Series 10 Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Manning Rule

AKA

A

Limit Order Protection Rule

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2
Q

Manning Rule Notion

A

Market Makers must provide best execution for Limit Orders

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3
Q

Manning Rule
Covers and Does not Cover

A

NASDAQ, 3rd Mkt, Exchange listings and OTC Securities

Not Cover Debt Secuties

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4
Q

140% Rule

A

140% of Debit Balance from bank to hypothecate

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5
Q

When are block transfers allowed?

A

When prior (losing) BD agrees

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6
Q

Regulation NMS
Trade Throughs
(1) when protected
(2) When not protected

A

(1)For Electronic Quotes
(2) For Manual Quotes

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7
Q

Customer places order of 500 XYZ @ 30 but you execute 1000 XYZ at 29

Customer entitled to…

A

500 XYZ @ 29

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8
Q

Clearing Firms act as gatekeepers in what

A

Customer compliance w/ securities laws and handling conflicts of interest

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9
Q

Municipal Securities Sales

The Spread is set by who

A

Set by Manager

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10
Q

Municipal Securities Sales

Who gets the takedown

A

The syndicate

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11
Q

Municipal Securities Sales

Who gets the Managers Fee

A

Lead Underwriter

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12
Q

Municipal Securities Sales

Who gets the Concession

A

The Selling Group

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13
Q

MSRB Rules

What is a customer?

What is not a customer?

A

Person or entity

Not a Municipal Broker-Dealer
Not a Municipal Bank Dealer
(both acting in a capacity as such)

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14
Q

Municipality

When it is not a customer?

When it is a customer?

A

When involved in sale of its own securities

When trading in its own investment account

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15
Q

Nominal vs Subject quote

A

Nominal - Info only, not firm

Subject - Subject to a condition

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16
Q

Conflict Rule when Municipal Advisory Relationship exists between a BD in writing with an issuer

  1. Underwriting
  2. Obtaining for own acct.
  3. Obtaining for muni security dealer controled by BD
A

1-3 None are allowed

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17
Q

Trust Indenture Act of 1939

  1. Covers what securities
  2. Exemptions
A
  1. Debt securities
  2. Certain small issues (i.e. Reg A offerings)
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18
Q

Trade Review Investigation

  1. Status update due from who
  2. When is it due
  3. Timeline to report completion of report
A
  1. Principal of firm
  2. by 15th of month following calendar QTR
  3. due w/in 1 week of completion
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19
Q

Electronic Blue Sheets

  1. Types of trades investigated
  2. How do they need to be ready
A
  1. Suspicious or Insider Trades
  2. in a timely fashion
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20
Q

Matching

A

Prearranging crossing of customer orders through the same BD
NOT ALLOWED

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21
Q

Participating in Rings or Pools

A

Creating artificially elevated prices for pool members to unload their stock

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22
Q

Stabilization when allowed must appear in what

A

Prospectus

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23
Q

Publically Announced Intent to Acquire Company

  1. Tender offer timeline
  2. Timeline if Tender offer changed
A
  1. 20 BDs
  2. 10 additional BDs from change
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24
Q

Publically Announced Intent to Acquire Company

Target Company Statement on position
1. Timeline to make statement
2. Types Allowed

A
  1. 10 BD of announcement
  2. Accept, Reject, No Opinion or Unable to take a Position
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24
Q

Publically Announced Intent to Acquire Company

Target Company Statement on position
1. Timeline to make statement
2. Types Allowed

A
  1. 10 BD of announcement
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25
Q

10b-18 Buy Back

  1. What is it
A

issuer buys back its own stock in open market

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26
Q

10b-18 Buy Back

Who executes

A

DMM or OTC Market maker

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27
Q

10b-18 Buy Back

  1. Transaction Limits
  2. Purchases that do not count towards limit
A
  1. 25% avg over 4-weeks
  2. Block purchases outside normal flow
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28
Q

10b-18 Buy Back

Safeharbor timeline

A

Neither the…
- 1st Transaction of day
- last 30 min of trading

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29
Q

10b-18 Buy Back

Transaction Price Limit

A

No higher than highest independent Bid or last sale (whichever higher)

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30
Q

Insider Trading Act Lawsuits Statute of Limitations

A

5 years

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31
Q

Antidultion of IPOS

Restricted person ownership in Privately held company going public may buy shares if

  1. Ownership prior how long?
  2. % Equity interest restriction period?
  3. Newly Acquired Shares locked up how long after purchase?
A
  1. 1 year
  2. No more than 3 months ownership
  3. 3 months
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32
Q

Standby purchasers of IPOs are restricted from resale for how long

A

3 months

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33
Q

Joint Back Office (JBO) Broker Dealers

  1. Who are they
  2. Categorization by FINRA
  3. New Equity Issue Eligibility
A
  1. Hedge Funds
  2. Hedge Funds
  3. Eligible subject to de minimus rule & Carve out Procedures
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34
Q

Carve Out Procedures

  1. Restricted Persons limit of ownership of IPO
  2. if 30% restricted persons & fund buys 10,000 shares of new issue
  3. If 7% restricted persons & fund buys 10,000 shares of new issue
A
  1. 10%
  2. no more than 1,000 to restricted persons
  3. No more than 700 to restricted persons
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35
Q

Spinning

  1. Practice?
  2. Prohibited Participants to benefit from practice
A
  1. Allocating hot IPO to firm in exchange for future business
    • Firm Current Client
      • Company where Firm Received compensation in last 12 months
      • Company where firm knows it will retain business in next 3 months
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36
Q

Flipping

  1. Practice
  2. Penalty Bid
A
  1. Selling hot IPO within 30 days of purchase
  2. Penalty for selling before 30 days
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37
Q

de Minimus Rule for IPOS

Exemption

A

Restricted person’s interest in account does not exceed 10%

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38
Q

Restriction on sales of IPOs under FINRA Rule 5130

Issues not covered

A

ADRs
Additional Offerings
Debt Securities

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39
Q

Borrowing from or lending to customers

  1. Process to Notify and get approval
  2. Exception to Approval Process
A
  1. Writing to Firm
    Written approval from Firm
  2. When family or banks
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40
Q

Borrowing from or lending to customers

Approval Retention Period in firm files

A

3 years after the arrangement terminated or Rep leaves the firm

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41
Q

Regulation NMS

Minimum Increment Pricing Rule (Sub-Penny)
1. Stocks $1/share or greater
2. Stocks < $1/share

A
  1. Min Increment is $0.01
  2. Min Increment can be sub penny
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42
Q

Regulation NMS

Minimum Increment Pricing Rule (Sub-Penny)

  1. Stocks Covered
  2. Stocks Not Covered
A
  1. Those trading on Nat’l & Regional Exchanges
  2. Pink Sheet Securities
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43
Q

Regulation NMS Rule 606
Order Routing Methods

  1. What’s Reported
  2. Frequency
A
  1. Market centers used and firm’s nature of relationship with center
  2. Quarterly to the public
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44
Q

Regulation NMS Rule 606
Order Routing Methods

  1. Directed vs. NonDirected
  2. Rule Applies to Which
A
  1. Directed - Customer Specifies Market Center
    NonDirected - Firm Specifies Market Center
  2. NonDirected only
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45
Q

Regulation NMS Rule 606
Order Routing Methods

  1. Customer Request for Disclosure
  2. Normal Customer Disclosure
A
  1. For prior 6 months
  2. Annually
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46
Q

Regulation NMS Rule 606
Order Routing Methods

Exemptions for Reporting

A

< 500 Orders per month
OR
<5% of NonDirected Order Flow

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47
Q

2 situations where a Market Maker may back away from a firm Quote

A
  1. if a revised quote is entered prior to order received
  2. If MM is executing a trade during order time and at completion enters a revised quote
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48
Q

Autoquote Policy

  1. When Prohibited
  2. When Allowed
A
  1. if used to keep MM quote away from inside market
  2. when used to ensure bid/ask price maintained the same in another trading system
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49
Q

Regulation SHO

  1. When is location & tag required
  2. Date Needed to be considered long
  3. Status of seller if they bought stock on Monday and selling it on Tuesday before paying for purchase (long or short)
A
  1. Before Order
  2. As of trade Date (NOT SETTLEMENT DATE)
  3. Still considered long
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50
Q

Regulation NMS Rule 612
Sub-Penny Rule

  1. Buy Limit Order Quoted
  2. Sell Limit Order Quoted
  3. Timeline to Report Trades to TRF
A
  1. Rounded down to nearest penny
  2. Rounded up to nearest Penny
  3. 10 Seconds
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51
Q

Variable Annuities

  1. Principal Approval Timeline after complete application Received by OSJ
  2. Prospectus Delivery Timeline
  3. Sales Commission Forfeiture
A
  1. 7 BDs
  2. Before or WITH Solicitation
  3. If redeemed within 7 days of sale by customer
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52
Q

1035 Exchanges

  1. Frequency between exchanges
  2. Inquiry into last exchange
A
  1. 36 months
  2. Documented as to nature & response from customer
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53
Q

Members recommending a security

  1. Price
  2. Disclosures
  3. Disclosure of # of shares owned by firm
A
  1. At time required
  2. if Market Maker
    if Firm owns 1% or more
  3. Not required
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54
Q

Tax Treatment of NonQual VA

A

Ordinary Income

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55
Q

Penny Stock

  1. Risk Disclosure Timeline
  2. How Ack from Customer
  3. Suitability Statement from customer requires
A
  1. BEFORE Purchase
  2. Written Ack
  3. Customer must sign
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56
Q

Penny Stock

  1. Compensation Disclosure
  2. Quote
A
  1. BOTH Member and Registered Rep
  2. Both Bid & Ask
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57
Q

Penny Stock
Established Customer Exception

  1. Non Penny Stock Transactions in the past OR Timeline before buying penny stock
  2. Penny Stock Purchase History
  3. Suitability Statement Requirement
A
  1. Effected non-penny stock trans or 1 year before penny stock trade
  2. 3 different stocks & 3 different days
  3. May solicit without if established customer
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58
Q

Penny Stock Key Points

BD Exception for Solicitation

A

5% or less in Penny Stock Business

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59
Q

Penny Stock Key Points

Established Customer
1. Suitability Statement for Cold Calls
2. Disclosures

A
  1. Exempt
  2. Not Exempt for Disclosure
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60
Q

Penny Stock Definition

A

Under $5 OTC Pink Sheet OR
OTC Bulletin Board Stocks

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61
Q

Hedge Funds
Investors
Qualified Purchaser

A

$5M in Investments

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62
Q

Hedge Funds

Lock Up Provisions

A

At least 3 months

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63
Q

Hedge Funds

Blind Pool vs Blank Check Companies

A

Blind Pool - May disclose industry

Blank Check - no identity of investment intent

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64
Q

Hedge Funds

“Switching”

A

Rep moves customer between funds for no good reason

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65
Q

Management Companies

Shares Sold In
1. Closed End Funds
2. Open End Funds

A
  1. Full Only
  2. Fractional Allowed
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66
Q

Management Companies

Capital Required to issue Securities

A

at least $100,000

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67
Q

Management Companies

Borrowing Money
1. Closed End Funds
2. Open End Funds

A
  1. Issue bonds, Preferred Stock, Loans from Banks
  2. Short Term Only
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68
Q

Investment Advisers Act of 1940

  1. AUM required to register with SEC
  2. AUM required to register with State
  3. AUM dropped to triggering SEC to State Registration
A
  1. $110M
  2. <$100M
  3. $90M
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69
Q

Investment Advisers Act of 1940
3 types of Investment Companies

A
  1. Face Amount Certificate Companies
  2. UITs
  3. Management Companies (Mutual Funds)
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70
Q

Investment Advisers Act of 1940

Exemption to allow Advisory Fee Calculation based on Capital Gains Achieved

  1. Client AUM
    OR
  2. Client Net Worth
  3. Index Used to Gauge Performance
A
  1. $1M
  2. $2.1M
  3. S&P 500
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71
Q

Mutual Funds

Prompt Payment Timeline

A

within 2 BD or trade date
OR
1 BD of receipt
WHICHEVER IS LATER

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72
Q

Mutual Funds

Best Class to use in a Large Investment Share Recommendation

A

Class A Shares so they can get breakpoints

Breakpoints not available in Class B shares

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73
Q

Mutual Funds

Board of Director participation of Company Officers & Directors Limits

A

No more than 60% of the board

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74
Q

Mutual Funds

Referral Fees
1. Amount
2. To Who

A
  1. Nominal (same regardless of size)
  2. Certain Professionals allowed (lawyers, Accountants, ect.)
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75
Q

Management Company

SEC Names Rule

  1. % in given name (i.e. Growth fund)
  2. Sector Funds Asset Reqt.
A
  1. 80% (ie growth fund)
  2. At least 25% in that sector
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76
Q

Management Companies

Prospectus Updating
1. Time in use before updates necessary

  1. Maximum age of Financial Information
  2. Rule 482 (Omitting) Prospectus
A
  1. 9 months
  2. 16 months
  3. Mutual FUnd Allowed to Advertise without the FULL DISCLOSURE in the Prospectus
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77
Q

UITs

  1. Impact on Interest Income when Interest Rates Increase
  2. Authorities of Managers
A
  1. Remains the Same
  2. Limited (Portfolio is fixed & not traded).
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78
Q

UITs

  1. Fixed vs. Participating
  2. Variable Annuity Status
A
  1. Fixed - Not traded
    Participating - Portfolio of different Mutual Funds
  2. Operate as Participating Unit Trusts
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79
Q

Mutual Funds

Advisory Contracts
1. Initial Max Term
2. Termination Timeline Limit
3. Impact if Advisor Assigns relationship to another advisor

A
  1. 2 years
  2. 60 days written notice
  3. Termination
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80
Q

Mutual Funds

Advisory Contracts
1. Who reports & tracks compliance policies & procedures for the fund

  1. State of Regulatory Compliance Review Frequency
A
  1. Fund’s Chief Compliance Officer (CCO)
  2. Annually
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81
Q

Management Companies

Closed End vs Open End Fund

  1. Where to shares go upon redemption
A
  1. Closed End - to open market
    Open End- to Management Company only
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82
Q

Mutual Funds

When members buying from principal is allowed at a discount from POP

A

When Contract between member & principal exists
AND
Bought to fill customer order already received

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83
Q

12b-1 Fees

Limit for Mutual fund to advertise as “No Load”

A

0.25%

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84
Q

12b-1 Fees

Limit allowed

A

0.75% of the average annual net assets of the Investment Company

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85
Q

12b-1 Fees

“Trailer Commissions”

A

AKA Quarterly Trailers

Follow initial Sale and pays Rep %

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86
Q

12b-1 Fees

Process required to terminate 12b-1 charges

A

OUTSIDE DIRECTOR Majority Vote

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87
Q

12b-1 Fees

Reviews
1. Frequency
2. By who

A
  1. Quarterly
  2. BOD
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88
Q

12b-1 Fees

Not allowed to be used for

A

Investment Advisory Fees

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89
Q

Communications & Licenses

Required to approve Mutual Fund Retail Communications

A

General Securities Principal (Series 24)
OR
Investment Company Principal (Series 26)

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90
Q

Communications & Licenses

Required to Approve Advertising for Municipal Fund Securities

A

Series 53
Series 51
Series 24

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91
Q

Research Reports

Analyst using past recommendations in similar securities

A

must disclose ALL recommendations of past 12 months in similar securities
Cannot Cherry pick

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92
Q

Research Reports

Foreign Issuer Paying a Member Firm to Follow and Issue Research Reports on its Stock

A

Acceptable if Payment disclosure Made

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93
Q

Research Reports

Categorization of someone participating in an internet Chat Room

A

Public Appearance

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94
Q

Independently prepared reports

  1. Approval
  2. Filing Requirements
A
  1. Pre-use Approval by a principal
  2. No FINRA Filing Required
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95
Q

3 Categories of Communication

A
  1. Retail
  2. Correspondence
  3. Institutional
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96
Q

Public Appearance

  1. Policy
  2. Handouts, Scripts or Slides (including electronic)
A
  1. Firm must have written procedures
  2. Considered Communications
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97
Q

Personal Communications

  1. “Business As Such”
  2. Use of Personal Social Media for Business
  3. Posts to Social Media
A
  1. Content vs device
  2. Prohibited
  3. Requires Principal Approval
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98
Q

Retail Communications

  1. Record Retention
A

3 years

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99
Q

Status of Accredited Investors as it pertains to Retail Communications

A

Still considered Retail Investors

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100
Q

Telemarketing
Cold Calling Timeframe

A

8AM to 9PM

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101
Q

Telemarketing

Means of Communications Included

A

Phone, Fax or Email

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102
Q

Telemarketing

Established Business Relationship within what timeframe

A

last 18 months

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103
Q

Telemarketing

Established contact with the advisor within what timeline

A

last 3 months

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104
Q

Telemarketing

Safeharbor for Do Not Call Violations

A

within 31 days of receipt of new list

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105
Q

Telemarketing

When calling after 9pm is allowed

A

Acquaintances

Rep must attest in writing to BOM to genuine personal relationship

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106
Q

Generic Advertisement

A

Doesn’t recommend a specific fund or security

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107
Q

Transferring Assets to New Firm by Recruit

  1. Timeline for Customer Education Delivery
  2. When you can stop education delivery Requirement
A
  1. w/in 3 BD of Initial Contact
  2. 3 months after employment start date
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108
Q

Transferring Assets to New Firm by Recruit

Education Delivery

  1. Former client refuses to leave old firm
  2. Means to deliver
  3. Institutional Accts
A
  1. Not Required
  2. Can be email with hyperlink
  3. Not Required
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109
Q

Required Disclosures in Research Reports & Public Appearances

Analyst or Family Member Interest

  1. %
  2. Within what Timeframe of owning
A
  1. 1% or more
  2. Close of Previous Month
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110
Q

Required Disclosures in Research Reports & Public Appearances

Firm Interest with Company:

  1. Prior Fees received
  2. Anticipated future fees or business
A
  1. within last 12 months
  2. in next 3 months
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111
Q

Blackout Periods

  1. Definition
  2. New Issue Timeframe
  3. Secondary Offering Timeframe
A
  1. Quiet period for members who participated in underwriting
  2. 10 days
  3. 3 days
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112
Q

Exceptions for Blackout Periods

2 Situations

A

Significant News Event

OR

Company is actively traded security by Reg M, Rule 139 already

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113
Q

Research reports need to be distributed to how many persons

A

15

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114
Q

Use of price history in a research report…timeline needed to cover

A

last 12 months

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115
Q

Criteria for using past recommendations in building a research report

A

Only comparable companies over the last 12 months

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116
Q

Rules for analysts in trading a stock it releases research on

  1. Before
  2. After
A
  1. 30 days before
  2. 5 days after
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117
Q

Requirement when terminating coverage of a company as an analyst

A

Requires final report with a rating

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118
Q

Unscripted Appearance in an online seminar

  1. Approval
  2. Supervision
A
  1. No Approval Required
  2. Must be supervised
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119
Q

Electronic Forums

Approvals for Blogs:
1. Blogs (Static)
2. Blogs (Updated Frequently)
3. Blogs (Interactive)

A
  1. Prior Principal Approval
  2. Prior Principal Approval
  3. No Prior Approval, Must be supervised
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120
Q
  1. Categorization of Social Media Tweets
  2. Approvals?
A
  1. Retail Communication
  2. Require Prior Approval
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121
Q

Associated Person using the Firm’s Static Content on his own personal blog

A

Allowed with Approval and record maintained

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122
Q

Filing Required for Changes in Member Name, Admin Info, NASDAQ Symbol

A

No Filing Required

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123
Q

FINRA Filing Requirements types for Post Filing for retail communications

A

10 days after 1st use for
Investment Company
DPP
CMO

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124
Q

FINRA Filing Requirements types for Pre Filing for retail communications

A

10 days before 1st use for
Options
Securities Futures

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125
Q

Testimonials

  1. Disclosure Required
  2. Special Experience or Knowledge claim
  3. Use of clients
A
  1. Paid $100 or more
  2. Ad Must state Qualifications
  3. Prohibited
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126
Q

Use of “Free of Charge” Ads requires

A

must be without condition or obligation

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127
Q

Mention of FINRA or SRO Membership in advertisements

A

Prohibited

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128
Q

Advertising for Personnel Positions with Earnings Ranges

A

Must be reasonable and Realistic

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129
Q

Municipal Securities Principal

  1. Exam
  2. Number Required
  3. Qualification
A
  1. Series 53
  2. 2 (unless <11)
  3. Supervise Municipal Securities
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130
Q

Municipal Fund Securities Principal

  1. Exam
  2. Number Required
  3. Qualification
A
  1. Series 51 or 53
  2. 2 (unless <11)
  3. Supervise Municipal FUND Activities
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131
Q

Municipal Securities Sales Principal

  1. Exam
  2. Number Required
  3. Qualification
A
  1. Series 9/10
  2. 0
  3. Supervise SALES Related Activity (may not approve advertising)
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132
Q

