Sensory Flashcards

1
Q

What is acute pain?

A

The normal, predicted physiological response to an adverse chemical, thermal, or mechanical stimulus associated with surgery, trauma, and acute illness
Time-limited
Responsive to therapy

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2
Q

What is chronic pain?

A

A pain state which is persistent and in which the cause of the pain cannot always be removed or is difficult to treat
May be associated with a long term incurable or intractable medical condition or disease

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3
Q

What is nociceptive pain?

A

Arises from the stimulation of specific pain receptors. These receptors can respond to heat, cold, vibration, stretch and chemical stimuli
released from damaged cells

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4
Q

What is neuropathic pain?

A

Arises from within the peripheral and central nervous system. Specific receptors do not exist here, with pain generated by nerve cell injury

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5
Q

What is wind up?

A

Frequency dependent increase in excitability due to activity of c fibers

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6
Q

What can be causes of chronic pain?

A
Badly Managed Acute Pain 
Emotionally Sensitive Patient 
Poor Coping Skills 
Previous Bad Pain Experiences
Pain Goes on For Longer 
Surgical Complications 
Genetic Predisposition
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7
Q

What model is used to understand chronic pain?

A

Biopsychosocial model

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8
Q

Name some somatic nociceptive pain conditions

A

Lower back pain
Myofascial pain
Arthritis

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9
Q

Name some visceral nociceptive pain conditions

A

Pancreatitis
interstitial cystitis
endometriosis
Functional pain syndrome

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10
Q

Name some neuropathic pain conditions

A
Post-herpetic neuralgia (shingles)
Neuroma 
Radicular pain (nerve root irritation) 
CRPS  - complex regional pain syndrome 
Post-amputation pain
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11
Q

Describe malignant pain

A
80% of cancer patients suffer from pain 
Psychological component substantial 
Multiple etiologies 
Iatrogenic – CT, RT 
Other psychosocial factors
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12
Q

What are non pharmacological management options for pain?

A

Exercise

Physiotherapy

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13
Q

What is complementary therapy for pain?

A

Acupuncture

TENS - transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation

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14
Q

Describe the WHO analgesia ladder

A

Mild to moderate pain - non opioids, NSAIDs, aspirin, paracetamol
Moderate to severe pain - mild opioids eg codeine with or without non opioids
Severe pain - strong opioids eg morphine with or without non opioids

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15
Q

What drugs can act as adjuncts to treating pain?

A

Anticonvulsants - gabapentin, pregabalin
Antidepressants - amytryptaline
Lidocaine
Baclofen, benzodiazepines

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16
Q

What is the gold standard for cancer pain management?

A

Opioids

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17
Q

Describe why opioids should be used with caution to treat chronic pain

A

Can do more harm than good
Addictive properties
Side effects - constipation etc
Opioid induced hyperalgesia from high dose chronic use
Should be used only for functional rehabilitation

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18
Q

What invasive procedures can be used in chronic pain?

A

Injections: needle techniques to reduce pain in muscle, tendons and joints to reduce inflammation around nerves e.g. trigger point injections, joint injections, acupuncture, epidural steroids
Ablative procedures:permanently interrupt nervous system activity. Chemical: alcohol, phenol Physical: radiofrequency denervation, cryoneurolysis. Used mainly in terminal cancer patients
Implants: continuous catheter techniques, peripheral nerve stimulators
neuromodulations e.g. intrathecal drug delivery, spinal cord stimulators
Nerve blocks: Neuroaxial (epidural, intrathecal), Axial (paravertebral, nerve roots), Peripheral (intercostal, suprascapular, ilioinguinal, upper and lower extremity blocks) Autonomic: stellate ganglion, lumbar sympathetic chain

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19
Q

What types of sensory receptor exist?

