Serology Flashcards
CD markers for B cells
CD 19
CD 20
CD 21
CD 40
CD markers for naïve T cells
CD 2
CD markers for T-helper cells
CD 2
CD 3
CD 4
CD markers for cytotoxic T cells
CD 2
CD 3
CD 8
CD markers for natural killer cells
CD 16
CD 56
Cd markers for macrophages and monocytes
CD 14
CD 64
Components of the buffy coat in whole blood
WBC’s
Platelets
The formed elements in whole blood
RBC’s
WBC’s
Platelets
Which type of immunity conveys the longest lasting immunity to an infectious agent
Natural active immunity
What substance will not stimulate an immune response unless it is bound to a larger molecule
hapten
B and T cells are produced by stem cells that are formed in
bone marrow
B cells mature in the……….. while T cells mature in the ……….
bone marrow
thymus
B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are called
plasma cells
Tissue macrophages are mature
monocytes
measures the strength of interaction between an epitope and an antibody’s antigen binding site
affinity
The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of C1 with
antigen-IgG or IgM complexes.
If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected?
IgM
IgA
The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human newborn is
IgG
The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in milk
IgA
Complement lyses cells by
insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is
IgG
Your patient is a child who has no detectable T or B cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in
stem cells originating in the bone marrow.
Complement can enhance phagocytosis because of the presence on macrophages and neutrophils of receptors for
C3b
The class of immunoglobulin that binds firmly to mast cells and triggers anaphylaxis
IgE
The class of immunoglobulin that is present in highest concentration in secretions
IgA
The class of immunoglobulin that contains 10 heavy and 10 light chains
IgM
Involved in the presentation of antigen to CD4-positive cells
Class I MHC proteins
Involved in the presentation of antigen to CD8-positive cells
Class II MHC proteins
The part of an antigen that is recognized by the adaptive immune system is called
epitope
The role of classical complement pathway is to
Lyse microbe
Which molecule is present on every mature T helper cell
CD 4
Thymus is the place of primary differentiation of
T cells
C3b is able to bind on a microbe that will make it more attractive for phagocytosis. This process is
opsonization
Which antibodies activate the classic complement cascade if bound to antigen
IgM
IgG
Antibodies of acute phase of infection are
IgM
A deficiency of complement component C2 will affect the:
Classical complement pathway
A deficiency in the Membrane attack complex will make a patient more prone to
Neisseria infections
In a sample of blood what is the percentage of plasma
55%
What kind of cells are indicative of a parasitic infection
eosinophils
Which part of the immunoglobulin binds the antigen
Fab fragment
C3 convertase in classical complement pathway
C4b2b
cleaves C3
C5 convertase in classical complement pthway
C4b2b3b
cleaves C5
Most common viral hepatitis that can cause cirrhosis
Hep B
Hep C
Viral hepatitis that are oral-fecal
Hep A
Hep E
Viral hepatitis with the highest mortality
Hep D
Viral hepatitis with highest chronicity
Hep C
The likelihood that a positive test results indicates real disease
Positive predictive value
The likelihood that a negative test result indicates no real disease
Negative predictive value
The percentage of sick people who are correctly identified as having the condition
Sensitivity
the proportion of negatives (healthy) which are correctly identified as such
Specificity
The proportion of a population who have the disease at a certain point of time
Prevalence
The frequency with which something, such as a disease or trait, appears in a particular population or area.