Municipal Securities Representative

  1. Exam
  2. Qualification
A
  1. Series 52 or 7
  2. Purchase, Sell, Underwrite Municipal Securities
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133
Q

Series 14

A

Compliance Officer

Required for Chief Compliance Offices

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134
Q

Financial and Operations Principal (FinOp)

  1. Exam
  2. Number Required
  3. Qualification
A
  1. Series 27
  2. 1 per firm
  3. Supervise Financial Reporting and Clearance
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135
Q

Types not requiring FINRA Registration

A

Insurance Agents
Commodities Futures Reps
Traders of Commercial Paper
US Treasury Traders

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136
Q

Registration Required for Straight Annuity Sales Reps

A

FINRA Registration

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137
Q

Active Duty Military

  1. Training Tolled
  2. CE Requirements
  3. Timeline Followed upon return
A
  1. 90 days after
  2. None
  3. Picks up where they left off after toll expires
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138
Q
  1. Days to pay monetary awards
  2. Penalty if not met
A
  1. 30 days
  2. Suspension or revocation after giving 15 days written notice
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139
Q

MSRB Rule Enforcement

  1. Broker Dealer
  2. National Banks
  3. Non-National Banks
  4. Non National Banks that are also Not Member of Fed Reserve System
A
  1. FINRA & SEC
  2. Comptroller of Currency
  3. Federal Reserve Board
  4. FDIC
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140
Q

Appeal Cutoff

A

within 25 days of service of decision

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141
Q

Appeal process next levels

A
  1. Dept of Enforcement
  2. National Adjudicatory Council (NAC)
  3. Board of Governors
  4. SEC
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142
Q

Series 24

A

General Supervisory Functions

Can Approve Communications including Municipal

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143
Q

Requirement of 2 Principals for a Municipal Securities Firm

2 Exceptions that warrant only 1 Principal

A
  1. <11 Associated Persons
  2. Firm belongs to another Securities Association such as FINRA
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144
Q

Form U4

  1. Signed by who
  2. Employment History
  3. Residence History
A
  1. General Securities Principal
  2. 10 years
  3. 5 years
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145
Q

Timeline for Member to Comply with FINRA Disciplinary Investigation

Consequences if not met

A
  1. 20 days after written notification
  2. Suspension
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146
Q

Days to respond to customer request for pre-dispute Arbitration Agreement

A

10 Business Days

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147
Q

Code of Procedure

  1. Purpose
  2. Days to Answer
A
  1. Trade Practice Violation
  2. 25 days to answer
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148
Q

Arbitration

  1. Days to answer Statement of Claim
  2. Consequence for no response
A
  1. 45 days
  2. Barred from providing any evidence
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149
Q

Simplified Arbitration

  1. Threshold
  2. Timeline to Pay Awards
  3. Time Limit to Submit Claim
A
  1. $50k or less
  2. 30 days
  3. 6 Years
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150
Q

Timeline to submit Broker Dealer’s updated Contact inform to FINRA

A

17 Business Days after end or each QUARTER

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151
Q

Statutory Disqualification events days to report to FINRA

A

Promptly NLT 30 days

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152
Q

U4 Amendment Timelines

  1. Statutory Disqualification Event
  2. Other Amendments
A
  1. 10 days
  2. 30 days
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153
Q

Written Complaint Filing Timeline to FINRA

A

15 days after end of each QTR

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154
Q

Types of Securities allowed when a Member Firm joins in an Underwriting with NonMembers

A

Exempt Securities
OR
Foreign Underwritings

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155
Q

U5

  1. Days to submit after departure
  2. Days to turn over to new employer if requested of employee
A
  1. 30 days
  2. 2 business days
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156
Q

Approved duties of a NonRegistered Foreign Representative employed by a Nonmember Affiliate Overseas

& Things they may not do

A

Visit US Customer
Effect Trades through US Firm

May not ACCEPT ORDERS from a US Customer

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157
Q

Settlement Thresholds that warrant Immediate FINRA Notification

  1. Individual
  2. Firm
A
  1. $15,000
  2. $25,000
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158
Q

Exception to Notification to firm for transactions with other firms by Associated Person

A

Investment Company Products

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159
Q

OSJ Inspection Frequency for Branches that supervise

A

Annually

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160
Q

OSJ Inspection Frequency for Branches that do not supervise

A

every 3 years

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161
Q

OSJ Inspection Frequency for Branches that Approve Research

A

No Inspection Required

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162
Q

OSJ Inspection Frequency for Branches that just retain records

A

every 3 years

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163
Q

Inspection Frequency for Internal Branch (Not OSJ)

A

As often as necessary

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164
Q

Compliance exams (inspections) required how often of Municipal Broker Dealer Members of FINRA

A

Every 4 years

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165
Q

Records on Gifts kept how long

A

6 years

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166
Q

Temporary hiring of employee of other member firm

  1. FINRA Permission
  2. Record Retention
A
  1. Not Required
  2. 3 years
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167
Q

Gift Limit

A

$100

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168
Q

Principal Designation record retention timeline

A

6 years

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169
Q

Tape Recording

Registered Reps & # from Disciplined Firms
1. Level A
2. Level B
3. Level C

A
  1. 5-9 RR with 40% or more
  2. 10 - 19 RR with 4 or More
  3. 20+ RR with 20% or more
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170
Q

Tape Recording

Frequency of reports to FINRA

A

Quarterly

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171
Q

Tape Recording

Violation Period

A

within the last 3 years

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172
Q

Tape Recording

Who must be monitored

A

Everyone

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173
Q

Tape Recording

  1. Days to Reduce #s
  2. Days to Implement
A
  1. 30
  2. 60
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174
Q

Political Contributions
MSRB Rule 37

Counted Contribution if
1. spouse of MFP gives from joint account
2. Spouse of MFP gives from single account

A
  1. 50% of contribution
  2. 0% (not covered by rule)
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175
Q

Political Contributions
MSRB Rule 37

Form G37
1. Submittal Frequency
2. Years kept on File

A
  1. Quarterly
    Jan 31, Apr 30, Jul 31, Oct 31
  2. 6 Years
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176
Q

Political Contributions
MSRB Rule 37

If donor was in different role when donation made

A

effective date of donation even if prior to MFP role

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177
Q

FINRA Rule for Clearing Firms to provide their Correspondent Introducing Firms a List of their Exception Reports available for their use by what date>

A

July 1st

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178
Q

Branch Office Rules

  1. Securities Business Limits
  2. NonSecurities Business Limits
A
  1. <30 DAYS / year
  2. < 25 TRANSACTIONs / year
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179
Q

Rule G37
Automatic Exemption

  1. Discovery Period
  2. Dollar Limit
  3. Recovery Period
  4. # Allowed
A
  1. within 4 months of contribution
  2. Not exceed $250
  3. Returned within 60 days of discovery
  4. 2 per year
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180
Q

FINRA Rule 2030

  1. Time Out Period
  2. Dollar Limit (entitled to vote)
  3. Dollar Limit (not entitled to vote)
A
  1. 2 year timeout period
  2. $350
  3. $150
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181
Q

Selling Concessions and Discounts when Dealing with NonMembers

  1. Standard Rule
  2. Exception
A
  1. only between Member Firms
  2. Foreign NonMember not Eligible for FINRA Membership
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182
Q

Associated Persons Outside Accounts when starting at. anew firm

  1. Timeline to notify
  2. Spouses & Children
A
  1. 30 days
  2. also covered
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183
Q

Form Used to certify firm has supervisory procedures in place

A

Form BD

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184
Q

Regulation X

  1. What is it?
  2. Collateral Restrictions
  3. Check Cashing
A
  1. Offshore Account Restriction
  2. Requires Reg T Compliance for $ borrowed from outside US to buy US securities
  3. Must clear before funds free for purchase
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185
Q

Pattern Day Traders

Minimum Maintenance Margin

A

25%

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186
Q

Pattern Day Traders

Buying Power vs. Regular Customer

A

PDT - 4 Times MAINT Margin Excess

RC - 2 Times SMA

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187
Q

Cross Guarantee

  1. Regular Customer
  2. Day Trader
A
  1. Allowed to use in his account to cover other Margin Calls
  2. Not allowed to use other accounts to cover his margin Calls
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188
Q

Prime Brokerage Account

Mechanics

A

Customer Trades
routed to
Executing Brokers A, B or C
routed to
Prime Broker

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189
Q

Prime Brokerage Account

Purpose

A

Provides customer with reports and custody

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190
Q

Prudent Expert Rule

  1. What is it
  2. Types of Investments
A
  1. Permits Fiduciary to buy securities a prudent expert would buy
  2. Non-Speculative, Low to mod risk, in line with Modern Portfolio Principles
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191
Q

USA Patriot Act

Document required for ID when opening account for Nonresident Alien

A

Passport Number
or
Alien Registration Card

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192
Q

Research Analyst Compensation

  1. Prohibited Participants
  2. Frequency for Approvals
A
  1. Investment Banking Personnel
    Other Analysts
  2. Annually
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193
Q

Limitation to Requirement for Duplicate Copies for Employee with Outside account

A

Muni Funds
Variable Annuities
Mutual Funds
UITs

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194
Q

Gives Real-time Prices Paid for Interdealer Transactions of Munis

A

EMMA
Electronic
Municipal
Market
Access

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195
Q

Who has final Authority on all Negotiability and Good Delivery Matters involving Certificates

A

Transfer Agent

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196
Q

What terminates the discretionary authority on a Discretionary Acct

A

Death or mental incompetence

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197
Q

Not Held Order

A

Price and Time
Day orders

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198
Q

Holding Mail

  1. Convenience Limit
  2. Acceptable Reasons for Longer Periods
A
  1. 3 months
  2. Safety or Security
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199
Q

Offer of Rescission

  1. What is it
  2. Cost Basis
  3. Interest
  4. Timeline to Accept Offer
A
  1. Firm offers to buy back security
  2. Higher cost or Market Value
  3. Interest Paid from date of purchase to repurchase date
  4. 30 days
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200
Q

Quantitative Suitability Obligation

A

Requires BD to ensure transactions are not excessive even if they are suitable individually

Suitability in the aggregate

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201
Q

Municipal Broker Dealer

  1. Who approves complaint resolutions
  2. Time kept on file
    MSRB Rules
    FINRA Rules
A
  1. Municipals Principal (Series 53)
    Municipal Sales Principal (Series 10)
  2. MSRB - 6 years
    FINRA - 4 Years
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202
Q

Bearer Bond Denominations

A

$1,000 or $5,000

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203
Q

Registered Bond Denominations

A

$1,000 or $100,000

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204
Q

Partial Delivery

  1. MSRB Rules
  2. FINRA Rules
A
  1. Never Allowed
  2. Only Round Lots
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205
Q

Callable Bond Delivery

If ID’d at time of trade as called

A

Delivery of Called Bonds is Good

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206
Q

Callable Bond Delivery

Partial called on or before settlement date

A

Seller must deliver only non-called bonds

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207
Q

Callable Bond Delivery

Whole Call on/before Trade date

A

Seller must ID to Buyer that bond is called

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208
Q

Callable Bond Delivery

Whole Called AFTER trade Date

A

Bond is good deliver - buyer must accept

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209
Q

When are OTC securities marginable

A

Only if on Fed Reserves Marginable Securities List

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210
Q

When are Standard Options Marginable

A

if > 9 months

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211
Q

Margining LEAPS

  1. Timeframe for eligibility
  2. Reg T Requirement
A
  1. > 9Months
  2. 75% of Premium
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212
Q

When is the Risk Disclosure Due on a Day Trading Account and how can delivery be made

A

Before Opening Account

In Writing or Electronically

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213
Q

How long do you have to get approval if an account is engaging in day trading but not yet approved

A

10 days

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214
Q

Disclosure for Day Trading requirements in an Institutional Account versus a Non-Institutional Account

A

Institutional does not require disclosure

Non-institutional does

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215
Q

LGIPs

  1. What are they
  2. Guarantee
A
  1. Pool of multiple municipal funds issued by State
  2. Not guaranteed
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216
Q

MSRB Rule 17

A

Proper Conduct Rule
Must deal fairly with all persons

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217
Q

Municipal Securities Status WRT Securities Act of 1933

A

Exempt Securities

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218
Q

MSRB Regulating over Municipalities

A

Municipalities are not subject to regulation by MSRB

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219
Q

Form U6 Purpose

A

Used by regulators to report Disciplinary Action and Final Arbitration Awards

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220
Q

Foreign Associates

  1. Who Are they
  2. Registration
  3. Licensing
A
  1. Conduct all business outside the US
  2. Must Register with FINRA
  3. Exempt from Exams
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221
Q

Series 57

A

Securities Trader
Direct Access to the Marketplace

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222
Q

Regulatory Element

Computer-Based Training Requirement
1. Initial
2. All Others

A
  1. w/in 120 days of 2nd anniversary
  2. Every 3 years after
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223
Q

Series 9/10 Authorities when it comes to Municipal Securities and other General Securities

A

May supervise activities

May NOT Approve Advertising

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224
Q

Minor Rule Violation Max Fine

A

$2,500

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225
Q

Industrial Development Bonds

  1. Tax Treatment
  2. Who Issues
A
  1. Alternative Min Tax
  2. Municipality
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226
Q

License Required to Sell Municipal FUND Securities

A

6, 7, or 52

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227
Q

3 Stages of Money Laundering Process

A

Placement
Layering
Integration

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228
Q

SIPC Coverage

  1. Max Allowed
  2. Cash Balance Max
A
  1. $500,000 per client
  2. $250,000 cash
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229
Q

Outside Business Activities

  1. Employee Requirement
  2. Firm Requirement
  3. Approval
A
  1. Written Notification
  2. May reject or restrict
  3. Written Approval by Firm Not Required
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230
Q

Effective Date for Sanctions

A

No earlier than 30 days

unless permanent cease & desist order

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231
Q

Timeline to File Fingerprint Card with FINRA

A

NLT 30 days after filing U4

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232
Q

Timeline a Member is still subject to a complaint for activity after having left the firm

A

2 years
(includes nonregistered personell)

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233
Q

Arbitration

When must a customer submit a request for written explanation as to why a claim was granted or denied (explain the decision)?

A

Before Arbitration Panel Holds 1st Meeting

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234
Q

A municipal securities sales principal (NYSE sales supervisor) may be given responsibility for directly supervising which of the following activities of a municipal securities dealer?

A)
Underwriting
B)
Approving customer accounts
C)
Trading
D)
Retail communications

A

B)
Approving customer accounts

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235
Q

The MSRB regulates the municipal securities activities of all of the following except

A)
municipal brokers’ brokers.
B)
municipal issuers.
C)
municipal syndicates.
D)
municipal bank dealers.

A

B)
municipal issuers.

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236
Q

Each of the following words or phrase are associated with Regulation A except

A)
12-month period.
B)
access equals delivery.
C)
Form 8-A.
D)
80% of the issuer’s assets located in the state of incorporation.

A

D)
80% of the issuer’s assets located in the state of incorporation.

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237
Q

According to MSRB rules, to constitute good delivery, bonds must be accompanied by all of the following except

A)
the delivery ticket.
B)
an endorsement of the certificate.
C)
the legal opinion.
D)
the trust indenture.

A

D)
the trust indenture.

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238
Q

Underwriters must submit copies of the official statement (OS)

A)
by overnight service.
B)
by First-Class Mail or some equally prompt means.
C)
electronically to a Nationally Recognized Municipal Securities Information Repository.
D)
electronically to EMMA.

A

D)
electronically to EMMA.

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239
Q

Retail communications concerning which of the following must be filed with FINRA’s Advertising Regulation Department within 10 days of first use?

A)
Corporate straight-debt securities
B)
Equity securities
C)
Corporate convertible-debt securities
D)
Open-end investment company securities

A

D)
Open-end investment company securities

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240
Q

Which statement is true concerning a municipal broker-dealer’s supervisory system?

A)
A municipal representative may not assist in the counting of physical securities.
B)
A municipal representative may supervise trainees.
C)
A municipal principal does not have to be located at each branch office where municipal business is conducted.
D)
A municipal principal must be physically located at each branch office where municipal business is conducted.

A

C)
A municipal principal does not have to be located at each branch office where municipal business is conducted.

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241
Q

How many business days after the settlement date does a broker-dealer have to buy in a customer who has failed to deliver securities to satisfy a sale?

A

10 BDs

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242
Q

FINRA members may charge separately for all of the following services except

A)
transfer of securities.
B)
appraisals of privately placed securities.
C)
recommendations of which securities to buy or sell.
D)
safekeeping of physical securities.

A

C)
recommendations of which securities to buy or sell.

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243
Q

Control stock purchased in the open market is

I. restricted for one year from purchase.
II. not restricted.
III. subject to volume restrictions under Rule 144 when sold.
IV. not subject to volume restrictions under Rule 144 when sold.
A)
I and III
B)
II and IV
C)
I and IV
D)
II and III

A

II. not restricted.
III. subject to volume restrictions under Rule 144 when sold.

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244
Q

Under MSRB Rule G-15, each of the following must be disclosed on a customer confirmation except

A)
control relationship (if any).
B)
CUSIP number.
C)
bond rating.
D)
the fact that a bond is not rated.

A

C)
bond rating.

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245
Q

All of the following disputes that an associated person has with a member firm are excepted from the FINRA Code of Arbitration except

A)
discrimination.
B)
sexual harassment.
C)
hostile work environment.
D)
whistleblower retaliation.

A

C)
hostile work environment.

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246
Q

A customer’s margin account may be guaranteed

A)
by another customer of the broker-dealer carrying the account.
B)
by a member of the customer’s immediate family.
C)
by the broker-dealer carrying the account.
D)
under no circumstances.

A

A)
by another customer of the broker-dealer carrying the account.

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247
Q

Which of these individuals must register as a principal with FINRA?

A)
A director of human resources for a member firm
B)
A registered representative that manages a branch office
C)
A director actively engaged in a member firm’s securities business
D)
A nominal corporate officer of a member firm

A

C)
A director actively engaged in a member firm’s securities business

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248
Q

You receive an email from a customer who requests that you contact one of his friends who is interested in opening up a brokerage account. The friend is on the National Do Not Call Registry. Under FINRA rules, you may

A)
contact this person by phone without restriction.
B)
contact this person by phone only if he is not on your firm’s do-not-call list.
C)
contact this person by phone only between 8:00 am and 9:00 pm.
D)
not contact this person by phone.

A

D)
not contact this person by phone.

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249
Q

During a training session, representative asks you about common violations that she wishes to avoid. You tell her that of the following potential violations, the one you are least concerned about is

A)
rehypothecating fully paid customer securities with a third-party bank to secure a margin loan.
B)
commingling of a customer’s securities with those of other customers in a margin account.
C)
backing away from a quote.
D)
breakpoint sales.

A

B)
commingling of a customer’s securities with those of other customers in a margin account.

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250
Q

An issuer may direct sales of a new issue to all of the following except

A)
officers of its largest supplier.
B)
officers of the managing underwriter.
C)
officers of its largest customer.
D)
officers of the issuer.

A

B)
officers of the managing underwriter.

Issuer-directed sales are permitted if the persons to whom the new issue is sold are not restricted. Officers of the managing underwriter are restricted.

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251
Q

Rule 144 applies to the sale of securities by all of the following except

A)
nonissuers.
B)
affiliated persons.
C)
control persons.
D)
issuers.

A

D)
issuers.

the rule deals with the sale of unregistered securities by nonaffiliated persons (e.g., investors who bought unregistered shares in a private placement) and the sale of registered stock by control persons and their affiliates (e.g., spouses).

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252
Q

If an investment adviser purchases a research report from the advisory arm of a nonaffiliated broker- dealer, the adviser may distribute this report to customers when

A

D)
if the customers are told that the report was prepared by a third party.

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253
Q

Which statement concerning the delivery of an official statement (OS) to investors is not true?

A)
When a final official statement is not prepared but a preliminary OS is, that POS must be provided to investors with notice that a final OS will not be available.
B)
When an official statement is not prepared, notice of that is sent to customers.
C)
Underwriters are required to submit to the MSRB for posting on EMMA copies of the official statement for new issues of municipal securities.
D)
Official statements are not required to be sent to customers with exempt securities.

A

D)
Official statements are not required to be sent to customers with exempt securities.

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254
Q

Activity Allowed during a trading Halt

A

Only cancel an open order

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255
Q

Which of the following statements regarding corporate officers and affiliates are true?

I. The number of an issuer’s exchange-listed equity securities is limited in any 90-day period.
II. Short swing profits must be disgorged.
III. Form 13D must be filed when holdings reach 5%.
IV. Short selling is permitted.

A

I. The number of an issuer’s exchange-listed equity securities is limited in any 90-day period.
II. Short swing profits must be disgorged.

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256
Q

Market participation in which of the following securities or activities is not subject to MSRB regulation?

A)
State IOUs (warrants)
B)
Build America Bonds (BABs)
C)
Issuer’s reliance on market participants placing private activity bonds (PABs)
D)
Bond ballot campaign contributions

A

The MSRB has no jurisdiction over issuers, including their reliance upon anything.