A

Free nerve endings - pain and temp
Pacinian corpuscles - mechanoreceptors, deep pressure
Meissner corpuscles - discriminative touch
Muscle spindles - muscle stretch
Merkel cells and disk - light touch
Ruffini ending - touch

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20
Q

What type of adaptation does the discriminative touch modality undergo?

A

Fast adaptation

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21
Q

What is located in the post central gyrus?

A

Primary sensory cortex

Receives contralateral sensory input from the body (inc taste)

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22
Q

What is located in the superior parietal lobule?

A

Integration of sensory inputs, sensory memory, perception of contralateral self & world

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23
Q

What is the internal capsule?

A

Dense collection of sensory and motor tracts passing to/from the cortex

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24
Q

What is the corona radiata?

A

White matter sheet that continues ventrally as the internal capsule and dorsally as the semioval center. Contains both descending and ascending axons that carry nearly all of the neural traffic from and to the cerebral cortex
Associated with the corticospinal tract, the corticopontine tract, and the corticobulbar tract

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25
Describe the structure of the internal capsule
Anterior limb – frontopontine, frontothalamic Genu - bend Posterior Retrolenticular Head, arm, leg, sensory, vision and hearing arranged somatotopically
26
How many neurons are involved from sensation up to the cortex?
3 1st order - Ascend ipsilaterally to nuclei in the medulla 2nd order - Decussate and ascendto thalamus via a lemniscus 3rd order - Ascend to cortex via internal capsule
27
How many Rexed lamina are there?
10
28
What is a funiculi? And how many are there in the spinal cord?
``` Bundles of more than 1 tract 3 Dorsal Lateral Ventral ```
29
What sensory modalities are carried in the dorsal funiculus?
Fine touch and proprioception from lower body
30
What modality tracts are carried in the lateral funiculus?
Motor supply to ipsilateral body
31
What sensory modalities are carried in the ventral funiculus?
Pain and temperature
32
What sensory modalities are carried by the dorsal column tracts?
Discriminative touch, vibration & conscious proprioception
33
What are the two parts of the dorsal column tracts?
Fasciculus cuneatus - above ~T6 | Fasciculus gracilis - below ~T6
34
Describe the path that the dorsal columns follow
1st order neurons pass into dorsal cord and ascends ipsilaterally to lower medulla where they synapse with 2nd order neuron at nucleus cuneatus or gracilis 2nd order neurons decussate and ascend to ventral posterior nucleus of thalamus & synapse with 3rd order neurons 3rd order neurons travel to primary sensory cortex
35
What sensory dysfunction can tertiary syphilis result in?
Tabes dorsalis | Destruction of dorsal columns
36
What does dorsal column damage cause?
Loss of fine touch, vibration and conscious proprioception below level of lesion ispilateral in cord damage Sensory ataxia – leads to positive Romberg sign (requires vision to stand steady) & stamping gait Pseudoathetosis – writhing of digits, hands and feet
37
What sensory modalities are carried by the spinothalamic tract?
Pain, temperature and simple tactile sensation
38
Describe the pathway of the spinothalamic tract
1st order neurons ascend 1-2 vertebral level in dorsal grey matter before synapsing with 2nd order neurons which decussate via the anterior white commissure 2nd order neurons ascend spinothalamic tract to ventral posterior lateral nucleus of thalamus via spinal lemniscus and synapse with 3rd order neurons 3rd order neurons travel to primary sensory cortex
39
What is the trigeminal lemniscus?
Carries pain and temperature sensation from to the ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus
