Series 7 STC Resolving Disputes & Suitability (Ch. 20) Flashcards
Of the following factors, which is the MOST important to consider when analyzing the investment portfolio of a client who has indicated “retirement” as her primary investment objective?
Age
Net worth
Education level
Previous investment history
Age
When analyzing a client’s existing portfolio to determine how it affects potential investment recommendations, it’s important to consider the client’s investment objectives and the length of time available to attempt to meet those objectives. When retirement is the primary objective, it’s very important to know the client’s current age. The other items mentioned are also valuable for a registered representative to know, but they’re not as critical as knowing the client’s age.
If a young couple is planning to buy a house in the near future, their investment objective is MOST likely:
Capital appreciation
Preservation of capital
Current income
Aggressive growth
Preservation of capital
Since the couple is saving to buy a house, they have a short time horizon and are primarily concerned with preservation of capital. On the other hand, investors whose objective is capital appreciation have a longer time horizon (e.g., saving for retirement). Current income is the objective for persons who are already retired. Aggressive growth is one of the riskier investment objectives and is not appropriate for a couple who’s planning to purchase a new home.
T/F. RANs (Revenue Anticipation Notes) have short-term maturities
True
After turning age 65, a client calls her registered representative to let him know that she’s retiring and expects to start drawing on her Social Security benefits and her savings. Which of the following asset allocations is the MOST appropriate for this client?
70% equities, 25% bonds, and 5% cash equivalents
10% equities, 90% bonds, and 0% cash equivalents
10% equities, 85% bonds, and 5% cash equivalents
35% equities, 60% bonds, and 5% cash equivalents
35% equities, 60% bonds, and 5% cash equivalents
When allocating assets, an estimate for the percentage of equities can be found by taking the investor’s age and subtracting it from 100. For example, a 65-year-old investor should have approximately 35% of her portfolio in stocks (i.e., 100 - 65). The remainder of the portfolio should be allocated to debt and money-market securities.
What’s a suitable investment for a person who wants a long-term bond that pays interest based on a fluctuating short-term rate?
CMO (Collateralized Mortgage Obligation)
Commercial paper
VRDO (Variable Rate Demand Obligation)
RAN (Revenue Anticipation Note)
VRDO (Variable Rate Demand Obligation)
Variable rate demand obligations (VRDOs) are a type of long-term bond that’s issued by a municipality. VRDOs have a variable rate of interest that’s tied to a short-term interest rate (e.g., prime rate). Revenue anticipation notes (RANs) and commercial paper both have short-term maturities. Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) are long-term securities which have a fixed interest rate and are backed by a pool of mortgages.
T/F. VRDOs (Variable Rate Demand Obligations) are a type of long-term bond that’s issued by a municipality. VRDOs have a variable rate of interest that’s tied to a short-term interest rate (e.g., prime rate).
True
A broker-dealer receives a written statement from a customer complaining about a transaction that was recommended by a registered representative. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
The firm must keep a copy of the complaint.
The firm must investigate the complaint.
A memo must be prepared to describe any action taken in response to the complaint.
The firm must respond to the clients’ complaint immediately.
The firm must respond to the clients’ complaint immediately.
Under FINRA’s rules regarding books and records, written complaints must be kept on file at the appropriate OSJ, along with any correspondence related to the complaint. Although the firm is required to respond to written customer complaints, there’s no specific requirement regarding when the response must be made.
Which option position is MOST suitable for a bearish investor who wants to limit her risk?
Credit call spread
Credit put spread
Uncovered put
Uncovered call
Credit call spread
Option spread positions always have limited gains and losses. Credit call spreads are bearish positions and the most suitable for the investor in this question. The reason that credit call spreads are bearish is because the spread’s dominant leg is the sale of a call option. Selling uncovered calls is also bearish; however, these positions have unlimited risk. Selling uncovered puts and credit put spreads are both bullish positions.
A registered representative (RR) is meeting with a customer outside of the offices of the broker-dealer. During the meeting, the customer gives the registered representative a handwritten note that includes an objection to the price she received when she redeemed her mutual fund shares. The customer believes her redemption request was submitted early enough to receive the net asset value (NAV) calculated on the same day that the request was submitted. However, she received a lower NAV, which was calculated on the next business day. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Since the note was received outside of the broker-dealer’s office, it’s not considered official business and the RR can ignore it.
The note is considered a complaint and the RR must forward it to his principal.
The note is considered a complaint about an action for which the mutual fund is responsible and it must be forwarded directly to the fund.
The RR is responsible for trying to satisfy the customer and can reimburse the client for the price difference.
The note is considered a complaint and the RR must forward it to his principal.
FINRA defines a complaint as any written statement by a customer that alleges a grievance involving the activities of a member firm or its employees in connection with any transaction involving that customer. The customer’s note is a complaint and the RR should forward it to his supervising principal.
How many years must a BD keep a customer complaint on file?
4 years
Decisions of the Hearing Panel that are appealed go to what?
The National Adjudicatory Council
Under the Code of Procedure, the initial review of complaints is completed by the:
Hearing Panel
National Adjudicatory Council
SEC
Federal court
Hearing Panel
Under the Code of Procedure, the initial review of complaints is completed by the Hearing Panel. Decisions of the Hearing Panel can be appealed to the National Adjudicatory Council, which can then be appealed to the SEC, and the final appeal can go to the federal courts.
Decisions of the National Adjudicatory Council that are appealed go to what?
The SEC
Decisions of the SEC that are appealed go to what?
Federal Court
T/F. FINRA’s Code of Procedure describes the DISCIPLINARY PROCESS used in the event that a member firm or any
of its associated persons violate FINRA rules, SEC rules, or fail to pay dues or assessments.
True
T/F. The Code of Arbitration establishes the process that’s used for the SETTLEMENT OF DISPUTES between members
and other members, between members and any clearing corporation, or between member firms and persons
associated with a member, but NOT for disputes between a member firm and FINRA.
True
For any disputes that involve statutory discrimination or sexual harassment
claims, is using arbitration is required?
No
According to the Code of Arbitration, disputes must be filed
within ____ years of occurrence
6 years
Simplified Arbitration can be used if the settlement doesn’t exceed $_______
$50,000