Serology Flashcards
IgM
- IgM antibodies are produced as a body’s first response to a new infection or to a new “non-self” antigen, providing short-term protection. They increase for several weeks and then decline as IgG production begins.
- Pentamer
- Placental transfer = Negative
- Binds to mast cell surfaces=Negative
- Binds to phagocytic cell surfaces= Negative
- activates complement= Positive
IgD
- the role of IgD is not completely understood and IgD is not routinely measured.
- Placental transfer = Negative
- Binds to mast cell surfaces=Negative
- Binds to phagocytic cell surfaces= Negative
- activates complement= Negative
IgG
- About 70-80% of the immunoglobulins in the blood are IgG. Specific IgG antibodies are produced during an initial infection or other antigen exposure, rising a few weeks after it begins, then decreasing and stabilizing. The body retains a catalog of IgG antibodies that can be rapidly reproduced whenever exposed to the same antigen. IgG antibodies form the basis of long-term protection against microorganisms. In those with a normal immune system, sufficient IgG is produced to prevent re-infection. Vaccinations use this process to prevent initial infections and add to the catalog of IgG antibodies, by exposing a person to a weakened, live microorganism or to an antigen that stimulates recognition of the microorganism. IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can pass through the placenta. The mother’s IgG antibodies provide protection to the fetus during pregnancy and to the baby during its first few months of life. There are four subclasses of IgG: IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, and IgG4.
- Placental transfer = Positive
- Binds to mast cell surfaces=Negative
- Binds to phagocytic cell surfaces= Positive
- activates complement= Positive
IgE
- IgE is associated with allergies, allergic diseases, and with parasitic infections. It is almost always measured as part of an allergy testing blood panel but typically is not included as part of a quantitative immunoglobulins test.t
- Placental transfer = Negative
- Binds to mast cell surfaces=Positive
- Binds to phagocytic cell surfaces= Negative
- activates complement= negative
IgA
- IgA comprises about 15% of the total immunoglobulins in the blood but is also found in saliva, tears, respiratory and gastric secretions, and breast milk. IgA provides protection against infection in mucosal areas of the body such as the respiratory tract (sinus and lungs) and the gastrointestinal tract (stomach and intestines). When passed from mother to baby during breast-feeding, it helps protect the infant’s gastrointestinal tract. Significant amounts of IgA are not produced by a baby until after 6 months of age so any IgA present in a baby’s blood before then is from the mother’s milk. There are two IgA subclasses: IgA1 and IgA2.
- Monomer
- Placental transfer = Negative
- Binds to mast cell surfaces=Negative
- Binds to phagocytic cell surfaces= Negative
- activates complement= Negative
Agglutination test
- Antibody molecules crosslink the particles to form visible patterns of clumping or agglutination
- Definition - tests that have as their endpoint the agglutination of a particulate antigen
- Qualitative agglutination test
- -Ag or Ab
- Quantitative agglutination test
- -Titer
- -Prozone
- Applications
- -Blood typing
- Bacterial infections
- -Fourfold rise in titer
Passive Agglutination/Hemagglutination
-Definition - agglutination test done with a soluble antigen coated onto a particle
-Applications
Measurement of antibodies to soluble antigens
-MHA-TP
Immunoelectrophoresis
-Method
-Ags are separated by electrophoresis
-Ab is placed in trough cut in the agar
Interpretation
-Precipitin arc represent individual antigens
Coombs (Antiglobulin)Tests
- Incomplete Ab
- Direct Coombs Test
- Detects antibodies on erythrocytes
- Indirect Coombs Test
- -Detects anti-erythrocyte antibodies in serum
Agglutination/Hemagglutination Inhibition
Definition - test based on the inhibition of agglutination due to competition with a soluble Ag
Complement Fixation Tests
- Ag mixed with test serum to be assayed for Ab
- Standard amount of complement is added
- Erythrocytes coated with Abs is added
- Amount of erythrocyte lysis is determined
Immunofluorescence Testing
-Direct (DFA)
Ab to tissue Ag is labeled with fluorochrome
-Indirect (IFA)
Ab to tissue Ag is unlabeled
Fluorochrome-labeled anti-Ig is used to detect binding of the first Ab.
Immunoassays
- EIA
- CIA
rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test.
-The RPR test is commercially available as a complete system containing positive and negative controls, the reaction
card, and the prepared antigen suspension. The antigen, cardiolipin-lecithin–coated cholesterol with choline chloride,
also contains charcoal particles to allow for macroscopically visible flocculation.
-100RPM for 8 mins card on the rotators with humidifying cover.
- Test CSF = NO
-Heat treat serum = NO Choline chloride
-Visualize macroscopically = YES
(FTA-ABS)
- fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test
- is an indirect immunofluorescent antibody test that uses testis from infected rabbits as the antigen and a standard 1:5 dilution of heat-inactivated serum. Before testing, it is absorbed with “sorbent,” which removes antibodies to commensal treponemes that could cause false-positive results. It is sensitive and specific for past or current T. pallidum infection and is needed to confirm any positive nontreponemal serological test before the diagnosis of syphilis can be made.
- The FTA-ABS becomes reactive 4-6 weeks after infection.
- The antigen for the FTA-ABS test is whole bacteria. The bacteria cannot be cultured on laboratory media, so the organisms used are a lyophilized suspension of T. pallidum extracted from rabbit testicular tissue. This is spread over and fixed to a slide. Patient serum is mixed with an absorbent (the “ABS” part of the test) containing an extract of a non-pathogenic treponeme, Treponema phagedenis biotype Rieter. The purpose of the absorbent is to remove anti-treponemal antibodies that are not specific for the syphilis bacteria. The pre-adsorbed patient serum is then added to the slide; if the patient has been infected by syphilis, their antibodies will bind to the bacteria. FITC (a fluorophore)-labeled anti-treponeme antibody and TRITC (another fluorophore)-labeled anti-human antibodies are added as secondary antibodies. The spirochete location is identified using the FITC staining, and the TRITC staining identifies whether the patient has anti-T. pallidum antibodies (binding to the same spirochete).
Affinity
-Strength of the reaction between a single antigenic determinant and a single Ab combining site
VDRL Test
-rotator for 4 mins @ 180rpms
-1 drop VDRL antigen to 1 drop patient serum. Shake observe under the microscope. Look for flocculation reaction. (clumping or not.)
- Test Serum must be heated 56 degrees for 30 mins
-Control serum must be heated 56 degrees for 10 mins
-Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test,
-Test for antibody like protein reagin that binds to the test antigen, cardiolipin-lecithin–coated cholesterol particles, causing the particles to flocculate.
- Reagin is not a specific antibody directed against T. pallidum antigens; therefore the test
is highly sensitive but not highly specific; however, it is a good screening test, detecting more than 99% of the cases of secondary syphilis.
-Cerebrospinal fluid is
not inactivated
-23 to 29 degrees
-Use antigen previously made
for testing
- 18 gauge needle used for
serum tests
-30 ± 1 drops/0.5ml or
- 60 ± 1 drops/1.0ml
- 21 gauge needle used for
testing cerebrospinal fluid
- 50 ± 1 drops/0.5ml
- Rinse needles 3 times with
Milli-Q water following QC
tests
-Determine pH of 0.9%
saline used for dilutions
- pH should be 5.9 ± 0.1
- pH of buffered saline
used to prepare antigen
should be 6.0 ± 0.1
Affinity
-Strength of the reaction between a single antigenic determinant and a single Ab combining site