40
What disorder can lead to disruption of the spinothalamic tract?
Syringomyelia - cavitation/expansion of central canal in cervical region Pain and temperature sensation lost in arms and top of chest
41
What is sacral sparing?
An expanding ventral grey matter tumour can knock out all contralateral pain & temperature sensation except sacral region due to somatotopic organisation of spinothalamic tract
42
What sensory modalities are carried in the spinocerebellar tract?
Unconscious proprioception to the ipsilateral cerebellum Dorsal spinocerebellar tract - Muscle spindles, few Golgi tendon organs Ventral spinocerebellar tract - Golgi tendon organs
43
Describe the pathway followed by the dorsal spinocerebellar tracts
Lower limb - Clarke’s dorsal nucleus, Sits between C8-L3 1st & 2nd order dorsal spinocerebellar neurons synapse here! Damaged in Freidrich’s ataxia. 2nd order neuron ascends ipsilaterally and passes directly to cerebellum Upper limb - muscle spindle information passes through the cuneocerebellar tract (runs with fasciculus cuneatus). 1st order neuron ascends to medulla then synapses with 2nd order which goes to cerebellum
44
Describe the pathway followed by the ventral spinocerebellar tracts
Lower limb - 1st order neuron synapses with 2nd order which then decussates and ascends contralaterally before decussating again and entering cerebellum Upper limb - Golgi tendon information passes through the rostral spinocerebellar tract. 1st order neurons synapse with second order which then enter the cerebellum ipsilateral
45
What information is carried by the ventral spinocerebellar tract?
Stretch of the tendon at the muscle tendon interface of the lower limb
46
What do pure lesions of the spinocerebellar tract cause?
Ataxia / malcoordination of motor action Wide-based gait Symptoms normally masked by motor weakness/paralysis
47
Describe the route of cranial nerve sensory nuclei
Send neurons along a route similar to sensory neurons of the body Most sensory fibres decussate on route to contralateral thalamus Fibres run from thalamus to primary sensory cortex Most nociception from CN VII, IX, X passes via CN V’s sensory nucleus
48
Describe where trigeminal touch sensation fibres pass
contralateral thalamus via the trigeminal lemniscus 1st order trigeminal nerve sensory neurons synapse in CN V nucleus 2nd order neurons ascend in trigeminal lemniscus to ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus 3rd order neurons pass to primary sensory cortex
49
What sensory losses would result from a brainstem lesion?
Ipsilateral facial | Contralateral body
50
What are the thalami?
organised collection of nuclei of sensory, visual, auditory and motor-associated functions
51
Where do muscle spindle sensory fibres run?
Dorsal column & spinocerebellar pathways
52
Which afferent neurons carry sensation from muscle spindles?
1a afferents
53
What is nociceptive pain sensed by?
Free ending on C- and Aδ- fibres
54
Describe the gate control theory of pain
Input from pain fibres activates 2nd order cells and inhibit local interneurons in substantia gelatinosa Pain signal travels onwards Mechanical stimulation activates inhibitory interneurons Reduces pain transmission by inhibiting 2nd order cells Descending control can also increase activity of these interneurons
55
Where are the main output to descending tracts from higher pain centres?
Hypothalamus, periaqueductal gray and brainstem nuclei Descending inhibition travels to ANS and spinal lamina in dorsolateral funiculus where 5HT and NA dominant
56
What drugs are used to treat neuropathic pain?
Tricyclic antidepressants and anti epileptic drugs Gabapentin+Amitriptyline in combo Carbemazepine alone - never in combo
57
How many subclasses of NSAIDs are there?
6
58
Describe the mechanism of action of NSAIDs as painkillers
Cyclooxygenases break down arachidonic acid to give prostaglandins NSAIDs Block production of prostaglandins by inhibiting COX enzymes Three forms of COX: COX 1 – Normal cell function, COX 2 - Inflammation, COX 3 - Fever