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257
Q

Which of the following are true regarding the tiers of securities offerings available under Regulation A that facilitate capital raising by smaller companies?

A)
Neither tier requires public investors to be qualified or accredited.
B)
Both tiers require that public investors be accredited.
C)
Each tier is open to the public for investing.
D)
Both tiers specify maximum investment limits per offering for investors.

A

C)
Each tier is open to the public for investing.

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258
Q

Under SEC rules, the ABC Growth Fund must have at least what percentage of its portfolio invested in growth stocks?

A

80%

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259
Q

Confirmation of a regular way municipal securities trade between dealers must be mailed

A

on or before the business day following the trade date.

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260
Q

A registered associated person of ABC Securities, a member firm, walks into your office and wants to open a brokerage account. Your firm must notify ABC Securities in writing before

A

opening the account.

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261
Q

Under which of the following circumstances is a foreign issuer subject to Regulation S?

A)
U.S. residents own 9% of its debt securities or 21% of its voting securities
B)
U.S. residents own 22% of its debt securities or 51% of its voting securities
C)
U.S. residents own 12% of its debt securities or 31% of its voting securities
D)
U.S. residents own 19% of its debt securities or 41% of its voting securities

A

To be a foreign issuer, no more than 50% of its voting securities and no more than 20% of its debt securities can be owned by persons with U.S. addresses.

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262
Q

Dealers participating in a secondary market joint account cannot quote the securities if the quotations indicate what

A

that there is more than one market for these bonds.

In other words, all participants must be offering the bonds at the same price.

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263
Q

The FINRA 5% policy

A

only a guide to fair markups and commissions

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264
Q

Under SEC Rule 10b-18, an issuer purchasing its own securities must adhere to the following rules:

  1. # of Market Makers used
  2. Daily Trading Volume Limit
  3. Block Purchases
A
  1. Only 1 MM
  2. 25% average daily trading volume
  3. Allowed
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265
Q

Status of Outside Directors or Partners whose only connection with the firm is the contribution of capital

A

Associated Persons of the Broker Dealer

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266
Q

U5 Form

Former Employer
1. Filing with CRD timeline
2. Providing to new Employer

A
  1. 30 days
  2. Not Required from former to new employer
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267
Q

When might a Broker Dealer become exempt from filing Form G37

A

Not Engaged in Municipal Securities Business for
8 Consecutive Quarters

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268
Q

Branch Officer Designated Supervisors Location

A

Not required to be physically located at the branch

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269
Q

Certificate of Incumbency

  1. What is it?
  2. Valid for how long?
A
  1. Appoints an individual to oversee guardianship account
  2. 60 days
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270
Q

UTMA/UGMA Accounts

Social Security Numbers of Minor

A

Required on Account

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271
Q

140% Rule

  1. Max Allowed by a firm to borrow
  2. Max Allowed to Hypothecate
A
  1. No More than 100% of Debit Balance
  2. 140% of Debit Balance
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272
Q

Maintenance Market Value Calculation

A

=DB/0.75

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273
Q

Minimum Maintenance Calculation

A

25% of LMV

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274
Q

Timeline to get Quarterly and Monthly Period Statements to customers by the end of the period

A

5 business days

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275
Q

Requirement if a customer wishes to receive periodic statements as an alternative to immediate confirmations of individual transactions

  1. Individual requirement
  2. If Participating in a Group Plan
A
  1. Customer Must Consent in writing
  2. No Consent required
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276
Q

Statement Requirement for

  1. Periodic Municipal Fund Security Plans

vs

  1. NonPeriodic Municipal Funds Security Programs
A
  1. Quarterly
  2. Monthly
277
Q

2 Situations that require permissoin from a discretionary Account Holder

A
  1. Existence of Control Relationship
  2. DPP Transaction
278
Q

Approval required for Municipal Securities Transaction in a Discretionary Account

A

Written approval of Municipal Securites Principal or Municipal Securities Sales Principal for EACH transaction

Includes Time & Date

279
Q

Free Credit Balance Notification Requirement

  1. Active Accounts
  2. Inactive Accounts
A
  1. Monthly
  2. Quarterly
280
Q

Private Placement Filing Requirement

Offerings Exempt from Registration under Securities Act of 1933
1. Investor Type
2. Advertising & Solicitation
3. Form Required
4. Timeline to File

A
  1. Accredited Only
  2. Not allowed
  3. Form D
  4. 15 days of the first sale
281
Q

Rule 144

  1. Purpose
  2. Status
A
  1. Safeharbor to sellers allowing them to offer shares without being deemed engaged in a distribution
  2. NOT UNDERWRITERS
282
Q

Rule 144 Private Placement

Holding Periods for
Control Stock vs Restricted Stock

A

Control - None
Restricted - Holding Period

283
Q

Rule 144 Private Placement

Volume Limits

Control Stock vs Restricted (Affiliate vs, Non)

A

Control Stock - Always apply

Restricted
Nonaffiliate - Sell freely after holding period
Affiliate - Volume Limits always

284
Q

Rule 144 Private Placement

Volume Limits

Control Stock
vs
Restricted Affiliate
vs
Restricted Non Affiliate

A

Control Stock - Always apply

Restricted
Nonaffiliate - Sell freely after holding period
Affiliate - Volume Limits always

285
Q

Rule 144

Restricted Stock held by estate volume limits and holding period

A

Exempt from holding period & volume limits

286
Q

Rule 144

Transactions should be executed how

A

Agency Only
UNLESS
Firm is registered Market Maker or Block Positioner in the shock

287
Q

Rule 144

When Callbacks are Authorized when interest expressed

  1. Customers
  2. Firms
A
  1. 10 BDs
  2. 60 Calendar Days
288
Q

Which Broker Dealers are Exempt from Penny Stock Rules

A

Those whose transactions are 5% or less of total revenues

289
Q

Action required when a security that represents 5% of total asset in a fund increases due to capital appreciation to maintain a diversified status

A

No Action Required

290
Q

Timeline to retain file for all correspondence

A

3 years

291
Q

Form U5 penalty for not disclosing a problem as a principal timeframe

A

2 years

292
Q

Uniformed Securities Act requires what?

A

Requires BDs to register in State

AKA “Blue Sky Laws”

293
Q

SIPC Coverage for Corporate & Partnership Accounts

A

Each account entitled to separate customer status; separate from the accounts of its directors, partners, or owners

294
Q

SIPC Coverage for Trust Accounts

A

Considered a separate customer from other parties

295
Q

SIPC Coverage for multiple Joint Accounts

A

Combined for coverage purposes

296
Q

SIPC Coverage for customer with both Margin and Cash Account

A

Combined for coverage purposes

297
Q

Freeriding

A

Buying stock and selling it the next day to cover original purchase

298
Q

Short Selling

Institutional lenders making their shares available rights

A

right to charge a fee to borrow

299
Q

Short Selling

Dividend Payouts:
1. To Lender
2. To Buyer

A
  1. From Borrower’s Account
  2. Directly from Issuer
300
Q

Short Selling

Stock Split impact

A

Lender retains right but goes to buyer

Borrower settles with lender on close-out

301
Q

Margin Agreements

Disclosure Document:
1. Initial Delivery
2. Subsequent Deliver

A
  1. at or before Acct Opening
  2. Annually
302
Q

Using Margin in Trust Accounts

A

Only if written into the trust

303
Q

Use of Margin Agreements for Customer Opening Online

A

Post Disclosure on Firm Website

304
Q

UGMA/UTMA

Status of a Gift

A

Irrevocable

305
Q

Double Barrel Bond

A

Both GO and Revenue Bond Combined

i.e. State University

306
Q

Bond Legal Opinion

  1. Unqualified
  2. Qualified
  3. Ex-Legal
A
  1. Unqual - without restriction
  2. Qual - Expresses reservations with issue
  3. No legal opinion
307
Q

Who pays shipping costs for bond certificate delivery

A

Seller

308
Q

Not Held Orders when client leaves country

A

Obtain Discretionary Authority

309
Q

Document required for mutilated bond certificate to be good delivery

A

Validation Letter

310
Q

Order ticket when a customer is Long and Short a position

A

Net Position entered for tracking Purposes

311
Q

Order Tickets retained for how long

A

3 years

312
Q

Information not required on a Customer Confirmation

A

Solicited/Unsolicited
Discretionary or not

313
Q

Proxy Materials

  1. Customer Suspense to Return
  2. Who Pays Shipping Costs
A
  1. 10 days before Annual Meeting
  2. Issuer reimburses firm
314
Q

Electronic Blue Sheets

A

Used to submit responses to insider trading inquiries from SEC

315
Q

Penalty for Controlled Person who makes trade in Insider Trading

A

Three Times the Profit made or loss avoided

316
Q

Insider Trading Statute of Limitations

A

5 years from transaction dates

317
Q

Relatives included in restricted persons definition

A

Spouse, Parents, Childre, Siblings, In Laws, person who lives in HH or provides material support to or receives material support from

DOES NOT INCLUDE Grandparents or Aunts/Uncles

318
Q

Standby Purchaser of an IPO is restricted from Resale for how long

A

3 months

319
Q

Sub Penny Rule

  1. Minimum Increment Allowed
  2. Pink Sheet Quotes Allowed
  3. Pink Sheet Order Pricing Allowed
A
  1. $0.0001
  2. in Sub Pennies
  3. Whole Pennies only
320
Q

Frequency Allowed between 1035 exchanges

A

36 months

321
Q

Penny Stocks

Risk Disclosure Requirement
1. Delivery
2. Customer Responsibility

A
  1. Before Initial Transaction
  2. Signed by customer
322
Q

Members and Associated Persons Sharing Commissions and Allowances with Nonmembers

1, Normal Practice
2. Exception

A
  1. Not Allowed
  2. Nonregistered Foreign persons may receive compensation for sending foreign referrals
323
Q

`Broker

A

Person engaging in business of effecting transactions in securities

324
Q

Dealer

A

Those acting on behalf of their own proprietary account

325
Q

OSJ Person in Charge

A

Resident Principal

326
Q

Time Limit for Registered Rep to fill in as Principal for a branch without qualification exams

A

120 days

327
Q

Grounds for FINRA to request that the FBI search its database using an Associated Person’s Name

A

After 3 unsuccessful attempts at reading a fingerprint card

328
Q

Types of claims Not Subject to FINRA Arbitration

A

Class Action Claims

329
Q

During Mediation

Once Mediation begins, when may a party withdraw

A

at any time without consent of the mediator or other party

330
Q

Who serves the balance of a 2-year prohibition when a MFP leaves a firm they committed the violation in and goes to a new one

A

Both Firms complete the balance

331
Q

Who gets the results once a branch exam is complete?

A

OSJ

332
Q

Suspended Member eligibility to participate as a Syndicate Member for an underwriting if their suspension ends before effective dates of the offering

A

Still prohibited

333
Q

Regulation National Market System (NMS)

A

Ensures investors get National Best Bid or Offer (NBBO)

334
Q

Information required when entering an order for a partnership, corporation, or joint account

A

Names & address of person entering order

335
Q

Form W8 vs W9

A

W8 - Foreign Validation Tax Status
W9 - US Validation Tax Status

336
Q

Currency Transaction Report (CTR)

  1. Dollar Threshold
  2. Filing Timeline
  3. Form Used
  4. Reports To
A

1.MORE THAN $10,000 single day
2. 15 Days
3. Form 112
4. Fed Reserve & Dept of Treasury

337
Q

Suspicious Activity Report (SAR)

  1. Dollar Threshold
  2. Filing Timeline
  3. Form Used
  4. Reports to
A
  1. $5,000 in aggregate
  2. 30 Days
  3. FinCEN Report 111
  4. FinCEN (Financial Crimes Enforcement Network)
338
Q

PATRIOT Act

Wire Transfer Records

  1. Dollar Threshold
  2. Form Used
A
  1. $3,000
  2. FinCEN Report 111
339
Q

Introducing (Fully Disclosed) Broker-Dealer

A

Like a Boutique Firm using Schwab to effect trades

340
Q

Specified Adult

  1. Temporary Hold Timeline
  2. Extension
A
  1. 15 BDs
  2. 10 BDs
341
Q

Options use in a Custodial Account

A

Covered Call Writing only

342
Q

Commingling Securities for Hypothecation

  1. Among Customers
  2. Proprietary Accounts
A
  1. Allowed
  2. Never Allowed
343
Q

Additional Purchases in a restricted account

A

Requires 50% up front

344
Q

When is SMA prohibited from being used

A

When it brings the account below minimum (25%)

345
Q

House Call

A

Firm’s Internal Minimum Margin for a Margin Account

346
Q

Setting Up A Short Account

  1. Minimum Balance
A
  1. $2,000
347
Q

Purchasing New Issues On Margin

TImeline To Pass before Allowed

A

30 days after IPO

348
Q

Time period required to pass before Mutual Fund can be used to meet Fed Fall on subsequent purchase of stock

A

30 days

349
Q

Purchasing Mutual Funds on Margin

A

Not Allowed

350
Q

Customers buying options in a Margin Account

A

Must pay FULL Premium

351
Q

18 Month Record

A

Exception Reports

352
Q

CTR (Form 112)
SAR (Form 111)
Records Related to Customer Identification

A

5 Year Records

353
Q

Advertising
FOCUS Reports
Trial Balances
Form U4, U5 and fingerprint cards for terminated personnel
Order Tickets
Customer Confirms
Compliance Manuals

A

3 Year Records

354
Q

Records of Designated Principals

A

6 Year Records

355
Q

ACATS

  1. Validate & Return Trans Instruction to receiving member
  2. Complete Transfer
  3. Send Proceeds for NonACAT Assets
A
  1. 1 BD
  2. 3 BDs
  3. 5 BDs
356
Q

Carrying member treatment of a transfer when there is a dispute over securities positions or the money balance in the account

A

Member must validate regardless

357
Q

Block transfers may only be used when the Registered Representative’s prior broker dealer…

A

Agrees to participate in the program

358
Q

Who Approves the rules for SROs

A

The SEC

359
Q

Examples of SROs

A

MSRB, FINRA, CBOE

360
Q

Other Name for General Obligation Bonds

A

Full-Faith & Credit Bonds

361
Q

Municipal Fund Securities requirement to register with the SEC under the

  1. Securities Act of 1933
  2. Investment Company Act of 1940
A
  1. Exempt
  2. Exempt
362
Q

Municipal Fund Security

  1. Preparing Prospectus & Statement of Individual Information
    2.Daily Calculation of NAV
  2. Establishing a BOD
A

All EXEMPT

363
Q

LGIPs risks when it comes to guarantees and the market

A

They are not backed by Government
Subject to Risks of hte Market

364
Q

Who controls the assets of a 529 plan after the student is of legal age

A

The Donor still controles

365
Q

Can a child benefit from an ESA and 529 at the same time

A

Yes

366
Q

Floating or Variable Rate Maturity

  1. YTC or YTM
  2. Current Interest Rate
A
  1. Not Included
  2. Included
367
Q

Fair & Reasonable Price Effort by Broker Dealer when effecting trades for a Sophisticated Municipal Market Maker under Rule G-48

A

The Duty is Eliminated

368
Q

New Municipal Offerings

Issuer’s Official Statement Review before bidding for purchase by underwriters for all offers above what amount.

A

$1M

369
Q

Bond Resolution

  1. Authorization Resolution
    vs
  2. Award Resolution
A
  1. Authorizes issuance of the bonds
  2. Authorized sale of the bonds
370
Q

Trust Indenture Requirment

A

Not Required by law

371
Q

Final Statement

  1. Delivery Timeline to customer
  2. Consequence if still not ready
A
  1. On/Before Settlement
  2. Syndicate Manager has violated Board Rules
372
Q

SMMP Entities
Sophisticated
Municipal
Market
Professionals

A

Bank
Insurance Company
Registered Investment Company
Investment Adviser
Natural Person with assets totaling over $50M

373
Q

Confirmation description for a noncallable municipal bond that has been advance refunded to the original maturity date

A

Must Describe as Escrowed to Maturity

374
Q

Customer Requests for information about a trade time to respond

  1. Less than 30 days since trade
  2. > 30 days after trade
A
  1. 5 BD
  2. 15 BD
375
Q

TIC accounts treatments of orders at the death of one tenant

A

Account is frozen until documents are presented

376
Q

Reg A Offering Circular

When does it need to be provided to purchases

A

at least 48 hours in advance of sales

377
Q

Qualified Invester under the Investment Company Act of 1940

A

Owns at least $5M in investments
or
Person with $25M in discretionary basis

378
Q

Reg D 506(b) vs 506(c)

Disclosure Document Required

A

506(b) - Required to Nonaccredited Investors

506(c) - None Required

379
Q

Reg D 506(b) vs 506(c)

Investor Status Verification

A

506(b) - Investor’s Word

506(c) - Issuer reasonable attempt to verify

380
Q

Reg D 506(b) vs 506(c)

Investor Type Allowed

A

506(b) - up to 35 Nonaccredited

506(c) - Accredited Only

381
Q

Reg D 506(b) vs 506(c)

Solicitation

A

506(b) - Pre-Existing Relationship Required

506(c) - Freely to any Accredited Investor

382
Q

Regulation S

Holding period for Debt Securities to be considered “Seasoned”

A

40 Days

383
Q

Regulation S

Holding Period
1. If Issuer is a Reporting Company (10K, 8K, ect.)
2. If Issuer is Nonreporting Company
3. Sales to SEC-Designated Offshore Securities Market

A
  1. 6 Months
  2. 1 Year
  3. No Holding Period
384
Q

Regulation S

A

Offers and sales made outside the US by both US and Foreign issuer are excluded from Securites Act of 1933

385
Q

Insiders of a corporation investing in Options

  1. Individuals
  2. Corporate Accounts
A
  1. Can only write calls against long positions
  2. No options allowed
386
Q

FINRA Markup/Markdown Rules when it comes to Municipal Securities

A

Does not apply

387
Q

Breakpoints and Investments clubs

A

May not benefit from them

388
Q

“Weighted Average Price” when filling a trade

A

when traders are executing multiple trades in an attempt to fill a customer’s order

389
Q

Material Support as it pertains to inclusion in the Restricted Persona Family Member list

A

25% of person’s income over the last year directly or indirectly

390
Q

Representation Letter Requirement for sales of a new issue attesting to eligibility to purchase new issue

  1. Initial Verification
  2. Annual Verification
A
  1. Positive Affirmation Letter
  2. Negative Consent Letter
391
Q

Securities Purchased in a standby arrangement are restricted from resale for how long

A

3 months

392
Q

Diversification Rule 75-5-10 to be defined as “Diversified”

  1. 75%
  2. 5%
    3.10%
  3. Remaining 25%
A
  1. 75% in securities issued by other companies (not investment company itself)
  2. No more than 5% in securities of any one issuer
  3. No more than 10% of voting shares of any one issuer
  4. No conditions on remaining 25%
393
Q

Including Distributions of Long-Term Capital Gains by a Mutual Fund as part of the Current Yield

A

Prohibited

394
Q

Who is the Market Maker for a Mutual Fund

A

The Fund itself

395
Q

One- Sided vs Two-Sided Quotes

Who May use which?

A

Nasdaq must be two-sided

OTC Market can be one-sided

396
Q

An associated person (AP) of a broker-dealer who is limited to the sale of Section 529 education savings plans passed the Series 51 qualification exam. In order to act as a municipal fund securities limited principal, the AP must also have what qualifications?

A

Series 24 or Series 26 Principal

397
Q

Who is responsible for disclosing teh finder’s fee when making client referrals to other professionals

A

The Registered Party (not necessarily the accountant, ect)

398
Q

Buy In Requirements under Regulation SHO on Threshold List (Hard to Borrow List) if there is a fail to deliver:

  1. Regular Stock
  2. Rule 144 Stock
A
  1. 13 Consecutive Settlement Days
  2. 35 Consecutive Settlement Days
399
Q

Margin Call

vs

Maintenance Margin

A
  1. Original Call for Funds under Reg T (i.e <50%)
  2. Call for Add’l Money (i.e <25%)
400
Q

A major shareholder makes repeated purchases and sales of XYZ Company common stock on the open market to give the impression that it is actively traded.

Known as Painting the Tape but what else is it known as

A

Matched Orders

401
Q

What happens to the power of attorney after a client dies

A

It ceases to be valid

402
Q

Which principals may approve, in writing, the opening of a municipal securities discretionary account and each transaction in the account?

A

A municipal securities principal
A municipal securities sales principal

403
Q

Which principals may approve, in writing, the opening of a municipal securities account?

A

A municipal securities principal
A municipal securities sales principal
A general securities principal

404
Q

Use of an Abstract of an Official Statement

A

Distribute it to institutional investors interested in the bond

Distribute it to a buying customer instead of the official statement (AS A TEMPORARY SUBSTITUTE)

405
Q

If a registered representative wishes to invest directly with an issuer by purchasing $50,000 of the issuer’s unregistered shares, they must do what?

A

The employer member firm must be notified.

