Sergeant test Flashcards

1
Q

Department functions

A

Preserve peace, Enforce laws, operate a training program, prepare reports, procedure for selling guns, procedure for unclaimed property

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2
Q

Watch commander

A

Deputy chief supervised, review arrests, field complaints, take calls from the public, liaison with judges and attorneys, headquarters inspection, monitor activities, handle media,

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3
Q

Purpose

A

To protect and serve
Community oriented policing
Problem oriented policing

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4
Q

Crime prevention

A

Partnership between department and people
Interact with the community for public support
The prevention of crime remains an obligation of society
When one relies on the police, society has failed

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5
Q

Apprehension of offenders

A

St. Paul will have jurisdiction unless The fullest prosecution could be better served by turning it over to the other jurisdiction involved-federal, state, etc.

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6
Q

Constitutionality

A

Officer may enforce any state, federal, or local statute

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7
Q

Courtesy

A

Officers shall refrain from using profanity indecent or abusive language

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8
Q

Compliance with lawful orders

A

promptly obey any order given by a superior of same or lesser rank

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9
Q

Outside employement

A

The department may impose conditions or restrict it altogether

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10
Q

Off duty within city

A

Off-duty officers, while within the city have full police authority. Its granted by the authority of the chief of police

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11
Q

Off duty outside the city

A

Off-duty officers while outside the city have the arrest authority of a police officer only when confronted by a situation that justifies their use of deadly force. Otherwise, they have the same authority as a private citizen.

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12
Q

Administrative reporting

A

daily, quarterly and annual reporting will be routine for all managers.

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13
Q

Holdsheet

A

Contains information regarding felony and gross misdemeanors within the last 24 hours

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14
Q

Chain of command

A

First-line supervisors’ span of control should not exceed 12-unless there is an emergency
The police chief is available by appointment to any employee.

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15
Q

Unity of command

A

Unless authorized, each organizational component shall be under the direct command of one supervisor, except when on a unique or temporary assignment.

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16
Q

Recruitment

A

The officers day to day contact with the public is the best recruitment-

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17
Q

Training

A

All outside or contracted training must have a training approval form with the signatures.

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18
Q

Training

A

employees must agree prior to receiving outside instruction that training received from outside sources must be properly evaluated and authorized by the training commander and deputy chief of support services and according to department policy prior to being adopted and use in the course of duty

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19
Q

Budgeting

A

Budgetary process is required by the city charter and is a planning tool and is objective. It is annual. Unit heads communicate their needs by budget request. continue stardard of service, improve standard of service, or reduce the cost of service

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20
Q

Delegation of duties

A

A supervisor may delegate correct portions of responsabilties but may not relinquish overall responsabilty or any accountability

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21
Q

Techniques of supervision

A

Inspiration, explanation, and encouragement

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22
Q

Supervision in the field

A

Senior officers are responsible for the performance of junior officers and must be granted commensurate authority in order to properly supervise. A field sergeant is the fist line of supervisor and they should guide those below them

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23
Q

Command responsibility

A

Goes to highest ranking officer or the assigned designated officer. A senior command officer may make a suggestions but they cannot activley unless they properly relieve the subordinate of command by so informing the highest ranking officer. a senior officer at a scene may be held accountable if they chose not to take command

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24
Q

Inter division filed situations

A

When different units work together in the field. The requesting unit will have supervisory responsibility unless SWAT, bombs, or forensics are called

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25
Q

Crime scene investigation

A

When an investigator is called, they assume supervisory responsibility

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26
Q

Department orders

A

set forth procedures and set controls to eliminate contradiction and prevent duplication of existing orders

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27
Q

Title of orders

A

Chief-General order, special order, and emergency
Deputy chief-Division, section and unit

A division head may issue a directive on their command level as long as it does not conflict with the above

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28
Q

General order

A

Order by the chief to all personel, policies, rules, and regulations. The policy manuel is what this is

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29
Q

Special order

A

Temporary written order by the chief for a specific period of time. It expires via date or with the passing of the event that prompted it.

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30
Q

Emergency order

A

order via the chief, orally, good for 72 hours

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31
Q

Division order

A

Written order assigned by a division assistant chief

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32
Q

Unit order

A

signed by a unit head

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33
Q

Heres the story

A

Issued by the chief of police only for non-training issues. All police and civilian personnel are responsible for the information. Distributed by R and D. Memorandums and issued by department heads and do not reflect policy. must be lawful and initialed by the author

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34
Q

Training bulletins

A

Issued by R and D via email. The process for recommendation will follow the same order as a policy change recommendation

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35
Q

Department forms

A

Have a PM number. Control unit is R and D.

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36
Q

Facial hair

A

beards 3/4 inch not less then 1/16. side burns cannot pass the ear lobe, or extend more then an inch. no beards for SWAT or honor guard while performing duties

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37
Q

Uniform rules

A

All officers designated as uniformed shall remain in the uniform of the day while on duty. You may cover your uniform while driving to work. Deputy chief of operations in charge of uniforms and requests to change them.

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38
Q

Administrative uniform configuration

A

Applies to command staff, office, training and range. Must have body armor while leaving the building and have BWC, and less lethal option.

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39
Q

Pins and tie tacs

A

Applies to uniformed shirts, LBV, and EVC. U.S. flag permitted 1/4 inch above name or ribbons. Law enforcement related pin on right pocket. Tie tac must be law enforcement related

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40
Q

Rank Insignia

A

Chief-3 gold stars
Ass chief=2 gold stars
Dep chief-1 gold star
sen com-gold eagle
commander-gold oak leaf
sergeant-gold cheverons

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41
Q

Service stripes

A

5 years left sleeve

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42
Q

Award ribbons

A

Required while in class A. Centered on the shirt button on the right. highest award closest to the badge on the top row. Medal of valor, medal of merit, Chief’s shield, Distinguished service, lifesaving, Officer of the year, Rowan award, Chiefs award for valor or merit.