59
How do prostaglandins lead to increased pain?
Act on prostaglandin receptor which is GPCR which leads to opening of voltage gated Na channels and therefore increased depolarisation of nociceptors
60
What are clinical uses of NSAIDs?
``` Anti-inflammation Anti-pyretic Analgesic Anti-coagulant May delay healing, not used post operatively, post partum ```
61
Describe some commonly used NSAIDs
Aspirin (CV drug) Ibuprofen (weak action) Naproxen (strong, low side-effects) Diclofenac (similar to Naproxen, CV problems) Indomethacin (strong, high side effects) COX-2 Inhibitors: Celecoxib, Etoricoxib, Parecoxib (similar to naproxen, lower GI effects) Paracetamol - antipyretic as COX 3i
62
List some common side effects of NSAIDs
GI problems: vomitting, nausea, diarrhoea, bleeding/ulceration CV incidents: thrombosis Headache: drug induced headache Dizziness, Insomnia, Nervousness, Depression, Vertigo, Tinnitus: sign of toxic state, reduce dose quickly Photosensitivity, Renal Impairment, Hypertension Hypersensitivity: skin rashes and eruptions, angioedema, bronchospasm Reye's syndrome in under 16s - fatty deposits in liver and brain
63
Which drugs can interact with NSAIDs?
Avoid concomitant use of oral NSAIDs Antidepressants: increased risk of bleeding with SSRIs (e.g. fluoxetine, paroxetine) and venlafaxine Increased risk of nephrotoxicity with ACE inhibitors and diuretics and also with drugs used for arthritic/skin conditions, e.g. ciclosporin NSAID can enhance the anti-coagulant effects of many drugs used for CV disorders (e.g. warfarins, heparins and can antagonise the hypotensive effects, e.g when used with alpha and beta-blockers and nitrates
64
What is salicylism?
Salicylate toxicity may occur with high dose acute or chronic ingestion of NSAIDs (1% mortalilty) Severe toxicity: Auditory (ototoxicity, tinnitus, deafness) Pulmonary (apnoea, aspiration pneumonitis, pulmonary oedema, alkylosis, respiratory arrest) Cardiovascular (tachycardia,hypotension, asystole, dysrhythmias) CNS (depression, seizure, encephalopathy, delirium, hallucinations) GI (pancreatitis, hepatitis (rare in acute cases)) Renal Failure Coma Chronic intoxication where plasma levels > 300mg/kg: Fluid replacement, Haemodialysis, Activated charcoal, Lorazepam/diazepam i.v. for seizures
65
What are the 4 main groups of synthetic derivatives of opioids?
``` Phenylpiperidine series (e.g. pethidine) Methadone series (e.g. dextropropoxyphene) Benzomorphan series (e.g. cyclazocine) Thebaine derivatives (e.g. buprenorphine) ```
66
What are pure agonist opioids?
Full agonist activity, may have strong (e.g. morphine, diamorphine, tramadol) or weak activity (e.g. codeine, dihydrocodeine)
67
What are partial opioid agonists?
Can be used for addiction rehabilitation | e.g. nalorphine, pentazocine, buprenorphine
68
What are opioid antagonists?
Used in overdose | e.g.naloxone, naltrexone
69
What are clinical uses of opioids?
Analgesia – chronic and acute Anaesthesia (Alfentanil, Fentanil, Remifentanil) Antitussive (Phlocodine, Dextromethorphan) Antidiarrhoeal (codeine, loperamide) Coronary Care (pre-surgical, surgical and post) Cancer Care (Morphine, Diamorphine, Oxycodone)
70
Where are sites of opioid action?
Peri aqueductal gray Nucleus Raphe Paragigantocellularis in medulla Dorsal horn Periphery
71
Describe the mechanism for opioid drugs
Decrease neuronal transmission by: Decreasing opening of voltage gated calcium channels Decreasing Ca2+ release from intracellular stores Increasing K+ outflow via KATP and KIR channels Decreasing exocytosis
72
Describe opioid metabolism
Metabolism occurs primarily in liver, possibly in kidney and plasma Primarily metabolised to morphine and glucoronide metabolites (M6G and M3G) Other metabolites include ethereal sulphates and normorphines Metabolites highly water soluble and excreted in urine (~90% of administered dose) - easy drug test
73