406
Q

A customer market-on-open order to purchase 900 ABCD was effected by an order entry firm, which bought the shares from a market maker for 91.50, and simultaneously sold them to the customer at 91.60 net, which included a 10 cent per share markup. The trade is reported to the TRF as

A

900 shares of ABCD at 91.50.

The price to be reported through FINRA/Nasdaq Trade Reporting Facility (TRF) excludes commissions, markups, and markdowns.

407
Q

commission revenues directed to broker-dealers by institutional investors in return for third-party services such as research.

A

Soft Dollars

408
Q

A mark-up percentage based upon FINRA’s 5% policy is

A

lowest ask price at that moment.

409
Q

A research report distributed by a member firm on the common stock of a listed company must include all of the following information except

A)
whether a control relationship exists between the member and the issuer.
B)
whether the member firm is a third-market maker in the common stock.
C)
whether, within the past year, the member was part of a selling group offering the issuer’s securities.
D)
market price as of the report date.

A

C)
whether, within the past year, the member was part of a selling group offering the issuer’s securities.

410
Q

If a member receives an order from a conduit such as a bank,

  1. Member Requirement
  2. Identity Requirement
A
  1. the member must make an inquiry as to whether the ultimate purchaser is restricted.
  2. It is not necessary to determine the identity and business affiliations of the purchaser
411
Q

Under FINRA rules, if a member firm receives an order to buy a new equity issue on behalf of an undisclosed principal from a bank, the member must

A)
determine the identity of the purchaser.
B)
obtain a representation from the bank that the purchaser is not restricted.
C)
reject the order.
D)
accept the order.

A

B)
obtain a representation from the bank that the purchaser is not restricted.

412
Q

Fee Schedule

  1. Initial Delivery
  2. Changes Timeline to Notify
  3. Means to notify of changes
A
  1. no later than account opening.
  2. at least 30 days in advance
  3. may be done electronically (by email or posting on the firm’s website).
413
Q

Designated Examining Authority

A

i.e FINRA

414
Q

Under SEC Rule 606, how often are member firms required to make publicly available reports on their order routing methods?

A

Quarterly

415
Q

Which type of advertising is permissible in conjunction with a private placement offered under Regulation D?

A

Accredited Investors

informational meetings open solely to offerees and their representatives

416
Q

Active Duty Status

  1. impact on Securities License
  2. Performance of Duties as Registered Person
  3. Receiving Commissions
A
  1. specifically designated inactive status
  2. Prohibited
  3. Can still receive Commissions
417
Q

A municipal firm receives a claim from another dealer for an interest payment sent to the wrong party.

  1. If claim is made within 60 days of the interest payment date
  2. if the claim were received more than 60 days from the interest payment date.
A
  1. 10 BDs
  2. 20 BDs
418
Q

attempt to fall under the $10,000 radar to avoid a CTR filing by the receiving institution.

A

Structuring

419
Q

A member or an associated person may contact which of the following potential buyers of privately placed stock under Regulation D Rule 506(b)?

  1. Customers
  2. Other Member Broker Dealer
A
  1. 10 BDs
  2. 60 Calendar Days
420
Q

An individual who is licensed with the administrator as an agent of a broker-dealer wants to offer wrap fee programs sponsored by the firm. To do so, it would be necessary to

A

register with the state as an

Investment Adviser Representative.

421
Q

A Broker Dealer wants to offer wrap fee programs. To do so, it would be necessary to

A

register with the state as an

Investment Adviser.

422
Q

Under the Securities Act of 1933, commercial paper is exempt from the prospectus delivery requirements or registration, unless its maturity is more than how many months?

A

9 months

423
Q

Submission of the official statement in response to a customer request is required within how many days?

A

1 BD

424
Q

The MSRB defines a political contribution as a gift, loan, advance, or anything of value for the purpose of influencing an election for what kinds of offices

A

state, local, and federal office.

425
Q

An investor signed a letter of intent to purchase $50,000 worth of Intermountain West Mutual Fund. At the end of 13 months, he had only invested $48,000 in the fund.

What will the fund do?

A

The fund will liquidate shares to meet the additional sales charge.

426
Q

Mutual Fund Letter of Intent

Binding or Nonbinding to Investor

A

Nonbinding

427
Q

Mutual Fund Letter of Intent

Good for how many months

A

13 months

428
Q

Mutual Fund Letter of Intent

May be backdated how long

A

90 days

429
Q

By how much would the SMA increase if a customer bought $40,000 of marginable stock in a new existing margin account and paid in full for the transaction?

A

$20,000

Assuming that the customer paid for the securities in full, he would generate $20,000 in SMA. Because the customer need pay only half of the securities’ value ($20,000), the additional cash paid ($20,000) would be considered a nonrequired cash deposit and would be credited to the SMA. Another way to look at it is the customer has fully paid securities with a loan value of 50%, or $11,000.

430
Q

A client with limited assets seeking additional income in retirement would probably find which of these investment choices to be the least suitable?

A)
Exchange-traded funds (ETFs)
B)
Treasury bonds
C)
Exchange-traded notes (ETNs)
D)
Insured bank CDs

A

Exchange-traded notes (ETNs)

The question describes an individual with a low risk tolerance, so the Treasury bonds and CDs would certainly be considered appropriate. Because ETNs are debt securities backed solely by a single issuer while an ETF based on a specific index of debt securities represents a large group of issuers, they are only suitable for those who can understand and take the risks involved.

431
Q

The Securities Act of 1933 provides several exemptions from the registration of securities being offered by a company. Under Regulation D, Rule 504 offerings of securities sales may not exceed how much?

A

not exceed $10 million.

Regulation D offerings are exempt under the Securities Act of 1933. Rule 504 deals with private placements in which the dollar amount to be sold is $10 million or less.

432
Q

One way for an accredited investor with an aggressive stance to reduce the overall risk in his portfolio is by

A)
purchasing U.S. Treasury bills.
B)
purchasing a hedge fund.
C)
purchasing insured bank CDs.
D)
selling uncovered calls.

A

purchasing a hedge fund.

Although the T-bills and the CDs will reduce the overall risk, they are not the best answer because the question is dealing with an aggressive investor. One of the reasons high net worth customers buy hedge funds is for the diversification offered by adding an asset subclass to their portfolios.

433
Q

Claire Jones is an attorney whose husband is a compliance officer for a regional municipal securities dealer. She opens an account at another municipal securities dealer apart from her husband. Claire’s new municipal securities dealer

A)
need not take any action even though it is known that the spouse is married to an officer of another municipal securities broker-dealer.
B)
may not open an account without notification and permission from the spouse’s firm as part of new member firm’s standards of conduct and practices.
C)
is not required to take any action because the spouse is not an employee.
D)
must give written notice to the employing member firm.

A

is not required to take any action because the spouse is not an employee.

Although Rule G-28 applies to the spouse or minor children of a customer who is employed by another municipal securities dealer, there is currently no requirement for a municipal securities dealer to seek to obtain information about the employment status of spouses or minor children. Accordingly, a dealer is not required to ask customers whether their spouses are employed by another municipal securities dealer. A municipal securities dealer would have to comply with rule G-28 only if the dealer actually knows that a spouse is employed by another municipal securities broker-dealer which is not apparent in this question.

434
Q

How are disputes regarding delivery and payment for securities transactions settled between FINRA members?

A

Disputes regarding Uniform Practice Code provisions are handled through the Code of Arbitration Procedure.

435
Q

If ABC Securities holds an order to buy XYZ for a customer at $42, ABC may not

A)
buy XYZ at $39.75.
B)
sell XYZ at $40.
C)
buy or sell XYZ shares until the customer order is filled.
D)
buy XYZ at $42.50.

A

buy XYZ at $39.75.

A firm may not trade ahead of a customer’s order at a price equal to or better than the customer’s order.

436
Q

Trailer commissions are generally paid out of 12b-1 fees, which are levied against

  1. What?
  2. Paid by who
A
  1. Assets of the fund
  2. all shareholders.
437
Q

FINRA’s Conduct Rules require a member firm to do what with thier balance sheers

A

ONLY MAKE AVAILABLE UPON REQUEST

(not required)

438
Q

A customer of the firm is the chief operating officer of a public company who received 200,000 shares of the company’s stock as compensation. Concerning the sale of the stock received, the chief operations officer of the firm is obligated to file, either himself or his agent, a Form 144 with the SEC when?

A

contemporaneously with the sale or earlier.

Form 144 must be filed concurrently with or before the sale. The form must also be filed as amended if there a change.

439
Q

An investment adviser cannot lend money to a customer unless it is made through what kind of firm

A

a regulated lender such as an affiliated broker-dealer or an affiliated bank.

440
Q

Who Bears Mortality Risk in a variable Annuity

A

The insurance company issuing the variable annuity bears mortality risk, or the danger that some annuitants will live to surpass their average life expectancy.

441
Q

Type of Risk a VA owner has

A

inflationary risk
market risk
interest rate risk

442
Q

A client of the branch works at a nearby college and participates in a variable annuity retirement plan sponsored by the college, which contributed $30,000 to the plan. The client has contributed nothing. If after six years the client’s subaccount is valued at $36,000, the client’s cost basis for tax purposes is

A

None of the funds in the plan have been taxed so the employee’s cost basis is $0.
When funds from the annuity are taken during retirement, because none of the funds in the plan were taxed earlier, all of each annuity payment is taxed, but very likely at a lower rate.

443
Q

Which of the following events would subject a transaction to the registration requirements set forth in the Securities Act of 1933?

A)
A merger or acquisition
B)
A change in the par value of the company’s common stock if more than one cent
C)
A ruling by the SEC that no sale is involved
D)
A stock split or reverse stock split

A

Mergers and acquisitions require the filing of a registration statement (Form S-4) by the acquiring company. Changes in par value do not require a filing.

444
Q

Disposition of Client’s Funds and Securities when it comes to a Broker Dealer who has custody of them

A

keep the clients’ securities and funds segregated and identified.

445
Q

Broker Dealer who has custody of clients’ funds and securities must report at least how often with a written, itemized statement indicating the funds and or securities in possession by the firm and all transactions for the period.

A

At least Every 3 months

446
Q

After purchasing 75,000 shares of ABCD, an institutional customer instructs the member firm handling the trade to deliver the securities to an agent bank on a delivery versus payment basis. Which of the following statements are true?

  1. Prior to delivery, the member must receive assurance from the institution for what?
  2. If delivery is delayed, the member has up to how many days from the trade date to obtain payment.
A
  1. that proper instructions have been given to the bank.
  2. 35 Calendar Days
447
Q

In considering fairness of a markup and markdown, a municipal securities dealer takes into account

A

1- Fair Market Value
2. Dealer is entitled to a profit
3. Retail or Institutional client

Yield is the most important factor in determining the fairness and reasonableness of price in any given municipal securities transaction. The yield resulting from a trade should be in line with the yield found on other securities of comparable quality, maturity, coupon rate, and block size available in the market at that time. In this sense, improved market conditions may be relevant in determining a fair and reasonable price. Rule G-30 specifically states that the total dollar amount of the transaction is relevant in determining a fair and reasonable price. The fact that institutional transactions are frequently larger than retail transactions may also enter into fair and reasonable pricing.

448
Q

operating a broker-dealer branch in a bank location and a bank teller’s entering the broker-dealer branch with a client

A

Only allowed if the Teller is Registered

449
Q

Representative Jones places a day order to buy 500 LMN at 24.35. By the close, the customer has 100 shares at 24.25 and 200 at 24.35. If the remainder is unfilled, what is the outcome?

A

The customer must accept the execution for 300 shares, and the remainder of the order is canceled after the close.

450
Q

A Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (TRACE) report will display all of the following information except

A)
whether the trade was reported late.
B)
name(s) of the dealer(s) involved.
C)
execution date and time.
D)
price and yield.

A

name(s) of the dealer(s) involved.

451
Q

Concerning trades of municipal securities,

  1. customer account records are posted NLT
  2. trade confirmations sent NLT
A
  1. settlement date
  2. at or before the completion of the transaction (settlement day)
452
Q

An agent must obtain written verification of an investor’s net worth for which of the following investments?

A)
Direct participation programs
B)
Real estate investment trusts
C)
Unit investment trusts
D)
Variable contracts

A

DPPs require complete financial disclosure because of minimum suitability standards set by the states in which they are sold. REITs, unit investment trusts, and variable contracts do not have specific net worth suitability requirements for investors.

453
Q

Regulation A Offerings

Tier 1 Limits

Tier 2 Limits

A

$20M in 12 months and & $6M sold on behalf of shareholders

$75M & $15M

454
Q

Regulation A Offerings

General Solicitation

A

Allowed on TV, Social Media, ect.

455
Q

According to MSRB rules, the confirmation of a customer purchase transaction must contain

A

the lowest potential yield on the bond.

456
Q

A member firm loans stock to another member. The borrowing member must

A

deposit an amount, in cash, equal to the value of the borrowed shares.

457
Q

Municipal Bonds that Generally Require Voter Approval

A

GOs

Not Revenue Bonds

458
Q

Exchange-traded funds Categorization under the Investment Company Act of 1940

A

an investment company product

459
Q

ETF Prospectus Requirement

A

Initial Issues but not required for Secondary Market Trades of previously issued securities

460
Q

Where there is an unsecured debt, a demand for the difference between the contract price and the market price is called a

A

mark to the market.

When a securities contract has been entered into but not settled and the market value changes materially, the person who is partially unsecured may demand a mark to the market (or deposit) to cover the difference.

461
Q

Reverse convertible bonds are debt instruments with embedded put options that allow bond issuers the right to convert the bond’s principal into shares of equity at a predetermined set date. The issuer would exercise the option if the shares underlying the option fell below a set price. If this occurred,

A

the bondholders would receive the shares rather than their principal when the bond matured.

462
Q

Retaining a list of all continuing education courses for an Associated Person

A

Not Required

463
Q

Who is responsible for the taxes on a Revokable Trust for the benefit of another person

A

the Donor

464
Q

Your firm is managing a follow-on offering of common stock for Beta Corporation, an NYSE-listed company. A research analyst at your firm asks if he can attend a road show regarding the Beta offering. As a compliance officer, you would tell the analyst that

A

he may not attend nor speak at the road show.

Under the conflict of interest rules, research analysts are prohibited from participating in road shows relating to any investment banking transaction.

465
Q

calculated by totaling the dollar value of all trades and dividing that total by the total number of shares traded

A

volume-weighted average price (VWAP) of a security

466
Q

Who has control over the issuance of credit when trading securities according to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.

A

the Federal Reserve Board

467
Q

Who has the power to make, amend, and rescind rules; issue cease and desist orders; administer oaths; conduct investigations; take evidence; and subpoena witnesses, books, and records according to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934?

A

the SEC

468
Q

If an advertisement has been prepared by a mutual fund’s sponsor (underwriter), who is responsible for filing the material with FINRA.

A

The Sponsor (Underwriter)

469
Q

If an advertisement has been prepared by a mutual fund’s sponsor (underwriter), when may a member start using it?

A

immediately after receiving it.

470
Q

After reviewing a clearly erroneous trade, Nasdaq makes a written determination.

Status of the decision made on an appeal?

A

Final & Binding

471
Q

After reviewing a clearly erroneous trade, Nasdaq makes a written determination.

Who can appeal?

A

Either Side

472
Q

After reviewing a clearly erroneous trade, Nasdaq makes a written determination.

Cutoff for Appeals

A

30 minutes

473
Q

After reviewing a clearly erroneous trade, Nasdaq makes a written determination.

Cutoff for Appeals

A

30 minutes

474
Q

If a registered representative is found to have engaged in criminal insider trading, the member firm can be fined up to

A

$25 million or treble damages, whichever is greater.

475
Q

Each willful criminal violation with regards to insider trading carry punishments for individuals (natural persons) of up to

  1. Dollar Amount
  2. Prison Sentence
A
  1. $5M
  2. 20 Years
476
Q

The SEC may also seek civil penalties against anyone it believes has violated the Insider Trading Act. The penalty for the person

A

up to three times the profit made or loss avoided (i.e., treble damages)

477
Q

The SEC may also seek civil penalties against anyone it believes has violated the Insider Trading Act. The controlling person (i.e., as the name implies, someone like a member firm who controls the offender) can be fined

A

$1 million or three times the amount of profit made or loss avoided, whichever is greater.

478
Q

Under FINRA rules, maintenance calls on portfolio margin accounts must be met

A

within 3 business days.

479
Q

Tax-sheltered annuities are

A

tax-qualified or pre-tax

480
Q

Any appeal of Nasdaq’s written determination regarding a clearly erroneous trade must be made within 30 minutes to

A

the Market Operations Review Committee (MORC).

481
Q

Under Regulation A, when must a broker-dealer furnish an offering circular to purchasers?

A

At least 48 hours before the confirmation

482
Q

Municipal securities investors looking to file a written complaint may look to what document for guidance?

A

The Investor Brochure

483
Q

Municipal broker-dealers must send the investor brochure out how often?

A

Annually in writing or electronic

484
Q

The initial confirmation of a when-issued municipal bond contains which of the following?

I. Number of bonds involved in the transaction
II. Settlement date
III. Yield to maturity
IV. Total dollar amount due

A

Number of bonds involved in the transaction

Yield to maturity

485
Q

If a trustee is the beneficiary of the trust and directs trades to himself as a registered representative.

  1. Sole Beneficiary
  2. Multiple Beneficiaries
A
  1. Allowed
  2. Allowed if all beneficiaries approved
486
Q

In a combined margin account, the market value of the long position declines while the market value of the short position increases by the same dollar amount. As a result, equity in the account

A

decreases.

487
Q

Corporate securities distributed in a private placement under Regulation D can be issued in compliance with Rule 506 if

A

purchasers receive specific information about the proposed issue.

Under Rule 506 of Regulation D, investors must be given specific information about the proposed private placement, including financial statements.

488
Q

A registered representative has written an article about internet investing for individual investors, which appears in a national business magazine. The article must be

I. approved by the NYSE.
II. approved by a designated supervisor.
III. approved by a designated supervisor only if specific recommendations are made.
IV. retained for three years.

A

approved by a designated supervisor.

retained for three years.

489
Q

Trading along with an institutional order to buy or sell is

A

permitted on an order-by-order basis.

Trading along requires an agreement with the customer on an order-by-order basis. Blanket approvals are prohibited.

490
Q

A registered representative is hoping to make a prospecting call after the “cold calling” cut off time. The prospective customer is a newly made friend met on a cruise ship. Which of the following statements is true?

A)
Calling acquaintances after 9:00 pm may be deemed acceptable only if the representative attests in writing to the branch office manager (BOM) that a personal relationship has existed for more than 90 days before the attempted call.
B)
Calling anyone after 9:00 pm in their time zone is subject to sanctions by the firm, the FTC, and the DEA.
C)
Calling customers after 9:00 pm in their time zone is in violation of the “cold calling” rule.
D)
Calling noncustomers who are acquaintances may be acceptable within telemarketing rules.

A

D) Calling noncustomers who are acquaintances may be acceptable within telemarketing rules.

A personal relationship exception under the cold calling rule means any family member, friend, or acquaintance of the AP who makes an outbound telephone call.

491
Q

A bank has a separately identifiable department that transacts municipal securities business and meets all MSRB requirements. One of the bank’s vice presidents has an overall responsibility for this department, but no other relationship to its municipal securities activities. If the vice president (VP) is to continue exercising this function, the VP

A)
need not be designated as a supervisor of the separately identifiable department.
B)
should be designated as a supervisor of the separately identifiable department.
C)
should only be involved in municipal securities business.
D)
should abstain from voting on allocations to the separately identifiable department.

A

A) need not be designated as a supervisor of the separately identifiable department.

A senior officer of the bank may set bank policies that affect the bank dealer without being considered the dealer’s supervisor. The supervisor is the person responsible for the dealer’s day-to-day business.

492
Q

In a margin account, a customer is long 200 shares of ABCD currently trading at $35 per share. Under FINRA rules, the minimum maintenance margin requirement for this account is

A)
$2,100.
B)
$3,500.
C)
$2,000.
D)
$1,750.

A

Minimum maintenance margin in a long account is 25% of the current market value. The computation is as follows: 25% × $7,000 = $1,750.

493
Q

Rule 144 applies to the sale of all of the following except

A)
registered securities by a minority shareholder of the issuer.
B)
unregistered nonexempt securities by an officer of the issuer.
C)
registered securities by an officer of the issuer.
D)
unregistered securities by a minority shareholder of the issuer.

A

A) registered securities by a minority shareholder of the issuer.

Rule 144 applies to the sale of unregistered securities owned by affiliates or nonaffiliates and the sale of control stock. It does not apply to the sale of registered securities by nonaffiliated persons.

494
Q

Under the Code of Procedure, which of the following disciplinary decisions will not be released to the public by FINRA?