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43
Q

Body armor

A

Required for all uniformed patrol duties, surviellance when arrest is possible, uniformed off duty, high risk assignments determined by supervisor-optional when assigned to admin. threat level II

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44
Q

Non uniform

A

Chief, Ass chief, Deputy chief, Command staff, Investigators, Executive and Admin sergeants, Officers or sergeants on temporary detail as authorized by sergeant.
Business Professional, business casual, and casual.

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45
Q

Visible Police Markings (VPM’s)

A

Approved navy blue jackets or polo shirts which are screen printed with POLICE on the front and back-must have department patches. Admin example of use is deemed any non-high risk such as entering a crime scene or happening upon a car accident. BWC required vest optional.
Operational use is entering a volatile crime scene or making an arrest after purchasing dope. BWC and vest required.

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46
Q

Covert attire

A

Unit commander authorization needed and Shirt with patches, vest, and BWC must be available

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47
Q

Business cards

A

On every traffic stop, when anyone asks, to any victim or complainant on a call. The only exception is MFF

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48
Q

Special event staffing

A

Draw of 1000 people, 10 or more officers working it, it is designated special via the chief of police.

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49
Q

Working special events

A

Not eligible when on admin leave, recruit academy, executive loan or leave of absence, use of 100 hours of sick (not including FMLA)

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50
Q

Limitations on number of hours worked

A

Limit of 16 on a 24 hours period-does not apply to emergency recall

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51
Q

Mandated overtime

A

Officers who were mandated to work, will not have to work another mandated shift until all officers of the same rank work a shift. The reverse seniority mandate will reset every year on Jan 1.

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52
Q

Paid leave

A

Officers cannot be mandated to work OT during paid leave. If an officer takes leave and it adds up to 7 days off due to RDO’s, the officer cannot be mandated to work.

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53
Q

Supervision for special events.

A

The inspection unit will assign an incident commander. The IC will draft an Event Action Plan with Special Operations Unit. SOU must approve the EAP. The IC is in charge of all special event activities

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54
Q

Overtime for swore personnel may be authorized when

A

As an extension of shift, call back, emergency recall, Special events, Contract overtime.

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55
Q

Court stand by

A

Two hours paid regular, does not apply if notified of cancellation prior to 1800 the previous day. only one standby OT request per day must be requested by the prosecutor. Name of the prosecutor and CN required.

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56
Q

Limitations of hours worked

A

26 hours in 7 consecutive days, 16 straight hours in a 24-hour period-does not apply during emergency recall

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57
Q

Contractual Overtime

A

5-10 officers assigned, need a sergeant. 10 or more and it is deemed a special event.
Officers cannot work Contratual OT if they are on Admin leave, in the academy, on probation, on executive loan or leave, use of 100 hours of sick (not FMLA),
Cancel event via the online scheduler. Within a week send an email to the inspection also. Missing three or more in a year may be a problem. 26 hours in a week.

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58
Q

Injured on duty

A

The injured employee must complete the Employee safety report within 24 hours or the end of the shift. Health partners and regions.
Must seek medical attention and obtain workability/off slip, all documentation needs to be submitted to SPPD human resources, supervisor safety report within 24 hours if the employee returns with restrictions-an employee accommodation
should be completed. Fatalities need to be reported to OSHA within 8 hours, and inpatient hospitalization within 24 hours. department could be fined if no comply

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59
Q

Line of duty deaths

A

Notification officer
Hospital liaison officer
Family liaison officer
Department liaison officer
Benefits coordinator

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60
Q

Military Leave

A

Must apply at least 5 days prior. National Guard you get 15 days and it doesn’t effect your vacation.

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61
Q

Leave of absence

A

have to be on more than 3 months. Primarily granted for the benefit of the city and not the employee. Parental leave 12 months. 30 days or more turn on your badge, wreath, gun, and ID. Request for leave of absence form to the chief.

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62
Q

FMLA

A

12 weeks per year. Birth, adoption, Foster placement, care for an immediate family member, employee’s own personal health. Must be employee for 12 months Does not provide pay during leave. Must use sick, comp and vacation in that order first.

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63
Q

Parental leave

A

12 months minimum employment status. Birthing mom gets 4 weeks of pay-everyone else gets 2 weeks of pay. Vacation on sick continues to accrue. must be used within 12 weeks of birth or adoption.

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64
Q

Sick leave

A

Report no later than 1/2 hours after their shift starts. It can be used for alcohol treatment but not more than twice. After the 8th calendar day employee must obtain a sick certificate from the doctor on the doctor’s letterhead. Can use sick for the family but may be limited to 160 hours per year but does not apply to the illness of a minor child. The first 48 hours can be used for earned safe, self-care, care of a family member, domestic violence, and snow days—65 additional days for a work-related injury. Without pay may be granted for 2 years. “sickness” does not include conditions due to alcohol or narcotics. However, treatment can be sickness but only twice. A mental condition as defined by a medical professional can be sickness. The CBA sets maternity leave. 8th calendar day must provide a sick certificate on the doctor’s letterhead. Three or more days for the family must also have a sick certificate. Supervisor’s responsibility to ensure sick cert is done.

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65
Q

MN Parenting Leave Act

A

Effective August 1, 2013-Permits employees to use their sick time for illness to child, adult child, spouse, sibling, grandparent, or step-parent. employers may limit the of benefits to no less than 160 hours every 12 months, but limit does not apply to absence due to minor child.

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66
Q

Womens Economic Security Act

A

Effective May 12, 2014-allows the use of sick time for mother and father-in-law, and grandchildren. May limit to no less than 160 hours in 12 months. DOes not apply to a minor child.

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67
Q

Earned safe time

A

Effective January 1, 2017-the first 48 hours of sick are earned safe and sick time regardless of why the time was used. After 48 hours, it reverts back to regular sick. Care for oneself, a family member or anyone close like family, domestic violence, and care for a family member whose school is closed. After 30 days of sick, the doctor note to say you are good to go. Sick leave w/out pay may be granted for two years.

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68
Q

Bereavement

A

CBA

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69
Q

Time off to vote

A

If you vote on the way to work, after voting your travel time will be paid as long as you show up at work.

