Series 65 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

3 primary expenses involved with brokerage accounts that are not included in the fee disclosure template.

A
  1. commissions;
  2. markups and markdowns; and
  3. advisory fees for those firms that are also registered as investment advisers.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Risk-adjusted return is calculated by

A

dividing the security’s return in excess of the risk-free rate by its standard deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Weak Form Market Efficiency

A

current stock prices already incorporated all historical market data so historical trends have not value in predicting future price changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Semi Strong Form Market Efficiency

A

current prices incorporate historical data and reflect data from analyzing financials, industry and current economic trends.

fundamental analysis has no value and only insider info can help.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Strong Form Market Efficiency

A

security prices fully reflects all information from both public and private sources (including insider trading).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fundamental Analysis

A
  1. Study of a businesses prospects by looking at the surrounding industry and overall economy
  2. Like a full medical check-up
  3. Review P/E ratios
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Technical Analysis

A
  1. Looks at overall market to measure risk.

2. Charts a stock’s price and volume over a period of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Value investors look for:

A
  1. Stock that are under-priced in the market

Ex. below book value; low P/E Ratios; high dividend yields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Examples of unsystematic risk (able to diversity away)

A
  1. Financial Risk
  2. Business Risk
  3. Political Risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is form CRS

A

Client/Customer Relationship Summary given to all new clients

Services offered, fees, conflict of interest, code of conduct

Changes must be communicated to clients within 60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Common Non-Qualified Plans

A

Deferred comp; exec bonus; split-dollar life ins.; group carve-out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Must send Brochure to clients upon request within ____ Days

A

7 day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a CMB?

A

Cash Management Bill - Short term securities - typically 30 day notes

Settle in 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the Howey Test?

A

Defined a security as an investment of money; in a common enterprise; with the expectation of profits to be derived from the efforts of someone other than the investor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a TRs

A

Treasury receipt

Issued by Broker Dealer; collateralized by underlying US securities; zero-coupon bonds purchased at discount for full value at maturity. No regular interest payments

*often called Strips or T-Strips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Customer Complaints

A

Given to supervisor and kept on file for 4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FOMC

A

Federal Open Market Committee

Purchase treasuries to add to the money supply which typically causes rates to increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Security eligible for registrations by filing must have:

A

Net worth greater than 4 M
at least 400k shares
at least four market markers for at least 30 days of last three months
offering price of at least $5/share

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

IA requirement for custody of client assets:

A

Net worth of 35K
File audited balance sheet with Administrator

*Only need 10K for discretionary approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Alpha

A

Measure of historical performance.

compared to benchmark to assess risk - positive is good, negative is bad - Neutral is 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Modern Portfolio Theory

A
  • add non-correlated assets to diversity risk
  • efficient - right return with low risk
  • evaluate risk on a holistic level rather then focus on individual securities

A lower volatility means less risk

The portfolio should lie on the efficient frontier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is CAPM

A

Capital Asset Pricing Model

Used to price high risk securities; developed by Sharp; two risks, some of which can’t be diversified away

only considers systematic risk as it utilizes beta as its risk variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Reg BI

A

Due Diligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Regulation T

A

Controls Margin Accounts

Requires 50% equity in account

Hypothecation Agreement - firm uses securities as collateral for margin loan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is pure value style for a portfolio manager?

A

Focus on stocks that are undervalued - Review BS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Extra question asked when opening an option account

A

investing knowledge and experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Characteristics of Class A Share

A

Front Loading
Eligible for break-point purchases
Typically low or no charge 12b-1 fee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Characteristics of Class B Shares

A

Back End loaded with a declining contingent deferred sales charge and a high 12b-1 fee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Characteristics of Class C Shares

A

Level Load
No sales charge to purchase
Generally a 1% CDSC for one year
Continuous 12b fee (often high)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a Class I Share

A

Sold only to institutional investors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a Class R Share

A

Sold only to participants in a retirement plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Beta

A

Measure of volatility vs the S&P500.
+1 - More volatile
1 - equal to index
-1 - Less volatile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Regulations regarding CONTRACTED solicitors

A

investment Advisor Act - Not required to be an IAR

USA Act - Must be an IAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Correlation between NPV and IRR

A
  • NPV means low IRR
    + NPV means high IRR
    0 NPV means IRR is equal to the retired rate of return
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Federal Registration exception for Private Fund Advisors

A

less then 150M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If the required rate of return is higher than anticipated in a present value calculation, the effect would be that

A

the present value would be lower

if you need $100,000 in 18 years for your newborn’s college education and you expect to earn 4%, using the rule of 72, you’ll have to deposit $50,000 now (present value) to reach the goal. However, if it turns out that the earnings rate is higher than anticipated—say, 8%—you would only need to deposit half as much today ($25,000). Therefore, we answer this question by indicating that a higher rate of return will require a lower present value (deposit).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a 457 Plan

A

Deferred compensation plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Unit Investment Trust

A

Registered investment company with a fixed portfolio. No ongoing management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A pension consultant who advises corporate retirement plans with assets of $135 million must register with which of the following?