A)
A monetary sanction of $7,500 imposed on a trader for failure to follow the requirements of SEC Rule 15c2-11
B)
The revocation of an associated person’s registration
C)
The suspension of a member firm
D)
The suspension of an associated person’s registration

A

D) The suspension of an associated person’s registration

FINRA releases information to the public with respect to any disciplinary decision that imposes a suspension, cancellation, or expulsion of a member; suspends or revokes an associated person’s registration; suspends or bars an associated person; or imposes monetary sanctions of $15,000 or more.

495
Q

The 24-month time restriction on bidding in municipalities in which prohibited political contributions were made pertains to what kind of bids?

A

negotiated bids.

Competitive bids may be made within the 24-month period.

496
Q

A general securities registered representative resigns from Tri-State Securities Company to take a new job as a mortgage broker. After a year-and-a-half, she is called up for active duty in the United States Marines. Her active duty deployment lasted two-and-a-half-years. Following her release, she decides to register again to work in the securities business. She is hired by a member firm 80 days after separating from active duty. Which statement is true?

A)
She must pass the Securities Industry Essentials and the Series 7 examinations.
B)
She must satisfy the Regulatory Element.
C)
She must pass the Series 7 examination and satisfy the Regulatory Element.
D)
There is no requirement to take the Series 7 exam and she returns to the Regulatory Element rotation based on original registration hire date.

A

D) There is no requirement to take the Series 7 exam and she returns to the Regulatory Element rotation based on original registration hire date.

Special inactive status is granted to those people called up for active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States, including those called up for active duty in the 24 months following separation from a member firm. The individual is under no obligation to fulfill a continuing education requirement until she returns from active duty. In this case, she re-associates with a member firm within 90 days of return and will fall back into her normal CE rotation and there is no need to requalify by exam.

497
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the sale of securities under the provisions of Rule 144 are true?

I. Adequate current information must be available regarding the issuer.
II. If restricted stock acquired under an investment letter agreement is involved, the stock must have been held for at least three years.
III. The stock must be fully paid.
IV. There are no volume restrictions for control persons.

A

I. Adequate current information must be available regarding the issuer.

III. The stock must be fully paid.

To sell unregistered stock under Rule 144, the shares must be held fully paid for six months, and there must be current information available regarding the issuer (e.g., the issuer is filing reports with the SEC). Control stock is always subject to volume restrictions.

498
Q

In an active, competitive market, the markup on stock sold as principal to a customer is based on the

A)
inside bid.
B)
most representative offer.
C)
inside offer.
D)
most representative bid.

A

C)
inside offer.

Under the 5% policy, markup percentages are calculated from the prevailing market price. This is a sale to a customer from inventory, so FINRA requires the markup to be calculated from the inside offer at the time of the sale.

499
Q

Under MSRB Rule G-37, restrictions on municipal securities business due to political contributions include which of the following?

A)
Treasury debt offerings
B)
Negotiated offerings
C)
Corporate debt offerings
D)
Competitive offerings

A

B) Negotiated offerings

MSRB Rule G-37 deals with negotiated offerings and financial advisory work. The rule prohibits municipal firms from engaging in municipal securities business with an issuer for two years after any political contribution is made to an official of that issuer by the firm. It does not affect competitive offerings in which a firm is chosen as an underwriter based on lowest net interest cost.

500
Q

Commissions on the sale of mutual funds may be paid from

I. back-end loads.
II. front-end loads.
III. 12b-1 fees.

A

All

Commissions may be paid from sales charges, both front end and back end. In addition, 12b-1 fees, which are charged against the assets of the fund, may also be used.

501
Q

Under SEC Rule 15c3-3, a member firm must reduce to its possession or control customer securities as often as

A

daily

Carrying firms have the daily requirement to bring under possession (in‑house) or control (in an account controlled by the firm) all fully paid for customer securities and all excess margin securities. Each day, from the prior day’s settlement records, a carrying firm must take steps to ensure that it has obtained physical possession or control over such securities.

502
Q

Persons that sell restricted securities under Rule 144 must notify

A)
the SEC no later than the time the order is placed.
B)
the SEC no later than 10 days before the date of sale.
C)
FINRA no later than 10 days before the date of sale.
D)
FINRA no later than the time the order is placed.

A

the SEC no later than the time the order is placed.

The SEC must be notified on Form 144 concurrent with or before the time the order is placed.

503
Q

A call loan is characterized by

A)
a mutual agreement to cancel.
B)
a fixed maturity.
C)
interest on a monthly basis.
D)
fluctuating interest.

A

D) fluctuating interest.

Customers pay interest on margin debit balances based on the call loan rate (also known as broker’s call). This rate fluctuates daily.

504
Q

A call loan is characterized by

A)
a mutual agreement to cancel.
B)
a fixed maturity.
C)
interest on a monthly basis.
D)
fluctuating interest.

A

D) fluctuating interest.

Customers pay interest on margin debit balances based on the call loan rate (also known as broker’s call). This rate fluctuates daily.

505
Q

A roll-up transaction occurs when

A)
a call option is replaced with another call option.
B)
preferred shares are exchanged for common stock of the same company.
C)
a put option is replaced with another put option.
D)
one or more limited partnerships are combined into a new entity.

A

D) one or more limited partnerships are combined into a new entity.

A roll-up transaction frequently involves the formation of a new partnership by combining one or more existing partnerships into a single, more liquid entity.

506
Q

Pushing up the issue price of an IPO through promotion to please the issuer and secure a larger allotment is termed

A)
painting the tape.
B)
laddering.
C)
marking the close.
D)
interpositioning.

A

B) laddering.

Laddering is the prohibited practice of inflating pre-IPO prices for the sake of obtaining a greater allotment of the offering.

507
Q

the prohibited practice of inflating pre-IPO prices for the sake of obtaining a greater allotment of the offering.

A

laddering.

508
Q

All of the following acts could subject an individual to a statutory disqualification except

A)
suspension.
B)
denial of registration.
C)
censure.
D)
expulsion.

A

Censure, which is used by an SRO to sanction a member firm for minor violations, is not grounds for a statutory disqualification.

509
Q

A person looking to be employed by your member firm tells you that he was once registered. In your subsequent search for the person on BrokerCheck, a record does not appear of that person’s registration history. What would be the most likely reason for that?

A)
The person has not been registered with FINRA, a national securities exchange, or a state securities regulator within the last five years.
B)
The applicant has not been registered with FINRA, a national securities exchange, or a state securities regulator within the last two years.
C)
The person has not been registered with FINRA, a national securities exchange, or a state securities regulator within the last 20 years and had no disciplinary action or judgments.
D)
The person has not been registered with FINRA, a national securities exchange, or a state securities regulator within the last 10 years.

A

D) The person has not been registered with FINRA, a national securities exchange, or a state securities regulator within the last 10 years.

The individual is not included in BrokerCheck because he is not currently registered with FINRA, a national securities exchange, or a state securities regulator and has not been so registered within the last 10 years. Alternatively, the representative has not been registered and either is not the subject of a final regulatory action; has not been convicted of or pled guilty or no contest to certain crimes; has not been subject to a civil injunction involving investment-related activity or been found in a civil court to have been involved in a violation of investment-related statutes or regulations; or has not been named as a respondent or defendant in an arbitration or civil litigation in which he was alleged to have committed a sales practice violation, and which resulted in an award or civil judgment against the individual.

510
Q

An officer of an issuer of unregistered securities may act as a purchaser representative

A)
for an accredited retail investor.
B)
for a qualified institutional buyer.
C)
under no circumstances.
D)
for a family member.

A

D) for a family member.

Unless the prospective buyer is a family member, officers and directors of issuers may not act as purchaser representatives.

511
Q

Which of the following statements regarding seller’s option contracts under FINRA rules are true?

I. A seller is not obligated to deliver securities on the second business day following the trade date.
II. A seller can make delivery and collect proceeds on any day following the second business day (the normal settlement date) through the final calendar date specified in the contract, provided the seller gives the buyer a one-day notice.
III. The selling price and sale proceeds on a seller’s option contract are left open at the time of the trade and determined as of the date delivery is made.
IV. Seller’s option contracts are used exclusively in connection with new issue public offering securities.

A

I. A seller is not obligated to deliver securities on the second business day following the trade date.

II. A seller can make delivery and collect proceeds on any day following the second business day (the normal settlement date) through the final calendar date specified in the contract, provided the seller gives the buyer a one-day notice.

Seller’s option contracts are used to lock in a selling price on a security that, for whatever reason, is not immediately available for delivery.

512
Q

used to lock in a selling price on a security that, for whatever reason, is not immediately available for delivery.

A

Seller’s option contracts

513
Q

In an active, competitive market, the prevailing market price for determining a markdown is the

A)
lowest bid.
B)
highest offer.
C)
lowest offer.
D)
highest bid.

A

D) highest bid.

In an active, competitive market, the prevailing market price for determining markup or markdown is the inside market at time of sale. For markups, it is the lowest offer. For markdowns, it is the highest bid.

514
Q

In an active, competitive market, the prevailing market price for determining markup is what?

A

lowest offer.

515
Q

In an active, competitive market, the prevailing market price for determining markdown is what?

A

highest bid.

516
Q

Use of Margin in a discretionary account

A

Allowed

517
Q

A research report distributed by a member firm on the common stock of a listed company must include all of the following information except

A)
whether, within the past year, the member was part of a selling group offering the issuer’s securities.
B)
whether the member firm is a third-market maker in the common stock.
C)
market price as of the report date.
D)
whether a control relationship exists between the member and the issuer.

A

A)
whether, within the past year, the member was part of a selling group offering the issuer’s securities.

Under FINRA rules, research reports must disclose whether the member is a market maker in the security being recommended, whether a control relationship exists between the member and the issuer of the recommended security, the market price of the recommended security as of the report date, and whether the member was a manager or co-manager of any offering of the issuer within the prior year. Being part of a selling group is not a required disclosure.

518
Q

Rehypotecation

A

taking customer securities in a margin account to another bank to do the loan.

519
Q

Regulation T vs Regualtion U

A

Reg T - Broker Dealer to Customer loans

Reg U - Bank to Broker Dealer loans

520
Q

Restricted Account

A

Below Reg T min of 50%

521
Q

Failure to pay for a purchase 2 BD after normal settlement in a Margin Account

  1. Firm Actions
  2. Account Status
  3. New Security Purchase
A
  1. Sell Out
  2. Account Frozen for 90 days
  3. May still purchase but must fund 100%
522
Q

When must funds be deposited during a maintenance call?

A

Promptly

523
Q

Code of Procedure

Respondent has how many days to answer the Dept. of Enforcement/Dept. of Market Regulation

A

25 days

524
Q

Monetary sanction threshold before being subject to disclosure on BrokerCheck

A

$15,000 or more

525
Q

Disciplinary Proceedings Appeal Cutoff

A

25 days

526
Q

Seller’s/Buyer’s Option

If delivery is made early, how much notice does seller need to provide before seller needs to make payment

A

1 day prior notice,

Buyer must pay for stock at that time

527
Q

When- Issued Confirmations

A

No Settlement Date,
No Accrued Interest
No Total Dollar Amount

528
Q

Record Retention (focus reports, advertising, U4s, fingerprint cards, ect.)

FINRA
vs
MSRB

A

FINRA - 3 Years

MSRB - 4 Years

529
Q

An institutional customer placed a limit order with a market maker to pay 38.15 for 100,000 shares of WXYZ. Later, the market maker receives an order to sell 60,000 shares and immediately executes 30,000 for the institution’s account at 38.15, taking the remaining shares for the market maker’s trading account. This is most likely an example of

A)
front running.
B)
trading along.
C)
freeriding.
D)
interpositioning.

A

B)
trading along.

Trading along allows a market maker to buy or sell an agreed-upon amount at a price that would satisfy an institution’s order to buy or sell. For example, assume an institution wants to buy 100,000 shares at 38.15. If 60,000 shares become available at that price and the market maker has an agreement in place to trade along on a 50-50 basis, the market maker would take 30,000 shares as principal and the institution the remaining 30,000 shares. Without an agreement with the institution, the market maker, under the limit order protection rule, would be obligated to execute the entire 60,000 shares for the institution’s account. Under FINRA rules, trading along agreements must be on an order-by-order basis. There can be no blanket agreements.

530
Q

The MSRB coordinates with each of the following on matters of enforcement, examinations, and surveillance except

A)
bank regulators.
B)
the SEC.
C)
SIFMA.
D)
FINRA.

A

C)
SIFMA.

The MSRB works in the SEC, FINRA, and with banking regulators on matters of rule enforcement, examinations of members, and surveillance.

531
Q

A trailer commission is usually associated with

A

Trailer commissions, also known as quarterly trailers, are associated with mutual funds that charge 12b-1 fees. These fees are charged periodically, and the registered representative who sold the fund receives a percentage. These fees, and their commissions, follow the initial sale.

532
Q

A representative of a FINRA member firm would likely be permitted to borrow money from which of these clients?

A)
An investment adviser representative’s father for graduate school tuition
B)
The Mid-Atlantic Short-Term Municipal Bond Fund
C)
MNO Mortgage Brokers U.S., LLC
D)
The Longshoremen Credit Union

A

D)
The Longshoremen Credit Union

Securities professionals are quite limited in their ability to borrow money, especially from clients. The prime exception is when the client is in the money-lending business, for example, if the client is a credit union. Mortgage brokers do not lend money—they put borrowers and lenders together. The representative may also borrow money from immediate family members, but this is not clear in the choices. “An” investment adviser representative’s father is too vague.

533
Q

To launder illicit funds effectively, the money must go through a process known as layering. Layering will typically involve

A)
over-invoicing techniques that commingle illegal funds with legitimate funds.
B)
the deposit of illegal funds in a financial institution willing to launder them.
C)
the use of illegal funds to purchase goods that can later be sold.
D)
the use of transfers through several legal and governmental jurisdictions.

A

D)
the use of transfers through several legal and governmental jurisdictions.

The layering stage is where launderers attempt to conceal the source of the funds or assets. During this phase, launderers will wire transfer funds to multiple jurisdictions, deposit cash overseas, and resell assets in multiple jurisdictions. The key to successful layering is the crossing of several legal and governmental jurisdictions. This allows launderers to take full advantage of the varying degrees of regulation and the bureaucracy of different governmental cooperation laws.

534
Q

Member of a syndicate or selling group may sell shares of a new issue of common stock to a registered representative

A)
under no circumstances.
B)
if the principal approves of the sale in writing by the end of the trading day.
C)
resides outside the United States.
D)
if the issue does not trade at a premium of greater than 5% in the secondary market.

A

A)
under no circumstances.

Registered representatives are forbidden from buying a new issue from an underwriter under Rule 5130.

535
Q

Under SIPC rules, customer claims are valued how & when

A

Market value on the date a federal court is petitioned to appoint a trustee

536
Q

All SRO rules require that the account name or number be placed on an order ticket when?

A

before order execution.

537
Q

If there is a significant news event affecting the subject company during the quiet period following an IPO, which of these are true?

I. The firm may issue a research report on the subject company.
II. The firm may not issue a research report on the subject company.
III. An analyst may make a public appearance regarding the subject company.
IV. An analyst may not make a public appearance regarding the subject company.

A

The firm may issue a research report on the subject company.

III. An analyst may make a public appearance regarding the subject company.

If there is a significant news event affecting the subject company during the 10-day quiet period, a firm may issue a research report, and an analyst may make a public appearance if authorized to do so by a legal or compliance department official.

538
Q

Under Rule 144, which of the following sales are subject to volume limitations?

I. Control person selling registered stock held for one year
II. Control person selling restricted stock held for two years
III. Nonaffiliate selling registered stock held for one year
IV. Nonaffiliate selling restricted stock held for two years

A

I. Control person selling registered stock held for one year
II. Control person selling restricted stock held for two years

Control persons are always subject to volume limitations.

539
Q

One of your brokers has left a partially completed new account form on your desk with a note stating, ‘‘There are a few suitability blanks that need to be filled in. I have to go to a meeting outside the office. Would you ask one of our sales assistants to complete the form?’’ As branch manager, you should

A)
do nothing until the broker returns to the office.
B)
ask a sales assistant to call the client to complete the form and then review the account for approval.
C)
have a registered person call the client, complete the form, and then review the account for approval.
D)
personally call the client to complete the form.

A

C)
have a registered person call the client, complete the form, and then review the account for approval.

A registered person, not a sales assistant, must contact the client for the purpose of determining suitability.

540
Q

Which of the following falls under the internal filing requirements under FINRA rules regarding communications with the public?

I. Reprint of an article that has not been independently prepared
II. Advertisement for recruiting registered representatives
III. Tombstone showing a broker-dealer’s involvement in a recent syndicate offering new shares of common stock

A

I. Reprint of an article that has not been independently prepared
II. Advertisement for recruiting registered representatives

Tombstone advertisements relating to equity or debt securities are examples of items that are exempt from the filing and spot checking requirements under FINRA rules. Reprints, whether prepared independently or in-house, must be kept in an internal file for a minimum of three years. If the firm prepares a reprint, it is considered retail communication and, if dealing with investment company products, must be filed with FINRA within 10 days of first use (postfiling). Independently prepared reprints are subject to internal approval and filing only.

541
Q

A member firm may contact a person on the National-Do-Not Call list if that person inquired about the member’s products or services within the last

A

3 months

As long as the contact is made within three months of the inquiry, there is no violation.

542
Q

Control stock purchased in the open market is

I. restricted for one year from purchase.
II. not restricted.
III. subject to volume restrictions under Rule 144 when sold.
IV. not subject to volume restrictions under Rule 144 when sold.

A

II. not restricted.
III. subject to volume restrictions under Rule 144 when sold.

Control stock purchased in the open market is registered and is therefore not restricted. While unrestricted control stock is not subject to the holding period requirements of Rule 144, it is always subject to the volume requirements of the rule.

543
Q

Where is Each Reported

  1. Municipal Debt Securities
  2. Treasury Securities
  3. Rule 144 Stocks
  4. Over-the-Counter Securities
A
  1. EMMA
  2. TRACE
  3. TRF
  4. Over-the-Counter Reporting Facility (ORF)
544
Q

Which of the following offers the opportunity to realize a capital gain rather than ordinary income?

A)
Section 529 plans
B)
Cash dividends
C)
Stock dividends
D)
Deferred annuities

A

C)
Stock dividends

Stock dividends, unlike cash dividends, are not taxable in the year of receipt. Instead, they reduce the owner’s cost basis and, when sold at a price above that cost basis, are treated as capital gain rather than ordinary income. Deferred annuities never generate anything but ordinary income, and qualified withdrawals from Section 529 plans result in no taxation on the earnings. If they are not qualified, there is ordinary income tax plus a penalty.

545
Q

Under Nasdaq trading rules, if a firm attempts to place a bid at the inside offer during regular market hours, the order will

A)
lock the market.
B)
be routed to the next market maker in line.
C)
be automatically withdrawn by the system.
D)
be placed in reserve pending a market move.

A

B)
be routed to the next market maker in line.

Under Nasdaq trading rules, locked or crossed markets will be eliminated during regular market hours. If a firm attempts to lock the market, the order will be routed to the next market maker in line for an execution at the locking quote.In a firm-commitment arrangement, any losses incurred are divided among the underwriters’ syndicate members, according to the terms in the agreement among underwriters.

546
Q

If a buying member fails to pay for securities purchased when they are delivered on the settlement date, the selling member can sell out the position

A)
after giving one day’s written notice.
B)
after giving three days’ written notice.
C)
any time after the settlement date.
D)
after giving two days’ written notice.

A

C)
any time after the settlement date.

A sellout occurs when a member sells securities to another member (the buyer) and the buyer fails to pay when the securities are delivered on settlement date. Sellouts can be executed any time after the settlement date. Unlike buy-ins, no prior written notice is required.

547
Q

When necessary, Form G-37 may be filed within approved guidelines established by the MSRB by which of the following methods?

A)
By filing three copies of the paper Form G-37 with the board by registered mail or some other equally prompt means
B)
The individual appointed at the firm to be the compliance contact person files copies of Form G-37 with the board by mail
C)
By filing a copy of Form G-37 with the board by facsimile
D)
By completion in an online data entry system and uploading Form G-37 in portable document file (PDF) format

A

D)
By completion in an online data entry system and uploading Form G-37 in portable document file (PDF) format

The filing of Form G-37 may be accomplished online by uploading it on the data entry system. All uploaded attachments must be PDFs. Form G-37 is available to the public for viewing and printing through the MSRB website. No other method, including email or fax is permissible.

548
Q

Two of your clients, a couple in their early 30s, ask you to recommend a plan to save for their newborn child’s education. They are only able to contribute $1,800 per year. Which of the following would most likely be the best fit for their situation?

A)
Section 529 plan
B)
Uniform Transfers to Minors Act (UTMA) account
C)
Equity index annuity
D)
Coverdell Education Savings Account (ESA)

A

D)
Coverdell Education Savings Account (ESA)

The key to this choice is the contribution level. The Coverdell ESA has a maximum annual limit of $2,000 and offers tax-free growth. Why not the Section 529 plan? Invariably, that will be the correct choice when the question involves higher contribution amounts or tax benefits on a state level. When the couple can only contribute $1,800 per year, it seems logical to assume that they are in a low tax bracket where those benefits would be of minimal value. UTMA accounts offer less flexibility, and the annuity would not be suitable for anyone wishing to use the funds before age 59½.