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70
Q

Harassment

A

Prohibits discriminatory, violent, harassing, and offensive behavior including content on a cell phone displayed or desemontated

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71
Q

Sexual harassment (city)

A

Unwelcomed sexual advances and requests for sexual favors may include Jokes, slurs, compliments, innuendo, propositions, facial expressions, leering, pictures, posters, cartoons, emails, websites, texts, social media, kissing, touching, impeding movement, intimidating, and retaliation. All complaints go to the HR director, one is not allowed to make an independent decision on validity. Internal Affairs investigates as well. False claims violate the policy. The policy applies to every city employee

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72
Q

EPIC

A

Intended to prevent or mitigate, unsafe behavior, signs of stress, cutting corners, adverse encounters, descreditation of department, policy and law violations. Intervention may include, taking primary, redirection, assuming responsibility of person in custody. Not intended to lessen an officers reporting obligation.

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73
Q

Harassment reporting.

A

Contact your supervisor, their supervisor, division deputy chief, HR, or the city attorney.
Equal rights and equal opportunity delopement center, court house, department of human rights, united states equal employment commission.

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74
Q

Disciplinary procedures

A

Ensures the integrity of the police department. The department shall investigate all complaints lodged against its employees. Reporting and recording shall be in accordance with 629.89. Police officer’s discipline procedures act and/or the city civil service rules. Employees may be required to submit to lab exams, photographs were taken, or disclosure of financial records with a search warrant. Complaints shall be excepted from any source. No IA docs may be removed from office without the Chief’s authorization. Officer must receive a copy of the signed complaint prior to the admin hearing.

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75
Q

IA investigations

A

Investigation adheres to the Police Officer’s disciplinary procedures act. 629.89. Formal statement location must be agreed upon, taken during work hours, must have a written complaint for formal statement, before statement the officer shall be notified statement may be used as evidence of misconduct but cannot be used criminally, must be recorded audio or written, the officer has right to an attorney or union rep. The employee must get a copy of the IA warning/discipline for not cooperating. Dispos are exonerated, sustained, not sustained, policy failure, unfounded, or commended. The entire file is forwarded to the police civilian internal affairs review commission.

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76
Q

External complaints.

A

Unfounded-didn’t happen-not sustained-not enough evidence to prove it did or did not happen-Exonerated-happened but was lawful-sufficient evidence to prove guilt-policy failure-allegation is factual but officer followed procedure-commended-false allegation and the officer demonstrated great behavior.

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77
Q

IA review by deputy chief

A

DC receives a recommendation from IA commander. if the DC agrees with the findings he/she drafts a memo of concurrence and forwards it to the Chief. If the DC does to concur, he/she drafts a memo of non-concurance. If the report is incomplete the DC returns it to the commander.

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78
Q

Chief IA review.

A

The chief shall review the findings and recommendations. Upon a preliminary determination that reduction or discharge is appropriate, the chief shall schedule a meeting with the officer. Upon final decision, the officer shall be notified in writing of their right to appeal with the civil service commission.

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79
Q

complaint options

A

Supervisory counseling-oral warning or recommendation not considered discipline, retraining-cannot be a singular disposition, oral reprimand-verbal order of correction which is then reduced to writing, Written reprimand-sustained findings more than an oral but less than suspension, Suspension-By the Chief not more than 30 days.

80
Q

Final actions by IA

A

Upon final dispo, IA is responsable for it. Case files may be destroyed or expunged after 5 years. IA cards are retained.

81
Q

Immediate discipinary procedures

A

Emergency suspension-any commander or supervisor has the authority to suspend an employee until the next business day. Said officer must report to the chief or asst chief at 0900 the next day. Limited to one day without pay. No IA notification or statement from the officer. Report forwarded to the personnel officer.

82
Q

Police civilian internal affairs review commission.

A

Tasked with reviewing complaints involving, excessive force, inappropriate use if firearm, discrimination as defined in 183.02 of this code, racial profiling, poor public relations, and any other complaints refereed by the mayor, chief, or Dept of human rights and equal opportunity. Upon conclusion IA submits a copy of file to PCIARC. Chief has final authority.

83
Q

Employees rights

A

Dismissal-officer gets a statement citing a reason, effective date, the status of retirement benefits, and statement of officers employment record relating to the dismissal. Suspension-no more the 30 days, may request a review via civil service commission. Officer has 5 days to appeal a reduction in rank, suspension, or dismissal.

84
Q

Cause for discharge, reduction, or suspension

A

conviction or criminal offense, or misdemeanor with immorality, brutality to a prisoner, violation of any civil service rule, conduct unbecoming, failure to obey a lawful order by a supervisor, intoxication on duty, contraction of infectious diseases that inhibit officers’ ability to perform their duties, insubordination, offensive language towards the public or fellow employee, Incompetence, carelessness of city property, debt, political influence, a contribution from any political party, acceptance of free gifts, absence from duty, fraud, failure to comply with any part of CBA, and any violation of 181.932, acts of discrimination.

85
Q

Drug and alcohol screening

A

The administrative only-non criminals should be recorded on BWC, SWAT, negotiators, and Bombs subject to testing. Discharge of firearm, warning shot, accident w/injury, pursuit w/crash. Must submit to testing if there is suspicion.

86
Q

Outside employment

A

Cannot work in the following ways unless authorized by the chief: Bail Binds, private security, police officer, uber or the like, union related, movies, on-sale liquor establishments, professional sports, anything that lowers the dignity of police services.

87
Q

Performance appraisal

A

A-F, March 31, G-L, June 30, M-R, Sept 30, S-Z, December 31. One year porbation is every four months. To allow fair personnel decisions, improve performance, personnel counseling, correct probationary employee decisions, judge performance, identify training needs. Meeting with an unsatisfactory employee should take place 90 days before the rating period is over. Chief has authority to change the rating of an emplyee.

88
Q

Commendation review board

A

10 members. Chairperson is an executive officer assigned to the support services division and admin division. Both civilian and sworn. 3 patrol, 2 investigative, 1 district supervisor, one rep from chiefs office, 2 civilian employees. 3 year appointment. meetings last Tuesday of the month. Medal of valor, chiefs shield, distinguished service award, life saving award, medal of merit, medal of commendation, unit citation, chiefs award for valor or merit, letter of recognition, unit letter of recognition.

