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September Exam 2013 > September 2013 Exam - Master at Arms > Flashcards

September 2013 Exam - Master at Arms Flashcards

0
Q

What is LFA?

Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L

A

Lead federal agencies

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1
Q

______________ provide operational guidance and establish fundamental policies and procedures governing the actions taken by DoD forces performing civil support missions(e.g., military assistance to civil authorities and military support for civilian law enforcement agencies) and routine service functions (including AT/FP duties) within the US territory (including US territorial waters).

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

A

Standing Rules for the Use of Force (SRUF)

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2
Q

Who will operate will operate under the Use of Force Policy for warning shots and disabling fire as issued by the commandant?

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

A

DoD forces under USCG control, conducting both outside and within the territorial limits of the US.

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3
Q

Inherent Right of Self-Defense:

Who always retains the inherent right and obligation to exercise unit self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile content?

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

A

Answer: Unit Commanders

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4
Q

What is an imment threat?

Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L

A

The determinations of whether the danger of death or serious bodily harm is imminent.

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5
Q

What could be used to describe an attack or other use of force against the United States, US Forces or other designated persons or property?

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

A

Hostile Act

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6
Q

The Imminent threat of the use of force against the United States, US forces or o her designated persons or property can be define as what…..

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

A

Hostile Intent

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7
Q

What are some examples of some assessets vital to national security?

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

A

Nuclear Weapons, nuclear command and control facilities, designated strategic operational assets, sensitive codes, or special access programs.

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8
Q

Use of deadly force is to be used only when all lesser means have failed or cannot reasonably be employed. It is authorized under the following circumstances?

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

A 
Inherent right of self-defense
Defense of others
Assets vital to national security
Inherently dangerous property
National critical infrastructure
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9
Q

When directly related to the assigned mission, deadly force is authorized under the following circumstances….

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

A

1) serious offense against a person
2) escape
3) arrest or apprehension

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10
Q

National Critical Infrastructure. For the purposes of DOD operations, defined as President-designated public utilities, or similar critical infrastructure, vital to public health or safety, the damage to which the President determines would create an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm.

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

A

.

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11
Q

How many hours per week should you use drug/explosive detector dogs for drug/explosive interdiction sweeps?

A

A minimum of five hours

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12
Q

When 1-day training/4-day cycle is used, training days will consist of ____________ hours minimum training in obedience, patrol, and detector proficiency trials, to determine the MWDS proficiency level.

A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 12 hours

A

Answer: C. 8 hours

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13
Q

No off leash training with explosives shall be conducted!

A

.

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14
Q

What is the indicator called when the gun is fully loaded?

A

Extractor

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15
Q

What are the three safety features?

A

Decocking safety lever, firing pin block, half cock safety notch, and the disconnector serves as an internal safety feature

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16
Q

What are the thee major components of the m9?

A

The magazine assembly, the sliding barrel assembly, and the receiver assembly…

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17
Q

What is article 94 of the UCMJ?

A

Mutiny and sedition

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18
Q

What is article 104 of the UCMJ?

A

Aiding the enemy

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19
Q

What is article 85 of the UCMJ?

A

Desertion

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20
Q

What is article 86 of the UCMJ?

A

Absence without leave

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21
Q

What is article 87 of the UCMJ?

A

Missing movement

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22
Q

What is article 82 of the UCMJ?

A

Solicitation

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23
Q

What is article 128 of the UCMJ?

A

Assault

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24
Q

What is article 111 of the UCMJ?

A

Drunken or wreck-less operation of a vehicle, aircraft, or vessel.

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25
Q

Persons subject 2 persons subject to the code 3 jurisdiction to try certain persons even though they have been separated from the service 7-14 apprehension and restraint 15 non judicial punishment (captain’s mast) 77-134 punitive articles 137 that must be explained 138 complaints of wrongs.

A

.

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26
Q

How many articles are in the code of conduct?

A. Four
B. Six
C. Eight
D. Ten

A

Answer: B

27
Q

What three sources contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy?

A

U.S. Navy Regulations, Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy, and UCMJ

28
Q

Inherent Right of Self-Defense

Unit commanders always retain the inherent right and obligation to exercise unit self defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent. Unless otherwise directed by a unit commander as detailed below, service members may exercise individual self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent. When individuals are assigned and acting as part of a unit, individual self-defense should be considered a subset of unit self-defense. As such, unit commanders may limit individual self-defense by members of their unit.

CJCSI 3121.01B

A

.

29
Q

Imminent Threat

The determination of whether the danger of death or serious bodily is imminent.

A

.

30
Q

Hostile Act

An ATTACK or other use of force against the United States, US forces or other designated persons or property. It also includes force used directly to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of US forces, including the recovery of US personnel or vital USG property.

A

.

31
Q

Hostile Intent

The IMMINENT THREAT of the use of force against the United States, US forces or other designated persons or property.

A

.

32
Q

Assets vital to National Security

Examples may include but are not limited to, nuclear weapons, nuclear command and control facilities, and designated restricted areas containing strategic operational assets, sensitive codes are special access programs.

A

.

33
Q

What are some examples are inherently dangerous property?

A

Portable missiles, rockets, arms, ammunitions, explosives, chemical agents, and special nuclear materials

34
Q

Set when a terrorist action has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.