549
Q

A customer buys 500 XYZ at $70 per share on Monday, August 3. He sells his position the following day for a $2,000 gain. On Friday of that week, the customer walks into your office to pay for the purchase and pick up a check for the proceeds. As branch manager, you should

A)
tear up the customer’s check and give him a branch check for the gain.
B)
freeze the customer’s account for 90 days before authorizing payment.
C)
require the customer’s check to clear before authorizing payment.
D)
accept the customer’s payment and give him a branch check for the proceeds.

A

C)
require the customer’s check to clear before authorizing payment.

It is a good practice to wait for the customer’s check to clear before authorizing payment for the proceeds.

550
Q

Under which of the following circumstances can an agent conduct customer transactions without the activity being recorded on the books and records of his broker-dealer employer?

A)
The transactions are odd lots.
B)
The securities are exempt under the Securities Act of 1933.
C)
The customer is a member of the agent’s immediate family.
D)
The agent receives no compensation for assisting a family member transfer ownership of a security to another party.

A

D)
The agent receives no compensation for assisting a family member transfer ownership of a security to another party.

Under the law, it would be considered contrary to the standards imposed for an agent to effect securities transactions not recorded on the regular books or records of the broker-dealer that the agent represents. If, however, someone asks for help in transferring ownership of a security to another party and no compensation is paid, it is allowed.

551
Q

Providing liquidity in the over-the-counter (OTC) market is the primary function of

A

Market makers—broker-dealers all over the country who have agreed to maintain an inventory of a particular company’s stock—drive the OTC market. They are said to be “making the market” in the stock of that company. A market maker must stand willing to buy or sell at least one round lot of shares of the company for which it is a market maker at the current bid price that it has published. Therefore, if a customer is a buyer or seller of a stock that has sufficient investor interest to have a member firm register as a market maker, there is a willing party representing the other side to your trade. This is the liquidity of the OTC market. Designated market makers (DMMs) are similar but operate on the NYSE not in the OTC market.

552
Q

The definition of a branch office is

A)
a hotel conference center where a registered representative meets with clients occasionally as a matter of convenience.
B)
a registered representative’s primary residence where meetings with clients take place on a regular basis.
C)
a registered representative’s vacation home where clients and friends are occasionally entertained.
D)
a temporary office set up to handle all of the functions of a branch office under the firm’s business continuity plan.

A

B)
a registered representative’s primary residence where meetings with clients take place on a regular basis.

For a primary residence to be exempt, the representative may not meet with customers at this location.

553
Q

Under FINRA Rule 5130 a restricted person has a small equity interest in XYZ Corporation, a privately held company. XYZ now wishes to go public with an offering of its common stock. Under which of the following circumstances could your firm, acting as syndicate manager, sell shares at the offering price to the account of this restricted person?

A)
Without restriction because this person already has an equity position in XYZ
B)
If the sale will not increase the account’s percentage equity ownership in XYZ above the level as of three months before filing the registration statement
C)
If the restricted person agrees not to resell the newly issued shares for two years from the effective date of the offering
D)
Under no circumstances

A

B)
If the sale will not increase the account’s percentage equity ownership in XYZ above the level as of three months before filing the registration statement

554
Q

A branch office manager in reviewing account activity notices that a 50-year-old customer with a 12- to 15-year investment time horizon purchased $600,000 of XYZ mutual fund Class C shares within the last 90 days. The BOM made an appointment to interview the newly qualified representative about this investment activity. During the interview the representative forcefully asserted to have spoken with the customer about the benefits and drawbacks of different classes of fund shares. In the end, the customer chose Class C shares. What further action, if any, should the BOM take?

A)
No action should be taken because the customer was well informed of the differences between the various classes of fund shares.
B)
Arrangements should be made to retrain the representative with enhanced supervision including the recording of telephone calls.
C)
The branch office manager should call the customer to review the features of Class A shares and the reasons for the customers Class C share purchase decision.
D)
The Class C shares should be promptly redeemed for more suitable shares.

A

C)
The branch office manager should call the customer to review the features of Class A shares and the reasons for the customers Class C share purchase decision.

555
Q

Delivery on seller’s option settlement cannot be made sooner than

A)
five business days following the transaction date.
B)
the business day following the trade date.
C)
three business day following the transaction date.
D)
seven calendar days following the transaction day.

A

C)
three business day following the transaction date.

Seller’s (and buyer’s) option trade settlements are made no earlier than three business days after the trade date, or in other words, one day following regular way settlement for corporate securities, T+2 business days. If the seller or buyer could deliver earlier, there would be no need for a contract.

556
Q

Investment analysis tools for use by institutional customers must be submitted to FINRA’s Department of Advertising

A)
only if the tool is likely to be passed on to retail customers by the recipient.
B)
at least 10 days before first use.
C)
within 10 days of first use.
D)
only upon a written request.

A

A)
only if the tool is likely to be passed on to retail customers by the recipient.

Ordinarily, members who submit an analysis tool to institutional customers are under no burden of having to submit it to FINRA. However, if it reasonable believes that the tool would be then forwarded by the institution to its retail customers, it is then subject to the requirements of Rule 2210 to file with FINRA.

557
Q

In a firm-commitment arrangement, any losses incurred are divided among who

A

the underwriters’ syndicate members, according to the terms in the agreement among underwriters.

558
Q

What information must be included on the application for an UGMA account?

A)
Minor’s and custodian’s names
B)
Custodian’s name and minor’s name and Social Security number
C)
Custodian’s name, minor’s name and Social Security number, and state of registration
D)
Minor’s name and custodian’s name and Social Security number

A

C)
Custodian’s name, minor’s name and Social Security number, and state of registration

Each account set up under UGMA must include the state of registration, the minor’s name and Social Security number, and the custodian’s name (the nominal owner of the account).

559
Q

A male broker reports to human resources that a female broker made remarks verbally and by instant message that constitute unwelcome sexual advances. How may this settled?

A)
Through the Uniform Practice Code
B)
Open court proceedings
C)
Outside arbitration only
D)
Human resources peer review panel

A

B)
Open court proceedings

Harassment and discrimination controversies are eligible to be litigated in open court.

560
Q

According to MSRB rules, which of the following is an advertisement?

A)
Listing of dealer inventory
B)
Preliminary official statement
C)
Abstract of an official statement
D)
Official statement

A

C)
Abstract of an official statement

MSRB rules consider all forms of mass public communication to be advertising except listings of dealer inventories, official statements, and preliminary official statements.

561
Q

Under Regulation SHO, securities that have large open short positions at a registered clearing agency are termed

A

threshold securities.

562
Q

Under FINRA Rule 5130, if 30% of a hedge fund’s partners are restricted persons and the fund buys 10,000 shares of a common stock IPO, how many shares may be attributed to the accounts of the restricted partners in the aggregate?

A

1,000

With carve-out procedures in place, no more than 10% of the shares from a new issue equity investment may be attributed to the accounts of restricted partners.

563
Q

When determining the value of a gift, the tax and delivery charges are factored how?

A

Gifts should be valued at the higher of cost or market value, exclusive of tax and delivery charges.

564
Q

The MSRB defines time of trade for reporting purposes to be the time the

A

trade is executed.

565
Q

A firm publishing a research report must disclose all of the following except

A)
whether the firm managed or co-managed a public offering for the subject company within the past 12 months.
B)
whether the firm expects to receive any investment banking fees from the subject company in the 3 months following publication.
C)
whether the firm received investment banking fees from the subject company within the past 12 months.
D)
whether the firm owns 1% or more of the subject company’s debt securities.

A

D)
whether the firm owns 1% or more of the subject company’s debt securities.

The firm must disclose whether it owned, at the close of the previous month, 1% or more of any class of the subject issuer’s equity securities. Firms must also explain their rating systems and disclose whether analyst compensation is tied to the firm’s investment banking revenues, the analyst or household members have any financial interest in the subject company, the firm has received fees for investment banking services or has managed or co-managed a public offering for the subject issuer within the past 12 months, and the firm either expects to receive or intends to seek any investment banking fees from the subject issuer in the 3 months following publication.

566
Q

Who do Member firms need to identify the person responsible for compliance with the firm’s anti-money-laundering program to?

A

FINRA (not the SEC)

567
Q

In reviewing office correspondence, you note the following email sent to a client regarding a new issue your firm is underwriting: “I’m glad you enjoyed the magazine article I sent you on XYZ Corp. The deal should be effective early next week. I deposited the $12,000 check you sent to your account. This should be more than enough to guarantee you at least 500 shares.” As branch manager, you would be most concerned with

A)
guaranteeing shares.
B)
accepting the check.
C)
sending the magazine article.
D)
sending an email without prior approval.

A

B)
accepting the check.

Accepting and depositing a check for securities not yet registered constitutes a sale. Selling unregistered securities raises a host of violations at both the federal and state levels.

568
Q

Unless they are directed to a particular person (issuer official), contributions to a political party, while reportable, are treated how?

A

Not subject to the 2 year band

569
Q

contributions to an inaugural committee are viewed as

A

contributions to that person.

570
Q

Education plan that has the unique 5-year front-loading feature

A

Section 529 only

571
Q

10% penalty for non-qualified withdrawal in a 529 plan is levied against what?

A

Earnings only

572
Q

If a member firm wishes to have a clearly erroneous trade reviewed, it must notify

  1. Who
  2. Appeals of any decition made to who?
A
  1. Nasdaq Market Operations within 30 minutes
  2. Market Operations Review Committee within 30 minutes

To have a clearly erroneous trade reviewed, a member must notify Nasdaq Market Operations within 30 minutes of the trade. Appeals of any decision are made to the Market Operations Review Committee.

573
Q

A firm’s contribution to the election of a municipal official will

A

always trigger a two-year bar from the municipality’s negotiated underwriting activity.

574
Q

Sending the research summary to subject issuer before releasing the research report for their review.

A

must be excluded from the report before presenting it to the subject issuer.

575
Q

Sharing commissions between agents of different broker-dealers under different common ownership or control.

A

generally prohibited unless the broker-dealers with which the agents are associated are under common ownership or control.

576
Q

Your 55-year-old client owns a nonqualified variable annuity. He originally invested $50,000 four years ago. The annuity has grown to a value of $60,000. If the client, who is in a 30% tax bracket, makes a random withdrawal of $15,000, what will he pay to the IRS?

A)
$4,500.00
B)
$0.00
C)
$3,000.00
D)
$4,000.00

A

D)
$4,000.00

Because this is a nonqualified annuity (with no tax deduction), the client pays taxes only on the growth portion or, in this case, $10,000. The tax on this amount is $3,000. However, because the client is not yet age 59½ when making the withdrawal, he also pays a 10% tax penalty, or $1,000. This makes a total of $4,000 tax and tax penalty paid on the random withdrawal.

577
Q

A customer confirmation of a municipal securities transaction the time of execution may be shown on the customer confirmation. If the time of execution does not appear, the confirmation must

A

inform the customer that it will be provided if the customer makes a written request.

578
Q

Which of the following individuals is eligible to purchase a new equity issue at the public offering price (POP)?

A)
An unregistered employee at a full-service carrying firm
B)
A registered representative at a limited business broker-dealer
C)
A clerical employee at a full-service introducing firm
D)
A limited business broker-dealer for its investment account

A

B)
A registered representative at a limited business broker-dealer

A limited business broker-dealer is one engaged solely in the purchase and sale of investment company/variable contract securities and/or direct participation programs. Employees of these firms, registered or otherwise, are permitted to buy new equity issues at the POP. Note that this exemption applies only to employees of these firms not to the firm itself.

579
Q

A customer delivers a fixed income certificate in the name of Smith & Company. It may be signed

A)
Smith & Company.
B)
Smith & Company or “Smith & Co.”
C)
Smith & Company, aka Smith Co.
D)
Smith & Company, “Smith & Co.”, or “Smith and Company.”

A

D)
Smith & Company, “Smith & Co.”, or “Smith and Company.”

Corporate signers are the exception to the general rule that endorsement of a certificate must match exactly the name on the front. The word and may be substituted with & and the word company may be abbreviated Co.

580
Q

An underwriter that agrees to act as agent for an issuer, but states that it will return to the issuer any shares not sold, engages in what type of underwriting?

A

Best efforts

Underwriters assume no financial liability for unsold shares in a best efforts underwriting.

581
Q

Regulation S under the Securities Act of 1933 permits the sale of unregistered securities by

A

U.S.-based issuers to non-U.S. residents.

Regulation S provides a safe harbor for U.S.-based issuers that sell securities outside the United States. As long as the provisions of Regulation S are met, the securities are exempt from registration with the SEC. To get the exemption, the issue must be sold in an offshore transaction to non-U.S. residents.

582
Q

A registered representative purchases a large number of a thinly traded shares of common stock shortly before the market close, causing the price to increase. The stock opens higher the next day, and the representative sells her position. This is known as

A

marking the close.

Marking the close is a form of market manipulation. It is an attempt at influencing the closing price of a stock by purchasing (or selling) at or near the close. The effect of this can artificially inflate (or deflate in the case of selling) the closing price as well as affect the price of market-on-close orders. Severe sanctions may be imposed on those looking to manipulate the market by marking the close.

583
Q

The tax consequence of transferring proceeds from one fund to another within the same family of funds is

A

on the date of the transaction, any gain or loss is recognized for tax purposes.

584
Q

All of the following have the authority to discipline a member or associated person with fines, censure, suspension, and expulsion from FINRA except

A)
the Board of Governors.
B)
the Securities and Exchange Commission.
C)
the Uniform Practice Code Committee.
D)
the National Adjudicatory Council.

A

C)
the Uniform Practice Code Committee.

FINRA disciplinary proceedings take place under the Code of Procedure where the Department of Enforcement and various appellate bodies may sanction members and associated persons. The Uniform Practice Code covers such rules as regular way and being T+2 for corporate securities. That code has nothing to do with enforcement.

585
Q

A municipal principal is responsible for which of the following?

A)
Reviewing order tickets for trades of more than $100,000 daily
B)
Reviewing all order tickets daily
C)
Reporting all trades promptly and reviewing customer accounts frequently
D)
Reviewing customer accounts weekly

A

G-27 is the MSRB rule covering supervision. It requires all trades to be reported promptly and customer accounts to be reviewed frequently.

586
Q

Any dealer selling municipal securities to a customer during the issue’s underwriting period must deliver the official statement in final form, if any, to the customer by

A

settlement of the transaction.

Rule G-32 requires that any dealer (not just the underwriter) selling municipal securities to a customer during the issue’s underwriting period must deliver the official statement in final form, if any, to the customer by settlement of the transaction.

587
Q

What is the total amount that may be invested in a Coverdell Education Savings Account (ESA) in a single year?

A)
The current maximum per family member
B)
The current maximum per couple
C)
The current maximum per child
D)
The current maximum per parent

A

C)
The current maximum per child

An indexed maximum contribution may be invested in each child’s Coverdell ESA every year. For instance, if a couple has three children, they may invest the current maximum into each of three accounts.

588
Q

Rules requiring analysts who circulate research reports for broker-dealers include all of the following except

A)
a statement by the analyst certifying that the views expressed reflect the analyst’s personal views.
B)
a statement by the analyst certifying that he has not or ever will accept compensation for specific recommendations or views contained in a research report.
C)
a statement by the analyst certifying that no part of his compensation is related to the specific recommendation.
D)
a statement by the analyst certifying the source, amount, and purpose of compensation if the analyst’s compensation is related to the specific recommendation.

A

B)
a statement by the analyst certifying that he has not or ever will accept compensation for specific recommendations or views contained in a research report.

Analysts that provide research reports must include a statement certifying that the views expressed in the reports accurately reflect the analyst’s personal views about the subject securities and issuers and that no part of his compensation is related to the specific recommendations. However, if the analyst’s compensation is, in fact, related to the specific recommendations or views, the statement must include the source, amount, and purpose of the compensation and further disclose that it may influence the recommendation in the research report.

589
Q

Under adverse market conditions, it is not unusual for mutual fund investors who had been investing on a regular basis to cease or reduce their level of financial commitment. This can have the effect of

A)
a reduction in the fund’s net operating income due to a reduction in sales charges received.
B)
net redemptions.
C)
reducing the NAV of the fund as the demand for new shares wanes.
D)
reducing the operating expense ratio of the fund.

A

B)
net redemptions.

In adverse market conditions, not only do some investors stop putting money in, they also liquidate their holdings. If new sales fall while liquidations rise, the effect could be net redemptions. The NAV is not affected by supply and demand, and if anything, the expense ratio would rise because some of the expenses would remain the same but would be shared by fewer assets. Mutual funds do not receive the sales charges—they go to the underwriter. ** This question deals with material not covered in your LEM, but it relates to recent rule changes and/or student feedback.

590
Q

Which of the following customer actions are indicators of potential money laundering?

I. Excessive journal entry transactions between related accounts
II. Excessive journal entry transactions between unrelated accounts
III. Lack of concern regarding risk
IV. Excessive concern regarding risk

A

II. Excessive journal entry transactions between unrelated accounts
III. Lack of concern regarding risk

Examples of red flags that may indicate money laundering include a lack of concern regarding risks, commissions, or other transaction costs, and a large number of wire transfers to unrelated third parties.

591
Q

Under FINRA Rule 5130 concerning restrictions on sales of equity initial public offerings (IPOs), which of the following statements are true regarding restricted persons?

I. Employees of limited business member firms may purchase an equity IPO.
II. Employees of limited business member firms may not purchase an equity IPO.
III. Limited business member firms may purchase an equity IPO.
IV. Limited business member firms may not purchase an equity IPO.

A

I. Employees of limited business member firms may purchase an equity IPO.

IV. Limited business member firms may not purchase an equity IPO.

There is an exemption under the rule for employees of limited business member firms. A limited business firm is one engaged solely in the purchase and sale of investment company securities and/or direct participation programs. The exemption only applies to employees of a limited business firm not to the firm itself.

592
Q

Under MSRB Rule G-32, a final official statement must be delivered to customers by when?

A

on or before settlement.

593
Q

If a registered Rep is trying to open an account with a nonmember firm

A

still needs to give written notification and receive written approval from employer member

594
Q

Excess margin securities are defined as securities in excess of

A

140% of the customer’s debit balance.

Excess margin securities are securities in excess of 140% of the customer’s debit balance. Margin securities (140% of the debit balance) are at a bank collateralizing the customer’s debit. For example, if a customer purchases $20,000 of stock, the customer will put up $10,000 and borrow $10,000. The member will take $14,000 of the stock to a bank to collateralize the $10,000 debit. The balance ($6,000) of the stock must be placed in segregation (excess margin securities).

595
Q

Contributing securities to a 529 plan

A

not allowed

596
Q

Rights of accumulation if multiple accounts from multiple family members are in the same fund family

A

apply to all family members within the same fund family

597
Q

FINRA members whose lines of business include underwriting are permitted to join with non­members in underwriting which of the following?

A)
Municipal bonds
B)
Municipal debt mutual funds
C)
Private placement of corporate debentures
D)
Non-convertible corporate bonds

A

A)
Municipal bonds

A FINRA member can only join in underwritings of non-exempt securities with other members. Municipal bonds as well as U.S. government debt can be underwritten by non-member banks.

598
Q

Every sell order must be marked as

A

Every sell order must be marked as either a long, short, or short exempt.

599
Q

A principal officer of a member firm must attest and certify to FINRA that the firm is in compliance with the research analyst conflict of interest rules how often

A

Annually

600
Q

Registered Rep buying a new issue from an underwriter under Rule 5130.

A

Forbidden

601
Q

Prior principal approval for institutional sales material.

A

is not required

602
Q

An order ticket for an agency transaction of a Cape May, NJ GO bond must include all of the following except

A)
the time of order entry.
B)
the time of order receipt.
C)
the time of order approval.
D)
the time of order execution, to the extent possible.

A

A)
the time of order entry.

The MSRB requires the following be placed on an agency order ticket: time of receipt, date of receipt, and execution price. Time of order entry on the ticket is not required. This question refers to a recordkeeping rule of the MSRB. Specifically, Rule G-8(a)(vi) covers recordkeeping and (vii) deals with principal trades, which is very similar.

603
Q

A member firm that engages in investment banking services must file with FINRA a written report describing each internal investigation

A)
annually.
B)
monthly.
C)
quarterly.
D)
upon request.

A

C)
quarterly.

FINRA Rule 3110(d) states that within 10 business days of the end of each calendar quarter, a written report describing each internal investigation of its investment banking activities initiated in the previous calendar quarter by the member firm must be submitted to FINRA.

604
Q

Contributions made by municipal securities finance professionals or executive officers to officials of issuers for whom the contributor is eligible to vote and that do not exceed $250 are

A

not required to be reported on Form G-37.

605
Q

targets members of identifiable groups, such as the elderly, or religious or ethnic communities in social media.