89
Q

Labor management safety committee

A

coordinatated by the executive officer of the support services division or admin division. 8 members. Third tuesday of march, june, September, and December. review injury reports, safety programs, safety policies, safety inspections, conduct safety inspections, promote awareness.

90
Q

Flag etiquette

A

Half staff for, per the president, memorial day sunrise to noon, officer has been killed until sunset on the day of the funeral, directed by the chief. Officer at a parade need only salute the massed national colors. salute flag 6 paces prior and beyond. If no flag salute the band.

91
Q

Government data

A

No data dissemated outside the department unless in accordance with the MN data practices act. PIO is first contact for media requests. Public requestes are handled by the records department. employees seeking information for private use must pay for it and get it on their own time.

92
Q

Confidential criminal data

A

All data is private until the investigation is done. An investigation becomes inactive for , case is close, statue of limitations, declined to prosecute, case dismissed or not guilty, exhaustion of appeals.

93
Q

Administrative lockdown

A

RMS/eforms, police reports, media vault, laserfiche, all video, and other. Rank of commander may lock down case.

94
Q

Case file maintenance

A

A duplicate case file can be carried at the descretion of the unit commander for continuing victims inquiries, seriousness of the crime, monetary loss involved or future investigative use.

95
Q

Laserfiche document storage

A

Used to electronically store documents. Scanned in by records personnel and stored on a server managed by officer of technology. FBI and BCA criminal justice information shall not be scanned into Laserfiche per Criminal Justice information services policy. CJI is FBI data provided for law enforcement and civil agencies to perform their missions, biographic, identity history, case history, biometric, to name a few.

96
Q

Criminal Justice Information (CJI).

A

Biometric-physical or behavioral traits of humans. Laserfiche is used to identify people using fingerprints, iris scans, and facial recognition. Identity history-criminal and civil events. Biographic data-Information about individuals associated with a unique case. Property data-vehicles and property associated with a unique case. Case incident history-Information about the history of criminal activities.
No employee shall scan FBI CJI.

97
Q

Uniformed evidence retention

A

Evidence will be retained for pending civil litigation. The chief/assistant chief or designee shall of the division the civil case is involved in will call the commander of the technology unit who will notify the property room, and forensic services unit. Retention of records shall comply with the Uniform Retention Schedule and the General retention schedule for the Minnesota cities.

98
Q

News media

A

Official sources to media, Public information officer, office of the chief, watch commander, and records unit. Chief or designee approves all news releases. Only the chief or designee shall comment on active investigations, and arrest data released by PIO, chief, or designee, watch commander. Sheriffs office handles booking photos,

99
Q

Computer security

A

Terminal agency coordinator (TAC)-handles all CJIS information.

100
Q

Criminal justice data policy

A

CJIS is the BCA network that provides criminal justice information to law enforcement, MN justice information services, Criminal justice information system, National crime information center, Integrated search service, Comprehensive incident-based reporting system, MN repository of arrest photos, Criminal history system, hot files, POR search, and DVS. CJDN terminals are located in records, property crimes, family violence, homicide, narcotics, backgrounds, impound and technology. Managed by the terminal agency coordinator (TAC).

101
Q

Comprehensive incident based reporting system ((CIBRS)

A

An electronic data sharing program is designed to provide access to law enforcement data shared submitted by agencies state-wide. the purpose is to further investigations. Technology and SIU are authorized to access to database. A unit commander can obtain written authorization for access to the database to , further investigations, serve process in a criminal case, inform law enforcement of safety issues prior to serving process, enforce no contact orders, locate missing persons, and conduct background checks. All data is classified,

102
Q

Telephone courtousy

A

Every employee shall check thier voice mail every two days while working.

103
Q

Fax

A

The telephone consumer protection act of 1991 requires date and time, identification, and phone number of the person or business sending the fax.

104
Q

Employee telephone directory

A

Employee must fill out change of address form no later then one day following the change of address or phone number.

105
Q

posting of prostitution data

A

Within 30 days of arrest on SPPD internet site, photo , name, age, city of residence, date and location, other arrest data. Three SPPD personnel must verify the accuracy of the posting prior to it being posted,

106
Q

RRRA

A

Mandatory medic response-Baton, ASR, Pepperball, less lethal impact munitions, ECD probe impact to any part of the body, any suspected injury between canine and person, any injury caused by department vehicle, firearm. Officer MAY transport if it increases likelihood of survival.

107
Q

Levels of resistance or aggression

A

Cooperative-acknowledges direction or flawful commands and offers no resistance. Passive resistance-Uncooperative but is taking minimal physical action (not moving, falling limp). Active resistance-physcial action intended to prevent an officer from taking them into custody but not directed at the officer (walking or running away, breaking officers grip, spitting). Aggressive resistance-displays intent to harm officer, themselves, or another to prevent being takin into custody (fighting stance, punching, kicking, weapons). Aggravated aggressive-actions likely to cause serious injury or death (firearm, blade).

108
Q

Levels of control-Low level

A

Neither likely of intended to cause injury, such as restraining, controlling or handcuffing.. Ofcier presence, verbal communication, soft empty hands (escorts, handcuffing, takedowns with low potential for injury), handcuffs and other restraints, ASR, pepperball (area deniel), weapon pointing (ECD, pepperball, LLMIS, less lethal, firearms).

109
Q

Intermediate force and deadly

A

Has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain-includes, hard empty hands (strikes, kicks, takedowns with threat of injury), baton strikes, ECD, Less lethal, canine. Deadly is likely to cause death or great bodily harm. Can also result from a force option being improperly applied, (baton to deadly force areas, vehicle, less lethal weapons to deadly force areas, and forearm.

110
Q

609.66

A

An officer is authorized to use deadly force if an objectively reasonable officer believes , based on the totality of the circumstances to the officer at the time without hindsight, that such force is necessary. Can be articulated with specificity by the law enforcement officer, is likely to occur absent action, must be addressed without reasonable delay, or to effect the capture of a person who the officer believes attempted or committed a felony and that person will cause death or great bodily harm to another person. Cannot pose threat to one self and when reasonable must identify oneself as an officer.