What are some opioid drug half lives?
``` Morphine - 3-4 hrs Diamorphine - converted to morphine Methadone - over 24 hrs Codeine - converted to morphine Pethidine - 2-4 hrs Fentanyl - 1-2 hrs Buprenorphine - 12 hrs Naloxone 1-2 hrs Naltrexone - 10 hrs ```
74
What are advantages and disadvantages of methods of opioid administration?
IV: Rapid, Unstable Levels IM: Control, Pain/irritation Rectal: less nausea and vomiting, slow Oral: Easy, Slow, more GI problems Sublingual: Rapid, less OD, more nausea and vomiting Intrathecal/Epidural: Rapid, less tolerance, more side effects Patient controlled administration: Reduced use, Catheter Patches: Stability, Irritation
75
What are side effects of opioid drug use?
``` Respiratory depression Conscious depression/mood alterations Miosis Reduced gastric motility Nausea and vomiting Smooth muscle spasm Anaphylaxis Psychiatric changes (e.g. Pentazocine, Tramadol - hallucinations) Tolerance and dependancy – addiction/withdrawal ```
76
What are indicators of opioid overdose?
Pupillary constriction Respiratory depression Coma (GCS<7)
77
Describe the management of opioid overdose
Reversed by: Naloxone (i.v., short lasting, ~2-4 hrs), Naltrexone (i.v., longer lasting, ~10 hrs) If conscious and within 1 hr of OD give activated charcoal and 0.8-2mg naloxone every 2-3 min (≤10mg) for respiratory depression Coma cocktail: naloxone, O2, glucose and thiamine
78
What are the different categories of headaches?
Tension – NSAIDs, diary Sinus – decongestant, antihistamine, steroid Migraine – 3 steps, avoid opioids, NSAIDs +/- antiemetic, Rectal NSAIDs + antiemetic, Anti-migraine drugs – triptans: sumatriptan, naratriptan Prophylaxis – β-blockers, amitriptyline Cluster – sympathetic involvement, Attacks – sumatriptan, Prophylaxis - verapamil. Around orbit, unilateral, crying and runny nose, autonomic association Medication overuse headache Worst ever headache – sub arachnoid haemorrhage – emergency!
79
What is the cribriform plate?
CN I fibres pass from olfactory mucosa to olfactory bulb via cribriform plate
80
What can be causes of unilateral anosmia?
Meningioma | Anterior cranial fossa tumour
81
Where does the Olfactory tract carries sensory neurons to?
Orbital and piriform cortexes
82
Where do Olfactory pathways link to?
Brainstem Limbic system Hypothalamus
83
What can cause a loss of taste or smell?
``` Viral infection Parkinsons (early sign) Alzheimers (early sign) Meningioma (olfactory groove) Anterior cranial fossa fracture ```
84
What are 3 types of tongue papilla?
Fungiform Filiform - anterior 2/3, no taste buds Vallate
85
Which cranial nerve carries taste from anterior 2/3 tongue? And which from posterior 1/3 tongue?
CN VII anterior | CN IX posterior
86
Describe the pathway of the taste sensation from the anterior tongue
Receives taste innervation from CNVII Taste neurons from anterior tongue (2/3rds) run initially with CN V3 then pass into chorda tympani which travels through middle ear and into CN VII to the nucleus solitarius in brainstem
87
What is the region of greatest visual acuity in the eye?
Fovea centralis
88
What are the 3 layers of the eye?
Retina Choroid - vascular Sclera - white
89
Where is the fovea?
In the centre of the macula densa, yellow spot in eye
90
Where is the blind spot?
Optic papilla
91
Where does the left part of the visual field enter the eye?
Right part of both retinas
92
What are retinal fields?
Region of the retina that is named according to its position relative to the nose or temporal region
93
What information is carried in the optic chiasma?
Temporal visual field information to contralateral cortex
94
Where does the stalk of optic radiation run?
Retrolenticular internal capsule
95
What is Meyers loop?
Optic radiation Sits inferiorly in temporal lobe & contains upper contralateral visual field Project to gyri around calcarine sulcus of occipital lobe
96
Where does the macula project to? And why might it be spared when there is a primary visual cortex lesion?
