

161
Q

Thyroglobulin is elevated in

A

Thyroid cancer

162
Q

CA27-29 is elevated in

A

Breast cancer

163
Q

Main tumor supressor genes

A

p-53

Rb

164
Q

Gene that has the potential to produce cancer

A

Oncogene

165
Q

An initial change from normal cells to a different cell type

A

Metaplasia

166
Q

Condition whereby cells lose the morphological characteristics of mature cells and their orientation with respect to each other

A

Anaplasia

167
Q

Change in cell or tissue phenotype

A

Dysplasia

168
Q

Increase in the volume of cells

A

Hypertrophy

169
Q

Programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

MLT (1 decks)

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