111
Q

Elements of deadly force situations

A

Ability-person has the means to cause death or great bodily harm, size, age, strength, skill, weapons available. Opportunity-person is in position to resist the officers control or to use force or violence, distance from officer or another, physical barriers. Immineant jeopardy-officer beleives person poses threat to the officer or to another and the officer must act to prevent death or great bodily harm.

112
Q

Use of force to detain, search, or arrest

A

per 609.06 police may use reasonable force to protect themselves, protect others, ,ake arrest, execute a legal process, enforce an order of the court, execute any other duty imposed upon public law enforcement officer.

113
Q

Duty to intercede or report.

A

If not interceding, an officer has 24 hours to report the incident to the chief law enforcement officer of the reporting agency.

114
Q

PIC

A

When there is no suspicion of criminal activity, any force used by the officer must be to protect officers, the subject, or others of imminent physical harm. Officers must consider if the subject poses an imminent threat to self or others, if the degree of force is nessessary to address the threat, if the force option is reasonable under the circumstances.

115
Q

De-esculation

A

Planning, assesment, time, redeployement/containment, lines of communication such as verbal warnings, persuasion, dufusing, empathy, redirecting, advisements, building report, asking open-ended questions, clear and direct orders.

116
Q

RRA training

A

quarterly-if an officer misses training due to injury it is his responsibility to make it up prior to return to duty or face disciplin.

117
Q

Restraints

A

Officers may handcuff someone on a terry stop for articulable facts that the person is uncoorporative, subjects actions presnt physical danger, probability of flight, subject may be armed, stop follows a violent crime and the subject matches the description, facts that a violent crime is about to occur, at a search warrant if its needed for safety, detox for safety, when ever possible use a seatbelt. Do not need to handcuff if there is a medical condition, or if they are handcuffed in a loss prevention office until officer has reasonable grounds to place SPPD cuffs on him.

118
Q

Leg restraint

A

Npotify a boss when practical, search prior, handcuff prior, do not connect carabiner to the subjects belt or cuffs, control sublect to avoid fall, seat in an upright position, officer must monitor, call medics if subject complains of injury, The leg restaint is approved to avoid injury to the subject, protect officer from harm, prevent the distruciton of property. Try not to use on the elderly, children, pregnant, behavioral health crisis. It is a reportable use of force. Lenght of time and medical observations of subject. If it becomes a biohazard,take to HQ and place in red biohazard bag, then uniforms biohazard collection can. note in report. Prefered transport is via ambulance.

119
Q

ASR

A

Aerko freeze plus P. OC/CS blend, non lethal. plain clothes officers are required to carry unless approved by commander. All ranks commander and below required to be certified when in uniform. May be used on subjects engaged in active resistant behavior. May not be used on passive resistant, or handcuffed unless they are engaged in active, in a closed vehicle (unless trying to secure a aggressive resistant subject). Not intended to force extraction from a closed area. Officer must monitor from exposure to decon. Must notify a boss and detention personnel,

120
Q

ECD

A

624.731 authorizes officers to carry ECD. A neuromuscular incapacitation device interrupts the body’s ability to communicate messages from the brain to the muscles causing NMI. The air cartridge is replaceable and uses compressed nitrogen to fire two barbed probes sending a high voltage/low current signal. Only certified instructors may teach it. 6 hours of cert course/written/practical tests. annual re-cert. 3 types of applications, Spark display-non contact display. Drive stun-pain compliance w/out a cartridge, and probe mode-when the cartridge is fired. Back and lower front center mass. 5 second cycle. each cycle must meed the objectively reasonable standard (Graham vs. corner). After 3 cycles the ECD should be deemed ineffective.

121
Q

Impact tool/LLIMs

A

Low, intermediate, and deadly. All commanders and below must be certified and carry the baton when in uniform. LLIMs are Intermediate force. Patrol sergeants are required to be certified. The 40 MM launchers are assigned to the training unit. Must get authorization from a boss to deploy except during exigent circumstances. Should on ly be deployed when there is a cover officer. The foam tip exact round has evidence value-can be destroyed 6 years after collection.

122
Q

Pepperball

A

Low level, low-level active (area denial), Intermediate force (direct impact), deadly force (direct impact to DF target areas). 624.731 authorizes the use of tear gas. PAVA OC powder projectiles. 8-hour training course then annual recert. must sign in and out. launcher, 2 magazines, 5 NO2 gas cartridges, 22 live pepperballs w/one patrol bag. One launcher and patrol bag shall be in every patrol vehicle. Notify dispatch upon use. Display only and area deniel is classified as low level. Prohibited when subject is handcuffed, operating a motor vehicle, when deadly force is justified, extreme age (young or old), disabled or pregnant. Target the upper abdomen for direct. On-going assessment of responder safety, subject compliance, effectiveness, Officers should monitor after exposure. AD documented in the PB operators report.

123
Q

Canine

A

Low level of control-canine presence. Intermidiate-when used as an apprehension tool. Primary purpose is a locating tool. 16 hours training per month. Annuel cert via U.S> police canine association regional PD1 and PD2. Announcements must be given, and on every floor once inside a building. Murder, manslaughter, aggravated robbery (1st), kidnapping, CSC, aggravated assault with a firearm. Subject must pose imminent danger. If the subject is injured, handler must notify supervisor, brief EMS, document,

124
Q

Deadly force

A

609.066. “force which the actor uses with the purpose of causing, or which the actor should reasonably know creates a substantial risk of great bodily harm or death. The use of deadly force is only authorized when an objectively reasonable officer would believe, based on the totality of the circumstances known to the officers at the time and without the benefit of hindsight, that such force is necessary: protect the police officer or another from death or great bodily harm. provided the threat can be articulated with specificity by the law enforcement officer, is reasonably likely to occur absent any action by the officer, to affect capture of subject of felon who is an imminent risk of causing death of GBH to another. Officers may not discharge firearm unless deadly force is authorized (unless to put down an animal).