Occipital pole | Receives different blood supply
97
What do vascular lesions of the primary visual cortex cause?
Homonymous hemianopia | Blindness or defective vision in right or left halves of visual fields in both eyes
98
How do you measure visual acuity?
Snellen chart, count digits, movement, light perception
99
How do you assess someone's visual fields?
Confrontation with patient staring directly ahead Examiner compares to their own visual field Use large red coloured pin Blind spot mapped (scotoma)
100
How do you perform fundoscopy?
Examine cornea and lens first Patient gazes into distance Disc is a shallow cup with clear margins Disc = yellow, Fundus = red
101
What can cause a lack of vision in bilateral temporal visual fields?
Pituitary adenoma | Disrupts optic chiasma
102
Where are the vestibular and cochlea apparatus housed?
Petrous temporal bone within the bony labyrinth
103
What fluid is in and around the cochlea?
Surrounded by Perilymph | Filled with Endolymph
104
Which part of the cochlea is the sensory part for detecting sound?
Organ of corti
105
Where are vibrations transmitted in the cochlea?
Transmitted from the oval window to the perilymph of cochlea | Then via the vestibular membrane into endolymph
106
What do cell bodies of the cochlea nerve form? And where do these project to?
Spiral ganglion | Project to the cochlea nucleus in the pons/medulla
107
Where are high and low frequency sounds detected in the cochlea?
Proximal cochlea - membrane narrow and stiff | Distal cochlea - membrane wide and flexy
108
How is auditory information distributed in the cortex?
``` Bilaterally Via trapezoid body which decussates Superior olivary nucleus Inferior colliculus Medial geniculate body of thalamus To primary auditory cortex ```
109
What does loss of stereo-placement of sound indicate?
Cortical or thalamic problems
110
What can cause tinnitus?
Méniere’s Disease, URTI or following exposure to loud sounds Tensor tympani / stapedius myoclonus can cause tinnitus
111
Describe the dynamic and static parts of the vestibular system
Dynamic Part - Formed from semicircular canals & crista Acts mainly on eye movements via medial-longitudinal fasciculus Static Part - Formed from maculae (utricular &saccular) Acts via vestibulospinal pathway Excite extensor muscles to keep you upright
112
What are the maculae?
Maculae provide information relating to head position relative to trunk & sense linear acceleration e.g. walking, driving, falling Utriclar macula - Detect horizontal acceleration (e.g. driving) Saccular macula - Detect vertical acceleration (e.g. falling) Active with head in flexion or extension Extensor activation in a fall (strong extensor thrust) Active with head held to side
113
Where are vestibular nuclei?
Ponto-medullary part of the brainstem Modulated by cerebellum Part of vestibulospinal tract
114
What 3 inputs do we use for balance?
Vestibular Visual Proprioceptive
115
What is Rombergs test and sign?
We remain stable if we have 2 out of 3 inputs for balance If we lose 2 inputs we become unstable Romberg’s test relies on this: Patient closes eyes, Patient sways/falls in positive test, Patient remains steady in a negative test
116
What might be wrong in a Romberg positive patient?
Sensory ataxia Tabes dorsalis - dorsal column damage Vestibular system damage
117
How can you assess visual acuity?
Snellen chart compares what we see at 6m (20ft) Wear glasses/contacts Under 40s should be at least 6/6 (20/20ft) Acuity of <6/9 needs investigation in elderly In situations of poor acuity ask patient to count digits, see movement, perceive light
118
What things can reduce visual acuity?
Optic neuritis (infection spread from ethmoid sinus) Refractive lens error Parasympathetic
119
How can you assess a patients visual fields?
Confrontation with patient staring directly ahead Arms length Cover one eye - compare Right-Left & Left-Right Examiner compares to their own visual field Use large red coloured pin Blind spot mapped & drawn from patient’s perspective