A

Affinity fraud

606
Q

Certain conditions must be satisfied for restricted, unregistered, and control stock to be sold or resold including all of the following except

A)
registered securities by a minority shareholder of the issuer.
B)
registered securities by an officer of the well-known seasoned issuer.
C)
unregistered securities by an executive officer of the issuer.
D)
unregistered securities by a minority shareholder of any issuer.

A

A)
registered securities by a minority shareholder of the issuer.

SEC Rule 144 pertains to the sale of unregistered securities owned by affiliates or nonaffiliates and the sale of control stock. It does not apply to the sale of registered securities by nonaffiliated persons.

607
Q

Associated persons (AP) owning a 5% financial interest in an NYSE member firm.

A

must receive prior employer approval in order to engage

608
Q

A stabilizing bid can be no higher than what?

A

highest current independent bid in the security’s principal market.

609
Q

Any written communication that offers a security for sale—including advertisements published in newspapers, public websites, and communications broadcast over radio and television—is considered

A

a prospectus.

610
Q

for Professionals to qualify as Public Arbitrators they need to spend…

  1. Less than what % of their time servicing the securities industry
  2. Over the last How many Years
A
  1. 20%
  2. 5 Years
611
Q

Under SEC rules, broker-dealers must notify customers of free credit balances at least

A

quarterly.

612
Q

A registered investment adviser that recommends a stock that will be sold to his client in a principal transaction.

A

requires both written disclosure to and consent of the client before the completion of the transaction.

613
Q

Rule 145 exempts (from registration) additional shares resulting from

A

stock splits or stock dividends.

614
Q

When a customer purchases securities in a regular way trade and pays by check on the trade date, this purchase transaction is considered complete

A)
when the securities are delivered into the customer’s account.
B)
on the date the check clears.
C)
on trade date.
D)
one day following trade date.

A

A)
when the securities are delivered into the customer’s account.

Under FINRA rules, if a customer pays for securities purchased before the settlement date, the trade is considered complete when the securities are delivered into the account. This should occur on settlement date.

615
Q

Required when selling from the firm’s inventory or proprietary account to a customer

A

disclosure to the client

616
Q

Rule G37 If someone is running for national office, who is not in a position of authority to influence the award of a bond issue,

A

Does not apply

617
Q

Jill Carter is a representative of Fair Isle, Inc., a FINRA member firm with municipal debt as a line of business. Jill’s close friend and client, George Cannon, comes in for a portfolio analysis. When examining George’s IRA, which of the following holdings would Jill likely need to review immediately?

A)
GHI Large-Cap Equity Index Fund
B)
XYZ Municipal Bond Fund
C)
DEF U.S. Government Bond Fund
D)
JKL Money Market Fund

A

B)
XYZ Municipal Bond Fund

Tax-exempt securities (such as municipal bonds) are generally considered unsuitable to include in a tax-deferred retirement plan. That said, if the municipal bonds were taxable then that’s a different story.

618
Q

A municipal dealer is obligated to disclose which of the following on a confirmation of a trade to a retail customer?

A)
The total prevailing market price, the markup, and the markup percentage
B)
The amount of the commission and markup (or markdown) combined
C)
The commission only
D)
The prevailing market price only

A

A)
The total prevailing market price, the markup, and the markup percentage

The confirmation must show the PMP amount, the markup, and the markup percentage. With this information being transparent, a fairer and more reasonable markup amount is likely.

619
Q

a best efforts underwriting in which a minimum number of shares must be sold or else the deal will be canceled. If the minimum is reached, the offering is effective.

A

A mini-max

620
Q

Prior approval of a research report can be granted by

I. a CFA qualified associated person.
II. a research principal, and with limited exceptions, a general securities principal.
III. an allied member.
IV. a general securities principal.

A

II. a research principal, and with limited exceptions, a general securities principal.

Research reports must be prepared by a supervisory analyst and approved by a research principal. A chartered financial analyst is not qualified to approve reports based solely on that professional designation.

621
Q

At a social gathering, a registered representative overhears a rumor about an NYSE-listed company. The representative should

A)
do nothing.
B)
avoid soliciting orders for the security.
C)
report the rumor to the SEC.
D)
report the rumor to the branch manager.

A

Rumors must be reported to the branch manager.

622
Q

A corporate bond paying interest on March 1 and September 1 is purchased on Friday, May 19, in a regular way trade. The number of days of accrued interest payable to the seller is

A) 84.
B) 82.
C) 78.
D) 79.

A

B) 82.

Interest begins to accrue on the prior interest payment date and accrues up to—but not including—settlement date. Regular way settlement for a trade executed on Friday, May 19, is Tuesday, May 23. The computation is 30 days (March) + 30 days (April) + 22 days (May) = 82 days (total). For corporate and municipal bonds, every month has 30 interest days.

623
Q

A customer calls the branch manager and says she has been the subject of sexual harassment by the broker handling her account. Under FINRA rules, the claim must be submitted to

A)
arbitration.
B)
arbitration at the insistence of the customer
C)
arbitration only if both parties agree.
D)
a court of competent jurisdiction.

A

C)
arbitration only if both parties agree.

Claims alleging discrimination, including sexual harassment claims, are not required to be arbitrated unless both parties agree.

624
Q

A member firm receives an order from an investment adviser to purchase shares in a common stock initial public offering. Under FINRA Rule 5130, the member must

A)
refuse to accept the order.
B)
obtain a representation from the conduit that the purchaser is not a restricted person.
C)
obtain a list of all of the adviser’s clients to determine eligibility.
D)
obtain a list of the client(s) whose account(s) will be credited with the shares in order to determine eligibility.

A

B)
obtain a representation from the conduit that the purchaser is not a restricted person.

When receiving an order to buy a new equity issue from a bank, investment adviser, or another conduit, a member must obtain a representation from the conduit that all purchasers comply with FINRA Rule 5130 (i.e., they are not restricted persons).

625
Q

Open-end companies may issue only what kinds of securities?

A

common stock.

626
Q

If a firm suspects that an account is engaged in money laundering, the firm will file

A)
a SAR with the IRS.
B)
Form 112 with the IRS.
C)
Form 1099 with FinCEN.
D)
a SAR with FinCEN.

A

A suspicious activity report must be filed with FinCEN if a firm suspects a customer is engaged in money laundering.

627
Q

Your firm is holding $50,000 of Atlantic City general obligation bonds for Jean-Marie Bergeron, who resides in Sherbrooke Quebec, Canada. The issuer sent a notice that the bonds will be advance refunded. The firm

A)
does not need to send the notice, but it may do so if it chooses.
B)
must file for a new CUSIP number effective on the date of refunding.
C)
must transmit the bonds to the bondholder before the bonds are advance refunded.
D)
must promptly forward the notice as soon as possible.

A

A)
does not need to send the notice, but it may do so if it chooses.

There is no requirement to transmit the notice to a customer outside the United States.

628
Q

The Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (TRACE) provides trade reporting information on all of the following except

A)
municipal bonds.
B)
investment-grade corporate bonds.
C)
noninvestment grade corporate bonds.
D)
foreign private issuers.

A

A)
municipal bonds.

Exempt securities such as U.S. government and municipal bonds are not reported on the TRACE system. Municipal debt trades are reported through the Electronic Municipal Market Access (EMMA) system.

629
Q

If a registered representative of a FINRA member firm is suspended by the National Futures Association for sales practices used in selling livestock futures, who needs to be notified?

A

FINRA (not SEC)

If an associated person is denied registration, suspended, or expelled by another SRO, FINRA must be notified promptly. There is no requirement to notify the SEC.

630
Q

Which of these items is not required under the customer identification program (CIP)?

A)
Date of birth
B)
Sex
C)
Visa details for non-citizens
D)
Physical address

A

The CIP does not ask if the account holder is male or female.

631
Q

If municipal bonds that are subject to the alternative minimum tax (AMT) are described in an advertisement as tax exempt, it is

A)
misleading if no explanation is given of the usual meaning of tax exempt.
B)
not misleading because all municipal bonds may be advertised as tax exempt.
C)
not misleading if the bonds are also described as subject to AMT.
D)
misleading because the term tax exempt must never be used in connection with such bonds.

A

C)
not misleading if the bonds are also described as subject to AMT.

If the income from a bond is subject to the AMT, advertisements for the bond must state this fact. The AMT does not affect the majority of taxpayers; therefore, the income tax is exempt for most customers. The bonds may be described as tax exempt without violating MSRB rules.

632
Q

A customer’s written complaint is not fully resolved before the registered representative resigns from the member firm and accepts a position outside the securities industry. FINRA, however, retains jurisdiction over the former representative for

A)
two years.
B)
until the complaint is fully satisfied.
C)
three years.
D)
six years.

A

A)
two years.

Although an associated person’s resignation is not effective with FINRA for 30 days, if a customer complaint or some other unresolved concern exists, FINRA retains jurisdiction over the AP for up to two years. In other words, if FINRA chooses to call the former AP in for a hearing, that person would be obligated to attend for up to two years.

633
Q

Unless an exception is available, carrying firms must perform a reserve computation how often?

A

Weekly

Carrying firms must perform a reserve computation weekly, usually on Monday or Friday. Firms compute monies owed to the firm by customers (debits) and monies owed by the firm to customers (credits). If credits exceed debits, that difference must be on deposit in their Special Reserve Bank Account for the exclusive benefit of customers by 10:00 am on Tuesday. Performing the reserve computation monthly is an available option under certain conditions; however, the standard practice is weekly.

634
Q

For companies looking to raise capital using a Regulation A offering, the SEC will integrate the current offering with any securities offering of the issuer occurring within the prior

A

12 Months

A Regulation A Tier 2 offering exemption allows issuers to sell up to $75 million of securities without going through a full-blown registration. A Regulation A offering is sometimes called the small offering exemption. The $75 million ceiling is measured over a 12-month period. Regulation A is sometimes known as Regulation A+.

635
Q

A customer of a member transfers her account to another member firm. Under SEC rules, the member must maintain copies of the customer’s account records for how many years following the transfer?

A)
Six years
B)
Three years
C)
Five years
D)
Two years

A

A)
Six years

Under SEC rules, customer account records must be maintained for six years following the closing of an account.

636
Q

One of your customers was the founder of a startup that became a tech unicorn, that is, a new venture that reached a market capitalization of at least $1 billion. Although much of the equity was given to venture capital and private equity funds, your customer still owns enough of the company to be considered a control person. The customer wishes to purchase a luxury condominium downtown and would like to sell some of the stock to pay for the purchase. The current market price of the stock is $50 per share, and there are thirty-five million shares outstanding. The average daily trading volume over the past four weeks has been 300,000 shares. Under Rule 144, the maximum number of shares your customer could sell over a 90-day period is

A)
350,000.
B)
1.75 million.
C)
1.5 million.
D)
300,000.

A

C)
1.5 million.

Sales by a control person come under Rule 144. The limit is the greater of 1% of the outstanding shares, or the average weekly trading in the stock over the preceding four weeks. One percent of the outstanding number of shares is 350,000. The average weekly trading is 1.5 million shares (did you notice the 300,000 was the daily average not the weekly?) The greater of the two is clearly the 1.5 million shares and at the current market price of $50 per share, that will buy a lot of luxury.

637
Q

A customer has a securities account with a member firm valued at $220,000 in cash. There is also a record at the firm of her purchasing shares in the AAJ Money Market Fund for $110,000. What is the customer’s coverage under SIPC should the brokerage firm become insolvent?

A)
$330,000
B)
$320,000
C)
$100,000
D)
$220,000

A

D)
$220,000

Explanation
Coverage under SIPC is up to $500,000 per separate customer. Of that total, SIPC covers up to $250,000 in cash. Outside, independent money market fund shares are investment company securities, and SIPC coverage does not apply nor is even necessary since the customer can contact the money fund manager directly to access shares.

638
Q

Which of the following factors is not considered when determining if a location should be designated as an OSJ?

A)
Distance from other OSJs of the firm
B)
Size of orders at a location
C)
Number of registered persons at a location
D)
Diversity and complexity of the securities being sold

A

B)
Size of orders at a location

In making this determination, members should consider the following: whether registered persons at a location have regular contact with the public, the number of registered persons at a location, whether the location is geographically distant from another OSJ of the firm, whether the securities activities are diverse and/or complex, and whether the member’s registered persons are geographically dispersed.

639
Q

Any location used primarily for nonsecurities business with fewer than 25 securities transactions effected annually is defined as

A)
a location of convenience.
B)
a nonsupervising branch office.
C)
a branch office.
D)
a nonbranch.

A

D)
a nonbranch.

Excluded from the definition of a branch office is any location used primarily for non-securities business (e.g., insurance sales) and from which fewer than 25 securities transactions are effected annually. A location of convenience is any location used occasionally and by appointment.

640
Q

A customer order ticket must be endorsed by a principal when

A

promptly after execution

All order tickets must be reviewed, individually or as part of a trade blotter, promptly after execution.

641
Q

An agent lives in Massachusetts and is registered in that state and New Hampshire. His broker-dealer is registered in every state east of the Mississippi River. The agent’s client, who lives in Massachusetts, decides to enroll in a one-year resident MBA program in Salt Lake City, Utah. During the one-year period when the client is in Utah, the agent may

A)
not conduct any business with the client.
B)
only accept unsolicited orders.
C)
conduct business with the client as usual.
D)
not deal with the client until the broker-dealer registers in Utah.

A

C)
conduct business with the client as usual.

Explanation
Even though the college program is called a resident program that does not mean that the client has changed his state of residence. Although neither the firm nor the agent is registered in Utah, the agent may continue to conduct business with the client. This is because both the agent and his firm are properly registered in the client’s state of permanent residence.

642
Q

Where a short sale is not attributed to bona fide market making, Rule 204 of Regulation SHO mandates that a buy-in be initiated upon a failure to deliver prior to

A

the beginning of regular trading hours on T+3.

The rule requires that a mandatory buy-in take place for those short sales that there is a fail to deliver. The buy-in must happen the first thing (prior to trading) on the day following settlement date S+1, or in other words T+3. Had there been a long sale fail or fail attributable to bona fide market making, the answer would be T+5. Bona fide market makers need not operate under the same locate requirement that other broker-dealers must abide because they provide liquidity. However, market makers are not excepted from the close out requirement. Market makers and those who made long sales must be able to demonstrate to FINRA that that is the case, otherwise selling stock short without having a good locate puts them in violation of Regulation SHO. Moreover, those who deceive about their intention or ability to deliver securities in time for settlement are committing fraud, in violation of SEC rules, when they fail to deliver by settlement date.

643
Q

Your branch has a customer who asks about purchasing speculative Pink Sheet stocks on margin in addition to selling them short from time to time. Which statement concerning margin on over-the-counter securities is true?

A)
Most Pink Sheet securities are approved for margin by the Federal Reserve Board.
B)
Over-the-counter securities are marginable.
C)
Only exchange-listed securities traded over-the-counter are marginable.
D)
Nasdaq Select Market securities are marginable.

A

D)
Nasdaq Select Market securities are marginable.

The Federal Reserve approves all Nasdaq Select Market securities for margin. Any other over-the-counter security must be on the over-the-counter margin list approved by the Fed to be marginable. Any exchange-listed security is marginable.

644
Q

Under FINRA Rule 5130, all of the following are restricted persons except

A)
any persons owning 5% or more of a member firm.
B)
employees of members.
C)
portfolio managers.
D)
finders and fiduciaries acting on behalf of the managing underwriter.

A

A)
any persons owning 5% or more of a member firm.

FINRA Rule 5130 prohibits member firms from selling initial equity public offering stock to any account in which restricted persons are beneficial owners. Restricted persons include FINRA members, employees of member firms, finders, and fiduciaries acting on behalf of the managing underwriter, portfolio managers, and any person owning 10% or more of a member firm. Also included are a restricted person’s immediate family members.

645
Q

Which of the following could be considered a good control location for the safekeeping of customer securities?

A)
Savings and loan associations
B)
Credit unions
C)
A foreign custodian bank
D)
A foreign broker-dealer

A

C)
A foreign custodian bank

Good control locations include other broker-dealers (in the United States), commercial banks, and depositories, such as Depository Trust Company (DTC). With SEC approval, foreign depositories, foreign clearing agencies, and foreign custodian banks such as the Royal Bank of Scotland or Deutsche Bank, are satisfactory control locations. Foreign broker-dealers are not. Furthermore, credit unions and S&Ls are not acceptable as control locations.

646
Q

An issuer wishing to comply with Regulation D of the Securities Act of 1933 must file a Form D with the SEC no later than

A

15 days after the first sale.

Issuers wishing to avail themselves of the private placement exemption offered under Regulation D of the Securities Act of 1933 must file a Form D with the SEC no later than 15 days after the first sale.

647
Q

Which of the following has the power to close a stock exchange for up to 90 days?

A)
The president of that stock exchange
B)
The president of the United States
C)
The Administrator in the state where that stock exchange is located
D)
The SEC

A

D)
The SEC

The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 granted the SEC the power to close any registered stock exchange for up to 90 days. All that is required is notice to the president of the United States.

648
Q

A​ ​trader ​in the fixed income department of a TRACE reporting member firm received ​a request from a customer ​through his order management system to purchase 10, $1,000 par debentures with a stated rate of 5½% due in 2029 offered at a dollar price of 95½. The customer may expect a yield to maturity closest to

A)
5½%.
B)
5.96%.
C)
5%.
D)
par.

A

B)
5.96%.

An investor who purchases this type of dollar-priced fixed income security for less than par may expect a yield to maturity that is somewhat higher than the coupon​ or stated rate​.

649
Q

The ex-date for cash settlement transactions is one business day

A)
prior to the record date.
B)
after the record date.
C)
prior to the payable date.
D)
after the payable date.

A

For cash settlement trades (same day settlement), the ex-date is one business day after the record date.

650
Q

Short positions in Nasdaq securities must be reported to FINRA

A

twice a month.

Short positions in Nasdaq securities in both customer and proprietary accounts must be reported to FINRA twice a month. This is referred to as short interest reporting.

651
Q

Type of POA that remains in force if the client becomes incapacitated

A

Durable

Durable power of attorney remains in force if the client becomes incapacitated. Power of attorney, durable or nondurable, is revoked upon the death of the grantor.

652
Q

Repurchase agreements negotiated with customers who have purchased nonexempt securities are

A

Prohibited

FINRA prohibits the use of repurchase agreements in connection with nonexempt securities. They may be used, however, in connection with exempt securities such as U.S. governments and municipals.

653
Q

Under FINRA rules, the account name or number must be on an order ticket before

A)
the close of business on the day the order is executed.
B)
order execution.
C)
order entry.
D)
an execution report.

A

order execution.

All self-regulatory organization rules require that the account name or number be placed on an order ticket before order execution.

654
Q

A member firm must make an affirmative determination in which of the following customer transactions?

I. Short sales
II. Long sales where the securities are held by the customer
III. Long sales where the securities are held by the firm

A

I. Short sales
II. Long sales where the securities are held by the customer

Affirmative determination is required both for long sales where the customer is in possession of the securities and for short sales.

655
Q

Prior to submitting Form U4, a principal is required to contact all of the applicant’s previous employers for the past

A

3 years

656
Q

Sellouts vs. Buy-Ins prior written notice for each?

A

Sellouts - (no written notice) anytime after the settlement date

Buy-Ins - written notice NLT Noon 2 BDs before

657
Q

Allowable investments in an IRA would include

A)
rare stamps.
B)
cash value life insurance.
C)
fine art.
D)
U.S. government–issued silver dollars.

A

Coins minted for the U.S. Treasury, such as the Morgan of American Double Eagle, are eligible for inclusion in an IRA. No life insurance is allowed (though annuities, both fixed and variable, are allowed). Collectibles, such as art and stamps, may not be included.

658
Q

A broker-dealer is a market maker in ABCD stock. Transactions in ABCD stock for managed accounts held by the firm must be executed on what type of basis?

A

Agency

According to the Investment Company Act of 1940, transactions in managed accounts must be executed on an agency basis. If the adviser is acting in the capacity of a broker-dealer, he must disclose this information and receive the customer’s consent before completing any principal transactions.

659
Q

One of your clients has a margin account. There is a drop in the value of the stock owned in the account, and additional funds are required based on the terms of the firm’s margin agreement. This would be known as

A)
a house call.
B)
a margin call.
C)
a sellout.
D)
a Regulation T call.

A

A)
a house call.

Explanation
When additional funds are required, it is known as a house or maintenance call. If based on the firm’s stricter requirement, it is a house call; if based on the requirement of the SRO, it is a maintenance call. The initial or Regulation T call occurs at the time of the purchase. If any call for funds is not met, then there will be a sellout.

660
Q

Your branch has lately seen an uptick in municipal bond activity. You meet with your representatives to discuss opening a new account in which to trade municipal debt. All of the following information about a customer is required to be written on a new account form before opening an account except

A)
social security number.
B)
employer name.
C)
occupation.
D)
residence address.

