September 2013 Exam - Master at Arms

Question 0

What is LFA?

Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L

Answer 0

Lead federal agencies

Question 1

______________ provide operational guidance and establish fundamental policies and procedures governing the actions taken by DoD forces performing civil support missions(e.g., military assistance to civil authorities and military support for civilian law enforcement agencies) and routine service functions (including AT/FP duties) within the US territory (including US territorial waters).

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

Answer 1

Standing Rules for the Use of Force (SRUF)

Question 2

Who will operate will operate under the Use of Force Policy for warning shots and disabling fire as issued by the commandant?

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

Answer 2

DoD forces under USCG control, conducting both outside and within the territorial limits of the US.

Question 3

Inherent Right of Self-Defense:

Who always retains the inherent right and obligation to exercise unit self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile content?

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

Answer 3

Answer: Unit Commanders

Question 4

What is an imment threat?

Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L

Answer 4

The determinations of whether the danger of death or serious bodily harm is imminent.

Question 5

What could be used to describe an attack or other use of force against the United States, US Forces or other designated persons or property?

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

Answer 5

Hostile Act

Question 6

The Imminent threat of the use of force against the United States, US forces or o her designated persons or property can be define as what…..

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

Answer 6

Hostile Intent

Question 7

What are some examples of some assessets vital to national security?

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

Answer 7

Nuclear Weapons, nuclear command and control facilities, designated strategic operational assets, sensitive codes, or special access programs.

Question 8

Use of deadly force is to be used only when all lesser means have failed or cannot reasonably be employed. It is authorized under the following circumstances?

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

Answer 8

Inherent right of self-defense
Defense of others
Assets vital to national security
Inherently dangerous property
National critical infrastructure

Question 9

When directly related to the assigned mission, deadly force is authorized under the following circumstances….

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

Answer 9

1) serious offense against a person
2) escape
3) arrest or apprehension

Question 10

National Critical Infrastructure. For the purposes of DOD operations, defined as President-designated public utilities, or similar critical infrastructure, vital to public health or safety, the damage to which the President determines would create an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm.

(Refer to CJCSI.01B Enclosure L)

Answer 10

.

Question 11

How many hours per week should you use drug/explosive detector dogs for drug/explosive interdiction sweeps?

Answer 11

A minimum of five hours

Question 12

When 1-day training/4-day cycle is used, training days will consist of ____________ hours minimum training in obedience, patrol, and detector proficiency trials, to determine the MWDS proficiency level.

A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 12 hours

Answer 12

Answer: C. 8 hours

Question 13

No off leash training with explosives shall be conducted!

Answer 13

.

Question 14

What is the indicator called when the gun is fully loaded?

Answer 14

Extractor

Question 15

What are the three safety features?

Answer 15

Decocking safety lever, firing pin block, half cock safety notch, and the disconnector serves as an internal safety feature

Question 16

What are the thee major components of the m9?

Answer 16

The magazine assembly, the sliding barrel assembly, and the receiver assembly…

Question 17

What is article 94 of the UCMJ?

Answer 17

Mutiny and sedition

Question 18

What is article 104 of the UCMJ?

Answer 18

Aiding the enemy

Question 19

What is article 85 of the UCMJ?

Answer 19

Desertion

Question 20

What is article 86 of the UCMJ?

Answer 20

Absence without leave

Question 21

What is article 87 of the UCMJ?

Answer 21

Missing movement

Question 22

What is article 82 of the UCMJ?

Answer 22

Solicitation

Question 23

What is article 128 of the UCMJ?

Answer 23

Assault

Question 24

What is article 111 of the UCMJ?

Answer 24

Drunken or wreck-less operation of a vehicle, aircraft, or vessel.

Question 25

Persons subject 2 persons subject to the code 3 jurisdiction to try certain persons even though they have been separated from the service 7-14 apprehension and restraint 15 non judicial punishment (captain's mast) 77-134 punitive articles 137 that must be explained 138 complaints of wrongs.

Answer 25

.

Question 26

How many articles are in the code of conduct? A. Four B. Six C. Eight D. Ten

Answer 26

Answer: B

Question 27

What three sources contain the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy?

Answer 27

U.S. Navy Regulations, Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy, and UCMJ

Question 28

Inherent Right of Self-Defense Unit commanders always retain the inherent right and obligation to exercise unit self defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent. Unless otherwise directed by a unit commander as detailed below, service members may exercise individual self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent. When individuals are assigned and acting as part of a unit, individual self-defense should be considered a subset of unit self-defense. As such, unit commanders may limit individual self-defense by members of their unit. CJCSI 3121.01B

Answer 28

.

Question 29

Imminent Threat The determination of whether the danger of death or serious bodily is imminent.

Answer 29

.

Question 30

Hostile Act An ATTACK or other use of force against the United States, US forces or other designated persons or property. It also includes force used directly to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of US forces, including the recovery of US personnel or vital USG property.

Answer 30

.

Question 31

Hostile Intent The IMMINENT THREAT of the use of force against the United States, US forces or other designated persons or property.

Answer 31

.

Question 32

Assets vital to National Security Examples may include but are not limited to, nuclear weapons, nuclear command and control facilities, and designated restricted areas containing strategic operational assets, sensitive codes are special access programs.

Answer 32

.

Question 33

What are some examples are inherently dangerous property?