125
Q

Vehicle Interdiction Tactic (VIT)

A

Intermediate force. A pre-planned containment tactic low speed involving intentional contact of the vehicles. SWAT only not approved for patrol. Requires approval from the chief or designee. Approved use is to effect the arrest of a violent felon who may flee or endanger others. Policy does not prohibit an officer from using vehicle to confront an immediate deadly force situation.

126
Q

Reportable RRA

A

Empty hand (forceable handcuffing, takedowns, strikes, kicks), EZ leg restraint, ASR, ECD (spark display, drive stun, probes), Baton or impact tool, firearm display, canine apprehension, Discharge of LLM’s or PB, use of force w/vehicle or forearm. The department reviews all RRA reports. Officers must immediately notify the supervisor of RRA and write a report by EOT. Supervisor response is required to any RRA over soft empty hands or if the subject has an injury. The Boss will notify the watch or district commander. Photos are now optional due to BWC. Report not necessary with no injury on weapon display, accidental k-9 contact, handcuffing, pat downs, ECD, Peperball display.

127
Q

Critical incidents

A

The district commander will write the original report, union guy can visit the officer but cannot speak of the incident (monitoring officer). EAP shall respond. The employee must meet with Mental health within 7 days, then 90 days, then 6 months. Officer must remain on the scene and give public safety statement to the non-involved field supervisor. The officer should not talk to anyone else. Officer writes a report. Admin alcohol screening test watch by IA or watch commander. THe test is not included in the investigating agency report but is sent to IA. Meet with investigators for statement.

128
Q

Critical incidents-supervisor response.

A

Secure scene, obtain factual statement, notify the watch commander, assign personnel to the hospital to recover evidence, check on injuries at a hospital, appoint monitoring officer, for each involved officer and they should be kept separated, remain on scene, and brief homicide.

The monitoring officer should write a report detailing the actions including who had access to the involved officer. The officer should ensure details of the incident are not discussed. The homicide unit assumes the investigative lead. S/commander will facilitate equipment replacement. Range officer will facilitate new weapon for officer. IA commander will ensure breath test is done, and one investigator does admin investigation, ensure there is no disclosure of information to the investigating unit that was gathered during a compelled IA interview.

129
Q

Critical incident-PIO

A

May release, description of the incident, resistance or pursuit, weapons used, BWC, or other video, LPR, 911 transcript, name of hospital. Invistigating agency may release names of officers.

130
Q

Relief from duty-critical incidents

A

4 days paid leave with the option of 7. for fatal encounters If the officer is coming into their days off, the days off will be moved to after their admin leave days. Injury encounters is 2 days off. Officers who fire their weapon at someone may get leave for the remainder of their shift. Officer witnesses to a fatal encounter may request 2 days, Officers involved in a fatal encounter will get a 30 day temporary duty assignment. Duty weapon returned after “No-bill.” The only exception is litigation about weapon malfunction.

131
Q

Firearms proficiency

A

Officers must obtain 80%. Miss one shoot oral. Miss 2 written. 3 or more unpaid leave. Supervisor must keep record of back-up weapon. Must qualify annually. Must have range staff approval. While on the range, the staff is in charge, regardless of rank. Personally owned AR-15’s, .223/5.56 cal, barrel length 10.5-20, fixed or flip sights with night incerts, approved sling, approved weapon mounted light, 3-30 round magazines, carrying case. Any officer with a barrel less then 16’ must provide federal tax stamp.

132
Q

AR-15

A

All must complete AR course, range maintains operaters list, district commander does semi-annual inspection, personally owner must be AR-15, .223, sights, night sights, sling, light, 30 round mag, 10.5-20 inch barrel, annual inspection by range staff,

133
Q

Handgun permit

A

Issued by the police department which the officer lives under, no limit to number of firearms, no charge, reviewed by the records manager, valid for one year.

134
Q

EAP

A

Private coaching, counseling, Critical incident response, does not do fitness for duty assessments. Self, supervisor, and mandated referral. boss directs peer support team

135
Q

Physical development program

A

60 days after birthday to do PT test. 40 yoa stress test, 45, stress test, 50 stress test, every two years after that.

136
Q

Office of the chief

A

Office includes IA, Inspection, PIO, Chief of staff (executive officer), Chiefs secretary. THe chiefs admin team includes Assistant chiefs, deputy chiefs, chief of staff, human resources manager.

137
Q

IA unit

A

Clear the innocent, establish guilt, facilitate disciplinary action. Investigates all aligations against police, all referrals from mayor, city administrator, city counsel, office of human rights, POST, MN human rights department.

138
Q

Inspection unit

A

examine procedure and compliance, eliminate deficiencies, inspect storage areas, staff inspections, quarterly audits of narcotics, audit firearms, inventory all monies held for over 30 days, random drug screening for SWAT, negotiators, and bombs, mayor driver if needed,

139
Q

CIU

A

Criminal intelligence (anticipate, monitor, and prevent criminal activity), strategic intelligence (trends and patters), tactical intelligence (info regarding specific event), threshold for criminal intelligence. (reasonable suspicion). Information gathering. Commander reports to the DC of community of engagement. Restricted files-could adversely affect an on-going investigation. Confidential-less restrictive, could be agency personnel. Unclassified-tropical information that can be released. Law Enforcement sensitive-sensitive information that can only be released to other law enforcement personnel. For Official Use Only-May contain classified , non-public, or private information, can only be shared with government personnel .

140
Q

Digital forensics lab

A

Commander of CIU will do an administrative review to ensure compliance of 306.02, of evidence, police reports, submissions and procedures. Will not except requests with out a request form, proper chain of evidence, warrant or consent form, except with abandoned property and the like.

141
Q

SIU

A

Support unit that is operational and technical.

142
Q

Research and development

A

Staff work for development of policy and procedure, grant writing, Control department forms, conduct surveys, annual activity report, crime mapping, crime analysis, under the commander of technology

143
Q

Fiscal Affairs

A

Provide planning and budget support to the divisions, under the direction of the assistant chief, coordinate annual budget

144
Q

Purchasing

A

MN 471.345 controls purchases. Anything over $2500.00 must be ordered using a master contract or purchase request. Under $75.00 unit commander can use the petty cash form.