Incidence
Immunity acquired by natural exposure to an infection
Natural active immunity
Immunity acquired by the injection of an antigen
Artificial active immunity
Immunity acquired by the natural acquisition of antibodies
Natural passive immunity
Immunity acquired by the administration of pre-made antibodies
Artificial passive immunity
Vial hepatitis that is that is double is double stranded DNA
Hep B
Serologic test to diagnose Hep A
IgM to HAV
Serologic test to diagnose Hep C
HCVab to HCV
Only serologic test positive during the window period of a patient with Hep B
HBcAb IgM
Hep B serologic tests postives in a patient previously infected with Hep B
HBcAb IgG
HbsAb IgG
What does HBcAg mean
Hepatitis B core antigen
What does HBcAb
Antibody to the Hepatitis B core antigen
Which is the first antibody to appear in a person infected with hep B
HBcAb
What does HBeAg mean
Hep B e antigen
What does HBeAb mean
Antibody to the hepatitis B e antigen
In what part of the virus is the Hep B e antigen
in the core
Presence of HBsAg past 6 months indicates
Hep B chronic infection
Presence of HBsAb IgG indicates
Prior infection or
previous immunization
Where in the blood will we find immunoglobulins
serum
plasma
First cell to arrive at a site of inflammation
Neutrophil
Type of cell that produces antibodies
B lymphocyte (Plasma Cell)
The process of being protected against foreign antigens
immunity
Main component of the complement system that attracts neutrophils and macrophages to the site of inflammation
C5a
Major cytokines that induce fever
Il1
tumor necrotic factor
The conversion of IgM to either IgG, IgA or IgE is called
class switching
Etiology of mononucleosis
Epstein Barr Virus
The aggregation of soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce a visible insoluble complex
Precipitation
Process whereby specific antigens aggregate to form larger visible clumps when the corresponding specific antibody is present in the serum
Agglutination
The first reaction involving antigen-antibody combination through single antigenic determinants on the particle surface
Sensitization
The sum of interactions between antibody and multiple antigenic determinants on a particle
Lattice formation
The largest amount of precipitation is seen when antigens and antibodies are present in optimal proportions
Equivalence zone
Zone of antibody excess
Prozone
Zone of antigen excess
Postzone
Antibody is detected when soluble antigen interacts with antibody and precipitate is formed.
Flocculation Test
Antibody is bound to latex beads; visible agglutination occurs when antigen binds to the latex-bound antibody
Latex agglutination
Antibodies bind to the surface antigens of bacteria in suspension, which results in visible agglutination
Direct bacterial agglutination
The maximum dilution that gives visible agglutination
Titer
Antibody that interacts with antigen on the surface of particles
Agglutinin
Antigen on the surface of particles such as red blood cells that react with the antibody to produce agglutination
Agglutinogen
Bacteria that belongs to group B strep
Streptococcus agalactiae
Bacteria that belongs to group A strep
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus most commonly associated with pulmonary infections and adult meningitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus most commonly associated with pharyngitis, scarlet fever and impetigo
Group A strep
Streptococcus most commonly associated with neonatal meningitis
Group B strep
Serologic test for the detection of antibodies against Group A strep
ASO titer (antistreptolysin O)
Serologic test where a bacterial capsule swells with the addition of type-specific antiserum)
Quellung reaction
Streptococcus most commonly associated with dental caries
Streptococcus mutans
Type of hypersensitivity mediated by IgE
Hypersensitivity Type I
Type of hypersensitivity mediated by IgM or IgG against cell or tissue antigens
Hypersensitivity Type II
Type of hypersensitivity mediated by immune complexes of circulating antigens
Hypersensitivity Type III
Type of hypersensitivity mediated by T-Lymphocytes
Hypersensitivity Type IV
Also called delayed type hypersensitivity
Hypersensitivity Type IV
What type of hypersensitivity is allergic rhinitis
Hypersensitivity Type I
What type of hypersensitivity is asthma
Hypersensitivity Type I
What type of hypersensitivity can produce systemic anaphylaxis
Hypersensitivity Type I
What type of hypersensitivity is autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Hypersensitivity Type II cytotoxic