A

State only - Pension funds managers don’t have to register with SEC until they have 200M in AUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Investment strategy that focuses on appropriate allocation based on long term and risk tolerance of the client

A

Strategic Asset Allocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a derivative

A

investment vehicle who value is based on another securities value.

Ex. forward contracts, future contracts and options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is considered a nonissuer transaction

A

Issuer doesn’t receive proceeds from the sale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Should Municipal Bond funds be included in an IRA

A

No - generally considered inappropriate to include tax-exempt securities in a tax deferred retirement plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Difference between Rule 506C and 506B

A

If limited exclusivity to accredited investors Rule 506C offerings may be publicly advertised; Rule 506B (nonaccredited) can never be advertised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What qualifies as “discretionary authorization”

A

Representative choose the security, amount of shares and whether to buy or sell.

Time or price alone isn’t discretionary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How are nonqualified tax-deferred annuities taxed

A

Grows tax-deferred and only earnings are taxed at distribution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the liquidity ratio

A

current assets divided by current liabilities = current ratio (liquidity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Ratio that measures the gross profitability of a firm

A

Gross profit / net sales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

formula for stockholders equity

A

Net income / average total equity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Formula for measuring how much of a company’s earning are distributed to common stockholders

A

Dividend amount divided by earning per share

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Warrent

A

Long term options to buy stock, considered equity securities and less safe than bonds

52
Q

Inverse and leveraged ETF’s

A

Typically held for less then a week by bearish investor.

Often called short funds.

Purchased for short-term capital gains - no income

53
Q

Best type of GAAP audit results

A

unqualified opinion

54
Q

How many share of common stock in a block trade

A

10,000

55
Q

5 constraints of a IPS

A

Investment Policy Statement - TTLLU

Time Horizon, taxes, liquidity, law, Unique

Also sets policy for the portfolio

56
Q

Indicative Value

A

Indicative value or closing indicative value for ETNs, is calculated and published at the end of each day by the ETN issuer.

57
Q

POP vs. NAV

A

POP - Public offering price

58
Q

Dividend Payout Ratio Formula

A

Dividend / earning

59
Q

Exchange-Traded Fund

A

Inv. act of 1940 - as a unit inv. trust or an open ended ETF

60
Q

Difference between an ETF and Index Mutual Fund

A

ETF trades like a stock (like a close-ended company); can also be purchased on margin and sold short. tend to have lower expenses

61
Q

What is a Unit Investment Trust (UIT)

A

Unmanaged investment company organized under a trust indenture

Issues redeemable securities called units or shares of beneficial interest

Must maintain secondary markets so unit holders can redeem at NAV

62
Q

Closed End Fund

A

No sales charges; investor pays a commission in agency transactions or pays a markdown or markup in principal transactions

It is only the closed-end investment company where shares trade at a premium or discount to the NAV per share.

63
Q

Open ended fund

A

Sales commission is paid from the various sales charges like Front-end, bank-end or 12-1 fees

64
Q

Front End Load

A

Charges are reflected in funds POP; charges are added to NAV at purchase.

65
Q

Back End Load

A

Contingent deferred sales charge - done when mutual fund shares are redeemed. Typically drops to 0 after 6-8 years. Typically Class B Shares

66
Q

Exchange traded Note

A

Made up of debt instruments - returns are linked to market index rather then traditional interest payments
Securities act of 1933

67
Q

Asset Correlation

A

From +1 to -1; higher correlation securities move together which lessons diversification.

68
Q

Standard Deviation

A

Higher number = higher volatility and risk

69
Q

How does correlation work in choosing securities

A

negative correlation means securities are moving in opposite directions which increases diversification.

70
Q

Mean, mode, median

A

Mean - average
Mode - Most frequent
Median - Middle point

71
Q

Form 8 - K

A

report newsworthy events to SEC; must file within 4 days of event

72
Q

Working capital formula

A

Current assets - current liabilities

73
Q

Unsystematic Risk

A

eliminated when the investor builds a well-diversified portfolio

74
Q

Supply Side theory

A

economic growth results from lower taxes and government spending

Authored by Arthur Laffer

75
Q

Tax rate on dividends

20% if upper two tax brackets

A

15% tax

76
Q

Short Term gains tax rate

A

Current income tax rate

77
Q

Bond that is federal tax free

A

Municipal issue

78
Q

US Treasury securities tax status?

A

exempt from state taxation, but not federal

79
Q

Tactical Asset allocation

A

actively trading your portfolio

typically higher costs

80
Q

Tax Ramifications of ATM

A

Loss of tax benefits on tax preferred items like municipal bonds, accelerated depreciation.

81
Q

Stages of the business cycle

A

Expansion; peak; contraction; trough

82
Q

Annuities Distribution Rules

A

LIFO Basis at ordinary income levels; 10% penalty if under 59 1/2.