145
Q

Impound lot

A

Dispositions of vehicles within 6 months of possible, conduct auctions, conduct inventories.

146
Q

Human resources

A

personnel files, medical records, cost analysis reports, release public data, officer of the year, commendation review board, process new hires, distrubute performance evaluations, issue IDs, TASS, self-service.

147
Q

Travel policy

A

All SPPD employees who travel more then 100 miles or those who stay overnight outside of the seven county metro area. Travel training approval form required. Must include budget code and dollar amount. Fiscal must give a travel number or T# via the assistant chiefs office. Air should be booked 30 days in advance. A travel exspense claim form must be submitted with all the required receipts within 15 working days. Laundry reimbursement for travel more then 4 days.

148
Q

District sergeants

A

Respond to crashes involving department vehicles, incidents involving serious injury of department personnel, robbery in progress, bomb search scenes, bomb calls where evacuation is needed, end of pursuits, homicides or suspicious deaths, emergency at RCLEC, serious injury crashes, SWAT scenes, call for more squads, bomb blast scenes, missing person involving three or more squads,

149
Q

SANE procedures

A

Sexual Assault Nurse Eation-kits mustg be sent to the BCA, kits turned into the property room, all kits must be picked up within 7 business days and submitted to the BCA within 14 business days

150
Q

Family and sexual violence unit

A

the unit does not handle babysitters, daycare operators, or protection orders where there is no family relationship. Elder abuse is under the FVU commander.

151
Q

Worthless documents

A

NSF checks, account closed checks, no account checks, counterfeit checks, refer to maker of checks, forgery, offering a forged check, financial transaction card fraud. Report if the amount is above $1500.00 for NSF, account closed, refer to maker, stop payment, or worthless checks received within the city limits. Report for counterfeit checks. altered, forged, fraud or stolen checks, checking account opened using fraud and when an arrest has been made.

152
Q

Offering a forged check

A

A check is a conditional promisary note,. The account holder must sign an affidavit of forgery. The check must be accepted in person within the city limits. The merchant who accepts the check is the victim and must be able to ID the suspect

153
Q

Financial transaction card fraud

A

An affidavit of forgery is required for each transaction. The card must be lost or stolen to fit the elements of the crime or the owner did not authorize the use of the card.

154
Q

Forgery

A

When the suspect alters or falsely makes any writing other than a check or FTCard, with the intent to defraud or injure. Must be able to ID the suspect for prosecution

155
Q

Bank fraud

A

A suspect who uses artificial means to inflate their bank account like fraudulent checks.

156
Q

PHOP and RAP and ODMAP

A

Police Homeless outreach program-helps provide housing

Recovery Access Program-address public threats related to chemical use.

Overdose detection mapping application program. Spike alerts (lots of Od’s). Level 1, COAST outreach, level 2, notify SPPD officers, hospitals and shelters, level 3, PIO media release.

157
Q

Hospital procedures

A

People under arrest will be taken to Regions. All flight or control risks will be taken to Sheriffs security unit. May be taken directly to ER if, suffering life threatening injuries, no escape or control issues, non-life threatening injuries

158
Q

PIC

A

avoid lights and sirens. Is the person a threat to themselves or others if not detained now. Is there a criminal charge.

159
Q

Tactical disengagement for domestics

A

Only to be considered when there is no immediate risk of harm to household members. Things to consider is there a weapon, court order has been violated, is the incident occurring in the victims home, felony level crime, family members have sustained injuries, threats of violence, past history.

If the on call chief approves tactical disengagement, assure victim goes to a safe place, norigy FSVU,

160
Q

Contain, control, communicate, consult SWAT

A

Reinforce the inner and outer perminter. Establish contingency plans, less lethal, more help, ect. Try to Contact suspect using all available means. Call SWAT and negotiators.

161
Q

Tactical threat assessment

A

Felony warrants, commission of a violent crime, non-violent fel war and non-violent fel crime and violent crim hist, armed and discharging firearm,, armed in a public area, unwilling person unable to leave a barricade or suicidal person call, SWAT will no respond to jumpers unless SWAT commander deems it necessary, any supervisor may contact the SWAT commander at any time.

162
Q

Arrests without warrants

A

an offense committed in the officer’s presence, felony non in officer’s presence, GM-crim damage, check forgery, stalking, financial card fraud, 24-hour domestic assault assault and dangerous weapon on school property within 4 hours. Pick-up issued by officers goo for 24 hours, 30 days for investigators.

163
Q

arrests with a warrant

A

Fel and GM anytime. Misd arrests cannot be made between 8-10 on Sunday unless ordered by a judge or the person is found in public.

164
Q

Authorized use of force

A

If effecting lawful arrest, court order, legal process, citizen arrest, to restraint child, common carrier to kick passenger off, to restrain mentally ill, public or private treatment facilities when lawfully committed.

165
Q

exceptions to in-person arrest

A

shoplifting, domestic abuse, VOP, DWI,

166
Q

Force used to enter a residence

A

IF PO informs person they indent to make an arrest and the person flghts/flees the officer may use all reasonable force to make arrest. After giving notice of warrant officer may break in if, he is refused entry, entry is necessary for his own liberation, entry is necessary for the liberation of another.

167
Q

Person arrested for another jurisdiction

A

If no force was used and the person is not wanted in St. Paul for any crime, the person may be turned over to the other jurisdiction.

168
Q

Prisoner transport

A

Only vehicles with a safety barrier and modified to prevent prisoner exit. All vehicles capable of doing transport must be searched prior to the shift. Seatbelts when possible. Transport should not be interrupted to render police services unless there is grave danger to someone. The prisoner should not communicate with anyone during transport. Leg restrains ok if you trained, to protect the prisoner from self-harm, damage to property, to protect officers

169
Q

Special transport situations

A

Female, give milage. Factors when considering restraints, criminal history, demeanor, ability to escape.

170
Q

Visual body searches

A

Officers have probable cause to believe there is a weapon or contraband or is necessary to prevent bodily harm of the suspect. Must notify a supervisor who should be present unless there are special circumstances or gender. Get the same gender supervisor. write a report. Officers must not touch underclothing unless person refuses. Only at LEC or medical facility.