A

FPCON DELTA

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

35
Q

Set when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.

A

FPCON CHARLIE

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

36
Q

Set when there is an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity.

A

FPCON BRAVO

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

37
Q

FPCON ALPHA

A

Set for a general threat of possible terrorist activity, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable.

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

38
Q

FPCON NORMAL

A

Set for a general threat.

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

39
Q

Who determines whether the FPCON level is adequate for local conditions?

A

Installation Commander

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

40
Q

Adherence to the __________ results in the proper allocation of security resources. (Select the answer that best completes the sentence.)

A

A: AT risk assessment

B: Site-specific measures

C: DoD standards

D: RAM guidelines

Answer: C
(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

41
Q

Which element of the AT plan considers the command’s ability to deter terrorist incidents, employ countermeasures, and mitigate and recover from the effects of a terrorist incident?

A

A: Critical asset measures

B: Risk management

C: Planning

D: Incident response

Answer: B
(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

42
Q

Which document contains the DoD AT standards by which the AT program is measured during the AT Program Review?

A

DoD 2000.16

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

43
Q

Which of the following does NOT dictate which PPR tactics and techniques a Commander will employ?

A

A: Prior PPRs written by the command

B: Current threat conditions

C: Geography

D: Laws

Answer: A
(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

44
Q

A Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA) is an agreement that defines the legal position of a visiting military force deployed in the territory of a friendly state.

A

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

45
Q

A _________________________ is an agreement that defines the legal position of a visiting military force deployed in the territory of a friendly state.

A

Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA)

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

46
Q

A Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) is a document written between parties that defines general areas of conditional support. For example, if one party agrees to provide support, the other party can agree to provide the materials.

A

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

47
Q

is a document written between parties that defines general areas of conditional support. For example, if one party agrees to provide support, the other party can agree to provide the materials.

A

Memorandum of Agreement (MOA)

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

48
Q

Which of the following is NOT a document used to establish support relationships between U.S. and friendly foreign forces?

A

A: SOFA

B: MOA

C: MOU

D: ROE

Answer: D
(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

49
Q

The inherent right of self-defense, which serves to empower the sentry, is a key principle of the __________ and __________.

A

A: Rules of Engagement (ROE)

B: Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

C: Use of Force Continuum

D: Rules on Use of Force (RUF)

E: A & D

Answer: E

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

50
Q

Which of the following reports would be issued if Top Secret information were lost?

A

A: OPREP–3 NAVY BLUE SENTINEL

B: OPREP–3 WHITE PINNACLE

C: OPREP–3 PINNACLE

D: OPREP–3 NAVY UNIT SITREP SENTINEL

Answer: C

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

51
Q

What is a Terrorist?

A

A terrorist is an individual who uses violence, terror, and intimidation to achieve a result.

(NKO) Joint Antiterrorism

52
Q

Terrorism is the calculated use of violence or threat of violence to instill fear. It is intended to coerce or to intimidate governments or societies by pursuing goals that include:

A

Politics,
Religion, and
Ideology.

(NKO) Joint Antiterrorism

53
Q

Force Protection (FP) is actions taken to prevent or mitigate hostile events against DOD personnel (including family members), resources, facilities, and critical information.

A

(NKO) Joint Antiterrorism

54
Q

Antiterrorism is defensive measures used to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist acts. It includes limited response and containment by local military and civilian forces.

A

(NKO) Joint Antiterrorism

55
Q

Conduct of naval personnel is explained in what article of the United States Navy Regulations?

A

A. Article 1165
B. Article 1110
C. Article 1179
D. Article 1131

Answer: B

56
Q

What term identifies a personal relationship between an officer and an enlisted member that is unduly familiar and does not respect differences in grade or rank?

A

Harassment
Standards
Fraternization
Ethics

Answer: Fraternization

57
Q

Conduct of naval personnel is explained in what article of the United States Navy Regulations?

Article 1179
Article 1131
Article 1165
Article 1110

A

Answer: Article 1110

58
Q

How many articles pertaining to Rules and Regulations of the Navy were approved by the Congress in November 1775?

33
11
44
22

A

Answer: 44

59
Q

A person who has be wronged by a superior may report the alleged offense. Which of the following aspects should NOT be included in such a report?

A. The possible motive for the alleged offense
B. The name of the superior against whom the accusation is made
C. The redress desired
D. The basis for the complaint

A

Answer : The redress desired

60
Q

Sexual harassment of naval personnel is explained in what article of the United States Navy Regulations?

Article 1148
Article 1110
Article 1124
Article 1166

A

Answer: Article 1166

61
Q

Who is responsible for making sure no unauthorized people are on boarding before proceeding to sea?

Executive officer
Command duty officer
Commanding officer
Chief Master at Arms

A

Answer: Commanding Officer

62
Q

Government transportation of alcoholic liquors for personal use ashore is authorized under certain circumstances
True
False

A

Answer: True

63
Q

An individual may provide a voluntary gift of nominal value to a superior under which of the following situations?

Illness
Marriage
Retirement
All of the Above

A

Answer: All of the Above

64
Q

What article of the United States Navy Regulations pertains to engaging in a trade or business?

Article 1131
Article 1124
Article 1112
Article 1165

A

Answer: Article 1112

September Exam 2013 (1 decks)

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