83
Q

Monte Carlo Simulation

A

The statistical method used to determine the return profile of a security or portfolio that recreates potential outcomes by generating random values based on the risk and return characteristics of the securities themselves is known as

84
Q

TIC

A

Tenants in common - Upon death shares transfer to estate rather then the surviving member.

Undivided interest and either cotenant can withdraw funds.

85
Q

Monetarists beliefs

A

economy and inflation are best controlled by management of the money supply rather then fiscal policy stimulation; fed reserve should control money supply.

86
Q

What do discretionary accounts require

A

POA if the rep is choosing the security, order size or action (buy/sell); Rep must place order by end of day if there is not one.

87
Q

Qualified investor

A
  1. 2M net worth (excluding home)

1. 1M with advisor

88
Q

Precious metal investments

A

tend to negatively correlate with the stock market

Positive correlation with inflation

89
Q

Strategic asset allocation

A

set long term goals for mix (ie. 70/30) and rebalance occasionally

90
Q

Tactical asset allocation

A

Deviating from long term asset allocation (like strategic) and take advantage of short term opps.

91
Q

Sharpe Formula

A

Actual Return - risk free rate / Standard deviation

92
Q

Dealer Transactions

A
  • principal
  • markup/downs
  • buying into or selling from inventory
  • Trading for their own account
93
Q

Broker Transactions

A
  • Agency
  • Commission
  • middleman between buyer and seller
  • trading for others
94
Q

Federally covered securities as defined by National Securities Market Improvement Act (NSMIA)

A
  • Securities listed on national exchanges
  • Investment company securities
  • Reg D Securities
  • Certain Fed. exempt securities
95
Q

Investment company securities include

A
  • open-ended management companies (mutual funds)
  • closed-ended (publicly traded)
  • Face amount certificates
  • Unit investment trusts (UIT)
96
Q

Conversion Price formula

A

Conversion price = par / conversion ratio

97
Q

Form 8k

A

disclose significant events

98
Q

Form 10Q

A

Quarterly unaudited statements

99
Q

Form 10K

A

Annual audited financials

100
Q

Form 13-D

A

More than 5% shareholder in publically traded stock

101
Q

Elastic goods

A
  • unnecessary or considerable amount of competition

- when prices rise demand falls sharply (IE TV)

102
Q

Max life of a standard option contract

A

9 months

103
Q

What does inside market reflect

A

highest bid and the lowest available ask.

68.25/68.30 (7x9) Highest/lowest (shares by 100 with each price)

104
Q

Tax status of bond issuers

A
  • Government - Federal; exempt from local and state
  • Municipal - state and local; exempt from federal
  • Corporate - subject to all
105
Q

Revocable Trusts

A
  • subject to estate tax

- income taxable to the grantor

106
Q

Irrevocable Trust

A
  • No estate tax

- taxable to beneficiary or the trust depending on distribution

107
Q

Dividend tax rate

A

15 unless in the higher brackets over 35% then it is 20%

108
Q

Alpha formula

A

alpha = (portfolio return - risk free rate) - (Beta x (Market return - risk free rate))

Risk free = 91 day Treasury Bill

109
Q

Current Yield Formula

A

Current Yield = Annual income / Market Price

110
Q

What to look for in choosing bonds

A

Highest volatility is going to be longest time and lowest coupon/interest rate.

111
Q

GRAT

A

Grantor Retained Annuity Trust - used to pass assets to children to minimize gift and estate taxes.

  • income taxed to grantor
112
Q

specialist

A

Designed market maker - on the floor of the stock exchange

113
Q

Market Maker

A

purchases on the OTC market

114
Q

Present Value Formula

A

PV = FV / (1+DR)N

DR - Discount Rate (average rate of return)
N - years

115
Q

Options fundaments

A
  • two side with both being obligated
  • typically expire after 9 months
  • buyer can execute up until the option expires
116
Q

What is a LEAP

A

Long Term Equity Anticipation Security

options that can last up to 3 years

117
Q

Long

A

= buying a stock

*going long on an option gives you a specific right

118
Q

Cost of an option

A

Premium

The more valuable the option the more expensive the premium

119
Q

“out of the money”

A

Options without intrinsic value. No money to be made

120
Q

“In the money”

A

Option has intrinsic value and will be exercised.

121
Q

NAV

A

Closed in company - ask is lower then NAV; shares are sold at ask price.

122
Q

Resistance and Support

A

Downward - support

Upwards - resistance

123
Q

REIT Requirements

A

Must distribute a minimum of 90% of their taxable income and 75 of their money must be in RE.

124
Q

Standard Deviation

A
  • how far a securities deviates from it average price
  • higher volatility means more risk
  • called “pure risk”

*Beta measure volatility compared to the market

125
Q

Value of dollar increases

A
  • increases prices of exports which makes them less competitive
  • imported products are cheaper and become more competitive
126
Q

How are treasury notes quoted

A

1/32

ex. .21 is 21/32 - 6.56