Answer 33

Portable missiles, rockets, arms, ammunitions, explosives, chemical agents, and special nuclear materials

Question 34

Set when a terrorist action has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.

Answer 34

FPCON DELTA (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 35

Set when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.

Answer 35

FPCON CHARLIE (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 36

Set when there is an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity.

Answer 36

FPCON BRAVO (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 37

FPCON ALPHA

Answer 37

Set for a general threat of possible terrorist activity, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable. (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 38

FPCON NORMAL

Answer 38

Set for a general threat. (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 39

Who determines whether the FPCON level is adequate for local conditions?

Answer 39

Installation Commander (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 40

Adherence to the __________ results in the proper allocation of security resources. (Select the answer that best completes the sentence.)

Answer 40

A: AT risk assessment B: Site-specific measures C: DoD standards D: RAM guidelines Answer: C (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 41

Which element of the AT plan considers the command's ability to deter terrorist incidents, employ countermeasures, and mitigate and recover from the effects of a terrorist incident?

Answer 41

A: Critical asset measures B: Risk management C: Planning D: Incident response Answer: B (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 42

Which document contains the DoD AT standards by which the AT program is measured during the AT Program Review?

Answer 42

DoD 2000.16 (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 43

Which of the following does NOT dictate which PPR tactics and techniques a Commander will employ?

Answer 43

A: Prior PPRs written by the command B: Current threat conditions C: Geography D: Laws Answer: A (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 44

A Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA) is an agreement that defines the legal position of a visiting military force deployed in the territory of a friendly state.

Answer 44

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 45

A _________________________ is an agreement that defines the legal position of a visiting military force deployed in the territory of a friendly state.

Answer 45

Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA) (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 46

A Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) is a document written between parties that defines general areas of conditional support. For example, if one party agrees to provide support, the other party can agree to provide the materials.

Answer 46

(NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 47

is a document written between parties that defines general areas of conditional support. For example, if one party agrees to provide support, the other party can agree to provide the materials.

Answer 47

Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 48

Which of the following is NOT a document used to establish support relationships between U.S. and friendly foreign forces?

Answer 48

A: SOFA B: MOA C: MOU D: ROE Answer: D (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 49

The inherent right of self-defense, which serves to empower the sentry, is a key principle of the __________ and __________.

Answer 49

A: Rules of Engagement (ROE) B: Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) C: Use of Force Continuum D: Rules on Use of Force (RUF) E: A & D Answer: E (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 50

Which of the following reports would be issued if Top Secret information were lost?

Answer 50

A: OPREP–3 NAVY BLUE SENTINEL B: OPREP–3 WHITE PINNACLE C: OPREP–3 PINNACLE D: OPREP–3 NAVY UNIT SITREP SENTINEL Answer: C (NKO) Antiterrorism Risk Management

Question 51

What is a Terrorist?

Answer 51

A terrorist is an individual who uses violence, terror, and intimidation to achieve a result. (NKO) Joint Antiterrorism

Question 52

Terrorism is the calculated use of violence or threat of violence to instill fear. It is intended to coerce or to intimidate governments or societies by pursuing goals that include:

Answer 52

Politics, Religion, and Ideology. (NKO) Joint Antiterrorism

Question 53

Force Protection (FP) is actions taken to prevent or mitigate hostile events against DOD personnel (including family members), resources, facilities, and critical information.

Answer 53

(NKO) Joint Antiterrorism

Question 54

Antiterrorism is defensive measures used to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist acts. It includes limited response and containment by local military and civilian forces.

Answer 54

(NKO) Joint Antiterrorism

Question 55

Conduct of naval personnel is explained in what article of the United States Navy Regulations?

Answer 55

A. Article 1165 B. Article 1110 C. Article 1179 D. Article 1131 Answer: B

Question 56

What term identifies a personal relationship between an officer and an enlisted member that is unduly familiar and does not respect differences in grade or rank?

Answer 56

Harassment Standards Fraternization Ethics Answer: Fraternization

Question 57

Conduct of naval personnel is explained in what article of the United States Navy Regulations? Article 1179 Article 1131 Article 1165 Article 1110

Answer 57

Answer: Article 1110

Question 58

How many articles pertaining to Rules and Regulations of the Navy were approved by the Congress in November 1775? 33 11 44 22

Answer 58

Answer: 44

Question 59

A person who has be wronged by a superior may report the alleged offense. Which of the following aspects should NOT be included in such a report? A. The possible motive for the alleged offense B. The name of the superior against whom the accusation is made C. The redress desired D. The basis for the complaint

Answer 59

Answer : The redress desired

Question 60

Sexual harassment of naval personnel is explained in what article of the United States Navy Regulations? Article 1148 Article 1110 Article 1124 Article 1166

Answer 60

Answer: Article 1166

Question 61

Who is responsible for making sure no unauthorized people are on boarding before proceeding to sea? Executive officer Command duty officer Commanding officer Chief Master at Arms

Answer 61

Answer: Commanding Officer

Question 62

Government transportation of alcoholic liquors for personal use ashore is authorized under certain circumstances True False

Answer 62

Answer: True

Question 63

An individual may provide a voluntary gift of nominal value to a superior under which of the following situations? Illness Marriage Retirement All of the Above

Answer 63

Answer: All of the Above

Question 64

What article of the United States Navy Regulations pertains to engaging in a trade or business? Article 1131 Article 1124 Article 1112 Article 1165

Answer 64

Answer: Article 1112