171
Q

Cavity search

A

Rectum, stomach, or vagina only. Must have a search warrant and list who is conducting the search, where, and who will be present, May only be conducted by medical personnel.

172
Q

Warrants

A

Felony, may be served any time, Writs, court has set forth certain schedules, sentences, or restrictions, Probate court warrants, commitment warrants, family court warrants, deal with separation or divorces, Bench warrants, fail to show (may be served any time), Youth conservation commission warrant, issued by the DOC and carry the same weight as any other warrant, Juvenile court warrants, issued by juvenile court for adults and juveniles, Misd warrants, can only be served 0800-22-not on Sunday unless night capped.

173
Q

On line reporting

A

Non-emergency, occurred within St. Paul, not on highway or interstate, comp must be 18 or older, non-bias related, cannot include firearms or explosives, can be crim damage, illegal dumping, harassing phone calls, lost property, theft from auto, fraud and forgery, detached garage burg, info reports, theft.

174
Q

Photo line-up

A

Non-suspect fillers-photos of non-suspects, Functional equivalent-officer doing the show-up who does not know the suspect, that officer would not view the show-up prior to doing it. Independent administer-officer who admins the show-up but does not know the ID of the suspect. Simultaneous photo display-victim is shown all the photos at once. Show-up-the presentation of a suspect to the victim within a short period of time. Same time frame and within proximity of the crime. Live individuals. At least 5 physical descriptors should be used. Dont place the suspect in #1. May use DVS photos when its necessary.

175
Q

Photo display procedures

A

Use independent administer or functional equal, display photos one at a time, record any comments, ask wit how certain they are, do not show more than once unless requested, and use simultaneous method for under 12 YOA.

176
Q

Field interview

A

To ID someone, determine if a crime has been committed, to gain information about the person, vehicles, movements, document location and reason for the contact. DO report in e-forms,

177
Q

Reporting bias or hate

A

Feds have the power to prosecute, race, color, religion, national origin, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, disability, or age.

178
Q

Shoplifting evidence

A

Misd-retained by the store. Felony-photograph property (unique characteristics), One photo with the property owner, property not returned to inventory until the case is settled. All other felony level cases the property should be collected as evidence.

179
Q

Endangered person (Missing)

A

abduction, other dangerous circumstances, missing more then 30 days, under 21 plus one factor cited here, medical emergency, no pattern of running away, abduction by non-custodial parent, person has been the subject of threats in the past, lost in the wilderness, risk of injury or death.

180
Q

Guidelines for immediate response (missing)

A

10 or under, under 21 with mental disabilities or non-custodial parent. 70 or older-weather, health, suicidal, strange circumstances, endangered,

181
Q

Amber alert

A

All forms are kept at the Emergency Operations Center (EOC). 17 YOA or younger, Is missing the result of a stranger. If yes then go to AMber Alert Action Plan. If no then ask is there a reason to suspect great bodily harm or death. If yes then go to Amber alert action plan. If not Amber Alert should not be used.

182
Q

Everbridge Community Notifications

A

Used by authorized department personnel to notify community of major incidents. Event has major impact on public safety, Project lifesaver, mentally ill or vulnerable, 8 YOA or younger during day, 10 at night, 21 or younger and risk of great bodily harm or death, environmental dangers of great bodily harm or death. All involve notification of ECC.

183
Q

Transgender

A

Gender-Person’s social characteristics and behaviors that may be perceived as feminine or masculine. Gender Identity-Sence of being a male or female. Transgender-Person who expresses a gender that differs from assigned sex at birth. Gender non-conforming-behavior and appearance are not inconsistent with sex assigned at birth.

184
Q

Juvenile criminal records

A

Retained until the person is 27 YOA. Photographs must be destroyed when the child reaches 19. Fingerprints are maintained indefinitely. Juvenile jurisdiction expires when the person turns 19-unless its extended, then its 21. A certified juvenile is someone who commits a felony at the age of 14. Extended Juvenile jurisdiction is the process for a child who has committed a felony.14-17

185
Q

Curfew

A

15 or younger-10-4am, 16-17 1201-0400.

186
Q

Truancy

A

must be in school prior to the completion of 10th grade. 3 hours a week religious exception. ages 7-16. 11-14m high priority.

187
Q

SOU

A

An emergency action plan (EAP) is required for events with more than 1000 people. Liaison to St. Paul Emergency Management (SPEM). The chief must approve all mutual aid requests.

188
Q

Unlawful assembly

A

3 or more people. does not include failure to have a permit or past behavior. 3 or more people with the intent to commit a criminal act.

189
Q

Tactical alert

A

I II and III may be called by a sergeant or above. It’s a coordinated response to incidents. Tac I is all on duty odd numbered squads. Tac II, two squads will remain in the district, all other squads will report to the staging area. Tac III same as II but all squads from various units and ODE will respond to staging as well. No need to progress through the three alerts.

190
Q

Emergency recall

A

Officers recalled will be assigned a 10 hour work day based on their regular shift. Incident commander should be the rank of commander or above. Officers should respond to Everbridge and not self deploy. Leave is cancelled.

191
Q

Property and evidence manager

A

30 days to respond to the email of the listed property. 100 rounds or more of ammunition should be turned in next to the flammable storage locker or directly to the property room.

192
Q

Recovered property

A

Must be retained for 60 days if the owner is unknown before it can be disposed of.

193
Q

Background investigations

A

A report must be filed within five days of establishing the background investigation. The unit head will receive the background report within 30 days of its completion. No background can be conducted for licensing of businesses, corporations, or individuals, with the exception of firearm permits.

194
Q

Constitutional rights

A

Miranda V Arizona-Inform accused of their rights. Gault-rights of juveniles. Escobedo v Illinios-Interrogation to stop after accused requests counsel. Bram v United States-Confession cannot be extracted via implied promises. McLaughlin Rule-36-48 hours rule.

195
Q

Firearms test fire

A

DDC-Discharged cartridge casings. If leads are developed from the test fire, the firearm can be retained for up to 12 months. GRRC-Gun return request checklist.