What type of hypersensitivity is acute rheumatic fever
Hypersensitivity Type II cytotoxic
What type of hypersensitivity is Goodpasture syndrome
Hypersensitivity Type II cytotoxic
What type of hypersensitivity is Myasthenia Gravis
Hypersensitivity Type II non-cytotoxic
What type of hypersensitivity is Graves disease
Hypersensitivity Type II non-cytotoxic
What type of hypersensitivity is Pernicious anemia
Hypersensitivity Type II non-cytotoxic
What type of hypersensitivity is systemic lupus erithematosus
Hypersensitivity type III
What type of hypersensitivity is rheumatoid arhtritis
Hypersensitivity type III
What type of hypersensitivity is post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Hypersensitivity type III
What type of hypersensitivity is Multiple sclerosis
Hypersensitivity type IV
What type of hypersensitivity is tuberculin test
Hypersensitivity type IV
What type of hypersensitivity is contact dermatitis
Hypersensitivity type IV
Confers immunity against HIV
CCR5 mutation
Decreases CD4 and MCI expression on host cells
Nef gene
Surface protein that binds to CD4
Gp 120
Early marker for HIV infection
P24
Evaluates progression of HIV infection
CD4:CD8 T cell ratio
Initial screening for HIV infection
ELISA or latex particle agglutination
Confirmation test for HIV infection
Western blot or IF
Test for the detection of HIV infection in newborns of HIV + mothers
PCR
Target cell for Human Immunodeficiency virus
CD4 T-lymphocytes
Predominant cells in rheumatoid arthritis
T lymphocytes
Gold standard serologic marker in rheumatoid arthritis
RF
New medications used to inhibit inflammation in RA
Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitors
Screening test done on RA before intubation or anesthesia
X-Ray for atlantoaxial subluxation
Gold standard serologic markers for SLE
anti-DS DNA ab’s
anti-SM ab’s
Serologic markers diagnostic of a SLE flare
Decreased C3, C4
Elevated DS DNA
Serologic marker to be screens for in a pregnant patient with SLE
anti Ro antibodies
Serologic marker positive in drug induced lupus
Anti-histone antibodies
Medications most commonly associated with drug induced lupus
Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Quinidine
Medications associated with drug induced lupus that are often ANA negative
Quinidine
Hydralazine
chronic multi-system disease characterized clinically by thickening of the skin caused by accumulation of connective tissue and by involvement of visceral organs (GI, lungs, kidneys)
Scleroderma
Serologic marker positive in Scleroderma
scl-70
Serologic marker positive in CREST syndrome
Anti-centromere antibodies
Disease produced by a lack of thymus
DiGeorge syndrome
How are T-cells in MHC class I deficiency
CD8 T cells decreased
CD4 T cells normal
How are T-cells in MHC class II deficiency
CD4 T cells decreased
CD8 T cells normal
Triad findings in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Decreased immunity
Thrombocytopenia
Eczema
Triad findings in Ataxia telangiectasia
Decreased immunity
Ataxia
Telangiectasia
Immunoglobulins decreased in ataxia telangiectasia
IgA
IgE
Diseased due to a deficiency of maturation of B-cells
Brutons X-linked hypo-gamma globulinemia
Disease due to a deficiency of CD40L
X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
Diseased characterized by repeated sinopulmonary and GI infections
Selective IgA deficiency
Most common immunoglobulin deficiency
Selective IgA deficiency
Disease characterized by a delayed onset of normal IgG synthesis
Transient hypo-gamma-globulinemia of infancy
Etiologic agent for syphilis
Treponema pallidum
Serologic markers for syphilis screening
VDRL
RPR
Alpha-feto-protein (AFP) is elevated in
liver, ovaries and testicular cancer
CA 15-3 is elevated in
Breast cancer
CA 19-9 is elevated in
Pancreatic, gastric and colon cancer
CA 125 is elevated in
Ovarian cancer
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is elevated in
Choriocarcinoma, testicular and germ cell tumors
Her2/neu is elevated in
Breast cancer
Prostate specific antigen is elevated in
Prostate cancer
Thyroglobulin is elevated in
Thyroid cancer
CA27-29 is elevated in
Breast cancer
Main tumor supressor genes
p-53
Rb
Gene that has the potential to produce cancer
Oncogene
An initial change from normal cells to a different cell type
Metaplasia
Condition whereby cells lose the morphological characteristics of mature cells and their orientation with respect to each other
Anaplasia
Change in cell or tissue phenotype
Dysplasia
Increase in the volume of cells
Hypertrophy
Programmed cell death
Apoptosis