A

A. Social Security Number

Explanation
If a social security or tax ID number is unavailable, you may open the account. The municipal securities professional must make a reasonable effort to obtain it and if unable to do so, the firm is required to keep a record of that fact. All other customer account information listed here must be obtained before the settlement of a transaction. It’s the MSRB’s sense that that is reasonable since the information is basic and important.

661
Q

If a customer wishes to open a cash account, who must sign the new account form?

A)
Only the customer
B)
A principal
C)
The customer, the registered representative, and the principal
D)
Only the registered representative

A

B) A Principal

Explanation
The customer’s signature is not required to open a cash account. For any account, the registered representative must sign the new account form indicating that the information therein is true and complete. A principal must review, and then accept, the new account by signing the form.

662
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding retail not held orders?

I. They are considered day orders.
II. They are considered discretionary orders.
III. The exercise of time or price discretion must be noted on the order ticket.
IV. The exercise of time or price discretion is not noted on the order ticket.
A)
II and III
B)
I and IV
C)
I and III
D)
II and IV

A

I. They are considered day orders.

III. The exercise of time or price discretion must be noted on the order ticket.

Explanation
A not held order is one in which the customer gives a representative discretion over the price or timing of the order. It is not discretionary. In addition, retail not held orders must be executed on the day received unless the customer has provided written and signed instructions to the contrary. The exercise of time or price discretion must be noted on the order ticket.

663
Q

With regard to margin, which of the following may be held in a non-securities account?

A)
Gold and platinum
B)
Exchange traded notes (ETNs)
C)
Money market funds
D)
British pound options

A

A) Gold & Platinum

Explanation
The Federal Reserve Board permits in accounts it has regulatory authority over under Regulation T, such as special cash and margin accounts, to have only securities positions, not actual commodities such as precious metals. Non-securities accounts may on the other hand have actual commodities as well as forwards and futures contracts. These assets have entirely different margin rules.

664
Q

Which of the following statements regarding contribution limits to Section 529 plans are true?

I. There are contribution limits at the federal level.
II. There are no contribution limits at the federal level.
III. There are contribution limits at the state level.
IV. There are no contribution limits at the state level.

A

II. There are no contribution limits at the federal level.
III. There are contribution limits at the state level.

Federal tax law does not address contribution limits. However, each state sets a maximum contribution limit for its 529 plan.

LO 6.c

665
Q

A sales assistant to a municipal securities representative took and entered an order for over $100,000 of municipal private activity bonds from the authorized trader of a family limited liability company. Which statement is true?

A)
This is acceptable if the municipal principal approves the transactions promptly (by the end of the trading day).
B)
The sales assistant must be a fully qualified municipal securities representative.
C)
Taking and entering the order from an institutional account does not require registration.
D)
This activity is prohibited under MSRB rules.

A

B)
The sales assistant must be a fully qualified municipal securities representative.

An associated person of a broker-dealer who accepts orders from customers must be registered as a municipal securities representative.

666
Q

In determining the price at which to quote a security, a municipal securities dealer may take all of the following into consideration except

A)
the amount of the security in the dealer’s current inventory.
B)
the dealer’s prediction on the future price of the security.
C)
the dealer’s current return on equity.
D)
the dealer’s current overall inventory position.

A

C)
the dealer’s current return on equity.

A municipal securities firm is not required to quote only the security’s fair market value. As long as the quote has a reasonable relationship to the fair market value, the quote may take into account other factors, such as the firm’s current inventory position (both overall and in the security) and the firm’s estimate of the direction of the security’s price. A quote may not be based on the dealer’s profitability return or on equity.

667
Q

Your firm must provide FINRA an update to any change in emergency contact persons within how many days?

A)
3 business days
B)
30 days
C)
1 business day
D)
15 business days

A

B) 30 days

Explanation
Your firm is obligated to identify two emergency contact persons. This is done through the FINRA Contact System. In addition, you must update contact information promptly, but no later than 30 days following any change. Your firm is obligated to review the contact information within 17 business days after the end of each calendar year. Emergency contact persons must be an associated person (AP) of the firm, and at least one emergency contact person must be a member of senior management and a registered principal of the firm. If your firm designates a second emergency contact person who is not a principal, then that contact person must be a member of senior management who is knowledgeable of the firm’s operations. If your firm has only one AP, the second emergency contact must be an individual, either registered with another firm or nonregistered, who has knowledge of your firm’s operations, such as the firm’s attorney, accountant, or clearing firm contact person.

668
Q

A longtime representative at a broker-dealer found a lucrative market in holding seminars for groups of retirees in Arizona. The representative employed a ghostwriter to create a handbook titled Elder Investing—A Guide to Income Strategies for Retirees. The representative’s name is placed on the cover. Each person who attends a presentation receives a copy. Which statement is true?

A)
Distribution of the handbook is prohibited.
B)
The handbook is valued at less than $100. It may be “gifted” to each attendee.
C)
The handbook must be filed with FINRA’s Department of Advertising 10 business days prior to use.
D)
The handbook may be distributed to each attendee who signs a waiver.

A

A)
Distribution of the handbook is prohibited.

Explanation
Registered representatives may not suggest that they authored investment-related books, articles, et cetera, if they did not write them. A representative implying authorship of a book on senior investing, and by so doing causing people to believe he was an expert, could violate a number of rules.

669
Q

A member firm created, maintains, and promotes on its compliant website an investment blog. A relatively new registered representative at the firm uploaded some content obtained from the firm’s blog to a personally-maintained micro-blog, which is followed by more than 99 people. The micro-blog has static content alerting followers as to the representative’s contact information. This action is

A)
acceptable, provided the content was approved by an authorized principal of the firm and a record is maintained.
B)
acceptable, but only if the uploaded content and the micro-blog site static content is filed with FINRA’s Department of Advertising within 10 business days of first use.
C)
prohibited.
D)
acceptable, but only if the uploaded content and the micro-blog site static content are filed with FINRA’s Department of Advertising 10 business days prior first use.

A

A)
acceptable, provided the content was approved by an authorized principal of the firm and a record is maintained

Explanation
Although content on the member firm’s website is compliant, signifying that it was approved by an authorized principal and reviewed by FINRA examiners, and the fact that selections were lifted from the site to support another site operated by a registered person would require additional approvals and trip the recordkeeping requirement as well. Subject to approvals from the firm, this is an acceptable activity within FINRA rules. Individual member firms may take a stricter stance.

670
Q

Under the Investment Company Act of 1940, mutual funds must send financial statements to shareholders at least

A)
monthly.
B)
semiannually.
C)
annually.
D)
quarterly.

A

B) Semiannually

Explanation
Under the Investment Company Act of 1940, mutual funds must provide semiannual and annual reports to shareholders.

671
Q

In reviewing the hiring disclosures made by a person who worked as a representative at another member firm and who now wants to work at your firm in the same registration category, you see that the person was convicted of a felony charge of driving under the influence of alcohol and served 30 days in jail last year. Which of the following statements regarding this is true?

A)
This crime must be disclosed on Form U4 but is considered an other felony and not deemed a statutory disqualification, and the person can be re-admitted to the securities industry without application.
B)
The conviction is a statutory disqualification and seven years must elapse before the person may enter or re-enter the securities industry.
C)
The felony conviction is a statutory disqualification and 10 years must elapse before the person may re-enter the securities industry. However, due to the nature of the crime not appearing to pose a threat to the securities industry, an application may be made by a sponsoring firm to permit the person to register.
D)
People who have served more than 10 days of jail time are not permitted to work in the securities industry.

A

C)
The felony conviction is a statutory disqualification and 10 years must elapse before the person may re-enter the securities industry. However, due to the nature of the crime not appearing to pose a threat to the securities industry, an application may be made by a sponsoring firm to permit the person to register.

Explanation
The definition of statutory disqualification was amended many years ago to include nonsecurities-related felonies. As a result, the Commission permits persons who are living with that burden to find relief from the 10-year ban applicable to a statutory disqualification for committed offenses unrelated to the securities industry (e.g., driving under the influence) by applying with FINRA using a form called MC-400. The determination as to who is granted relief and permitted to enter or re-enter the securities business is made on a case-by-case basis. In the case of driving while intoxicated, and nothing else, history has shown that the SEC and FINRA would grant the petition to register.

LO 1.f

672
Q

Which of the following describes a broker-dealer that promotes a day-trading strategy?

A)
Hosts a website that provides general financial information or that allows the multiple entries of intra-day purchases
B)
Provides general advertising regarding the generally high quality of day trading
C)
Promotes the benefits of day trading and rapid-fire trades
D)
Advertising efficient and low-cost execution services based on multiple trades

A

C)
Promotes the benefits of day trading and rapid-fire trades

Explanation
A member is not deemed to be promoting a day-trading strategy by engaging solely in promoting efficient execution services or lower execution costs based on multiple trades; providing general investment research or advertising the high quality or prompt availability of such general research; and having a website that provides general financial information or news or that allows the multiple entry of intra-day purchases and sales of the same securities.

673
Q

An investment advisory firm has $85 million of assets under management (AUM). The firm has five institutional clients, one of which is a registered investment company. The firm has only 25 retail clients. Which of the following statements is true?

A)
No registration is required.
B)
The firm must register with the SEC only.
C)
The firm will register with the state in which their principal office is located.
D)
The firm will register with both the SEC and the state of domicile.

A

B)
The firm must register with the SEC only.

Explanation
If an advisory firm is an adviser to a registered investment company, it is required to register with the Commission, regardless of the amount of AUM.

674
Q

If an institutional sell-side trader who averages 20 trades per month for a mutual fund receives a $300 gift from the fund for excellent execution, which of the following statements is true?

A)
The gift is permissible with no notice needed.
B)
The gift is permissible with notice to the MSRB.
C)
The gift is permissible with written notice to the employing institution.
D)
The gift is not permissible.

A

D)
The gift is not permissible.
Explanation
The gift is limited to $100 per person, per year, and that gift cannot be structured on the basis of so much per trade. A log of gifts should be maintained by the firm’s compliance department.

675
Q

Under MSRB rules, discretionary accounts must be reviewed by which of the following?

I. A municipal principal (Series 53)
II. A municipal sales principal (Series 10)
III. A general securities principal (Series 24)
A)
II only
B)
I or II
C)
I, II, or III
D)
I only

A

I. A municipal principal (Series 53)
II. A municipal sales principal (Series 10)

Explanation
Discretionary accounts may be reviewed by either a municipal principal or municipal sales principal and must be reviewed frequently.

676
Q

A natural person who is deemed an associated person (AP) of a securities broker-dealer is employed in any one of the following capacities except

A)
placing trades in municipal securities or in nonexempt securities.
B)
soliciting customer orders.
C)
supervising those persons who solicit orders.
D)
acting in a clerical or ministerial role.

A

D)acting in a clerical or ministerial role.

Explanation
Those people filling solely clerical or ministerial jobs at a broker-dealer are not APs. They do not have to be registered. Note, however, that if a clerk is involved with handling the firm’s original books and records, it would be wise for the firm to submit fingerprint cards for that person. This is done by filing Form NRF (Nonregistered, fingerprinted) through the Web CRD and them submitting the actual prints.

677
Q

A dealer bank provides research and financial advice to a municipality concerning a new issue of 30-year, callable bonds. The commercial side of the bank may use the information obtained through this fiduciary capacity

A)
immediately—no approval is necessary.
B)
under no circumstances.
C)
if such use is approved by a municipal principal.
D)
once the information has become public.

A

D)
once the information has become public.

Explanation
Information obtained in a fiduciary capacity may only be used with the consent of the party for whom the broker-dealer was working as a fiduciary, and through which capacity the information was obtained. An information barrier must be in force. Analysts and underwriters work on opposite sides of the wall. Material, nonpublic information must not be used. Once the information is disclosed publicly, however, it may be used.

678
Q

A representative who has serviced a joint account for a married couple for many years receives a call from a spouse informing the representative of an impending divorce and asks to have measures taken to protect the assets in the account. The representative asks the branch office manager what to do. The best advice would be to

A)
contact the other spouse to confirm that both parties agree to the proposed changes.
B)
immediately freeze the account to prevent the other spouse from acting peremptorily.
C)
suggest that the concerned spouse request that no holdings be moved or transferred without the knowledge and written approval of both parties.
D)
request new trading authorizations.

A

C)
suggest that the concerned spouse request that no holdings be moved or transferred without the knowledge and written approval of both parties.

Explanation
To protect a joint investment account or other holdings where divorce proceedings are about to be undertaken, it would be prudent for one of the account holders to promptly contact the broker in writing of the impending divorce. Also, one of the account holders should request that no securities or funds be moved or transferred without the knowledge and written approval of both parties.

LO 5.e

679
Q

A customer, Alex Price, directed his account executive to liquidate all securities positions in his account and to send him a check right away. The member firm promptly followed the instructions, but the trade confirmation and check were mistakenly prepared. The amount sent exceeded the actual trade amount by exactly $5,000. The firm’s operations officer, Alice Luu, identified the error within hours after the check was mailed during her daily reconciliation. She called the customer and asked him to return the check when it arrives and provided an overnight service for Price’s convenience. However, he refused, claiming there was no mistake, citing that the check amount matched the confirmation exactly. What is the best way to handle this misunderstanding?

A)
The firm should file a simplified arbitration claim within 45 days of demanding repayment.
B)
The firm should file suit against the customer because the customer is not entitled to keep the overpayment.
C)
The firm made the error. The customer is entitled to keep the overpayment.
D)
A stop payment should be placed on the check and a new check should be issued to the customer in the proper amount.

A

D)
A stop payment should be placed on the check and a new check should be issued to the customer in the proper amount.

Explanation
The customer is not entitled to keep the overpayment. Price is obligated to return the extra $5,000. At this point, the best way to handle it is to stop payment on the check and issue the customer a replacement check for the proper amount. If the check had cleared, the customer should be asked to present a check to the member firm for the money owed. If the customer does not comply, the case would be elevated to the firm’s legal department. If there is no satisfaction, it could work its way to arbitration, which would be as far as it would go.Explanation
The customer is not entitled to keep the overpayment. Price is obligated to return the extra $5,000. At this point, the best way to handle it is to stop payment on the check and issue the customer a replacement check for the proper amount. If the check had cleared, the customer should be asked to present a check to the member firm for the money owed. If the customer does not comply, the case would be elevated to the firm’s legal department. If there is no satisfaction, it could work its way to arbitration, which would be as far as it would go.

680
Q

A registered representative participates on a panel hosted by her broker-dealer. While on the panel, she makes a recommendation to purchase a specific security. Which of the following should be disclosed?

A)
That her firm had been a market maker in the security being recommended
B)
That her firm member or its officers have a financial interest in any of the recommended issuer’s securities
C)
She has a conflict of interest with the security
D)
That her firm was a manager or co-manager of any offering of that issuer within the last 12 months

A

D)
That her firm was a manager or co-manager of any offering of that issuer within the last 12 months

Explanation
Retail communications that include a recommendation of securities must have a reasonable basis for the recommendation and must disclose, if applicable, that the member was manager or co-manager of a public offering of any securities of the issuer whose securities are recommended within the past 12 months. If at the time the communication was published or distributed the member makes a market in the security being recommended, that would also need to be disclosed. There is no need to disclose if the firm is no longer making a market in the security.

681
Q

Time extensions for a Regulation T margin calls are requested from

A)
the FRB.
B)
the SEC.
C)
the registered clearing broker-dealer.
D)
the SRO.

A

D) the SRO

Explanation
Time extensions may be permitted by the appropriate self-regulatory authority for good cause.

682
Q

The firm recently hired a new representative who is expected to be registered with FINRA as an investment adviser. Word came back from the registration department of the firm that a state’s securities administrator lawfully denied the investment adviser’s registration for

A)
being charged with for a securities-related felony eight years ago.
B)
a conviction for a non-securities-related misdemeanor five years ago.
C)
lack of experience as a broker-dealer.
D)
violation of another state’s securities law within the previous five years.

A

D)
violation of another state’s securities law within the previous five years.

Explanation
Statutory disqualification would be put into place if the representative was convicted of a securities-related misdemeanor or any felony within the past 10 years. If the representative was convicted over 10 years ago, there is no longer a statutory disqualification even though the state securities commissioner could still deny the registration. However, being charged with a felony means nothing unless the charge was followed by a conviction. A non-securities-related misdemeanor (e.g., a traffic ticket) will not create a statutory disqualification.

683
Q

If a member firm believes the client has an impairment that prevents the person from defending his interests, a temporary hold is permitted on disbursements for a maximum of how many days if the firm comes to reasonably believe that an attempt at exploiting the person has been made?

A)
5 business days
B)
55 business days
C)
30 calendar days
D)
3 business days

A

B) 55 business days

Explanation
Amended (March 17, 2022) FINRA Rule 2165 permits firms to place a temporary hold (55 business days) on disbursements from the accounts of individuals aged 65 or older; and individuals aged 18 or older whom firms reasonably believe have an impairment that prevents them from protecting their own interests (a specified adult). Firms are now permitted to place a temporary hold on funds if the firm has a reasonable belief that financial exploitation of the specified adult has or is occurring or was attempted. This gives the firm time to notify a trusted contact person and to begin an internal review.

684
Q

A registered representative is looking to form an LLC to invest in commercial properties with her spouse and adult child. Which of the following statements is the most correct in regard to this formation?

A)
The representative must notify the employing member firm prior to the LLC’s purchase or commitment to purchase of commercial real estate.
B)
The representative must notify the member firm once the LLC has been legally formed.
C)
The representative must notify the member firm prior to the formation of the LLC.
D)
Notification is unnecessary. The LLC is not investing in securities.

A

C) The rep must notify the member firm prior to forming the LLC

Explanation
No registered person may take on outside employment, including being a sole proprietor, or partner of another person, or being compensated, or having the reasonable expectation of compensation, as a result of any business activity outside the relationship with her member firm, unless she has provided prior written notice to the member.

685
Q

Which of the following best describes a PIPE transaction?

A)
An offering which complies with Rule 504 of Regulation D
B)
Restricted securities, once sold, are immediately registered for public resale
C)
A self-underwriting where issuer employees sell the issue
D)
An offering sold principally to non-U.S. residents

A

B)
Restricted securities, once sold, are immediately registered for public resale

Explanation
In a PIPE (Private Investment in Public Equity) transaction, investors purchase securities directly from a publicly traded issuer in a private placement. The securities are restricted and cannot be immediately resold. After the closing of this transaction, the issuer immediately prepares and files a registration statement with the SEC for the securities issued in the PIPE. Once effective, public resale of the PIPE securities may begin.

686
Q

The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is authorized under federal law to suspend trading in any stock for a period of up to

A

10 business days

The SEC is authorized under federal law to suspend trading in any stock for a period of up to 10 business days. The Commission issues a suspension when the investing public may be at risk, such as when a company fails to keep up with filing its 10-Ks, 8-Ks, et cetera. Once the SEC decides to suspend trading, it will issue an order of suspension and announce the reasons and dates.

687
Q

A representative of a member firm sends a wedding gift to a good customer valued at $399. Which of the following statements is true?

A)
The gift must be recorded on the firm’s gift blotter.
B)
The gift is required to be booked to satisfy SEC recordkeeping requirements.
C)
The gift is not subject to the restrictions of the FINRA gifts rule or its recordkeeping requirements.
D)
The gift is in violation of the FINRA gift and gratuities rule.

A

C)
The gift is not subject to the restrictions of the FINRA gifts rule or its recordkeeping requirements.

Explanation
A wedding gift or congratulatory gift for the birth of a child or a gift for other infrequent life events is not subject to the restrictions of the gifts rule or its recordkeeping requirements so long as the gift is customary, reasonable, and personal.

688
Q

Ryan Jones walks into one of your firm’s branches wishing to open up a cash account. He was referred to your firm by one of its largest customers. He provides the representative with all of the information required to open the account but is unable to provide identification at that time. Under SEC rules, your firm may

A)
open the account but refrain from accepting a deposit until proper identification is received.
B)
open the account, accept a deposit, and invest per the customer’s instructions.
C)
not open the account until proper identification is received.
D)
open the account, accept a deposit, but refrain from investing until proper identification is received.

A

B)
open the account, accept a deposit, and invest per the customer’s instructions.

Explanation
SEC rules require that we verify a customer’s identity within a reasonable time period before or after account opening. Therefore, the account may be opened, and investments made.

689
Q

An associated person (AP) of a FINRA/NYSE member firm has reached an anniversary date that requires the AP to satisfy the Regulatory Element of the Continuation Program. Within how many days of the anniversary date must the AP satisfy the Regulatory Element?

A)
10 business days
B)
30 calendar days
C)
120 days
D)
60 calendar days

A

C)
120 days

Explanation
All registered persons must satisfy the Regulatory Element of the Continuing Education Program within 120 days of the person’s initial registration date (also known as the base date) following the second registration anniversary, and every three years after that. Failure to complete it within that 120-day window would put the AP’s license on inactive status—not suspension. While on inactive status, that person cannot perform any duties in any capacity requiring registration or receive any compensation for the purchase and sale of securities.