120
What could cause bi nasal hemianopia?
Internal carotid aneurysms
121
What could cause bi temporal Hemianopia?
Pituitary adenoma
122
What could cause Left Homonymous Hemianopia?
Right sided lesion - post chiasmic
123
What can cause left upper quadrantopia?
Right temporal lobe tumour/infarct
124
What can cause left lower quadrantopia?
Right parietal lobe tumour/infarct
125
What can cause Bilateral central scotoma?
Occipital pole of visual cortex Falls/ impact and contusion
126
What will you see on fundoscopy if papilloedema is present?
Raised disc Blurred hyperaemic disc margins Engorged vessels
127
Which nuclei are responsible for the consensual light reflex?
Pretectal nucleus | Edinger Westphal nucleus
128
Where is the ciliary ganglion and what does it do?
Posterior to the eye and acts on the pupil and ciliary body
129
What is an Argyll Robertson (Prostitutes) pupil?
No pupillary light reflex but accommodation reflex/response OK Cause: Neuro (3°) syphilis Damage to pre tectal nuclei due to tabes dorsalis
130
What does damage to the Edinger-Westphal nuclei result in?
No direct or consensual reflex on damaged side Pupil dilated and unreactive Cause: Vascular/tumour/brainstem
131
What can CN III compression/vascular lesion result in?
Loss of direct and consensual reflex Compression = loss of all CNIII functions Vascular lesion = sparing of pupillary functions as parasymp fibers in outer part of nerve and can get alternate blood supply
132
What can CN III, IV & VI lesions lead to?
Altered resting position of eye Diplopia Compensatory head movements
133
What does Horizontal diplopia indicate?
Medial or lateral rectus issues
134
What does Vertical diplopia indicate?
Issues with superior/inferior oblique or rectus
135
What does CN III supply?
x4 muscles that move the eye x1 that opens eyelid sphincter pupillae and ciliary body
136
What can a CNIII nerve lesion produce?
Complete ptosis Divergent squint (down and out position of affected eye) Horizontal and vertical diplopia Dilated pupil that’s unreactive to direct or consensual light Consensual pupil reflex intact in contralateral eye
137
Describe the pathway of CN III
Originates in midbrain, exits via interpeducular fossa, passes through cavernous sinus & superior orbital fissure
138
What can a CN IV lesion produce?
Upward deviation and extorsion of the eye Torsional diplopia Vertical diplopia: worse when descending stairs / reading paper Tilt head away from lesion to help prevent diplopia (counteracts extorsion produced by inferior oblique)
139
Describe the pathway of the trochlear nerve
Originates in midbrain, exits dorsal surface, decussates & passes through cavernous sinus & superior orbital fissure
140
What will result from CN VI damage?
No lateral movement of the eye Eye rests in adducted position, convergent squint Horizontal diplopia Diplopia worse when looking toward the affected side
141
Describe the pathway of the abducens nerve
Originates at pontomedullary junction, passes across base of skull and turns angle to enter the cavernous sinus then passes through superior orbital fissure
142
When is the abducens nerve at risk of damage?
``` Raised ICP (compression as it turns into cavernous sinus) Internal carotid aneurysm in cavernous sinus ```
143
What results from lesions of the MLF?
Internuclear opthalmoplegia | Cuts interneuron connections between CNVI and CNIII
144
What is Hypometria (undershoot) a sign of?
cerebellar problems, Parkinson’s, Huntingtons
145
What is a repetitive eye movement with a fast and slow phase?
Jerk nystagmus | described according to the fast phase
146
Which side is the problem with a right nystagmus?
Left sided problem
147
Where is the Trigeminal ganglion?
Petrous temporal bone
148
Which cranial nerves sit in the cavernous sinus?
III, IV, VI, Va, Vb | Vc passes through foramen ovale in infra temporal fossa
149
How can you test the trigeminal nerve sensory branches?
Test all 3 divisions (ophthalmic, maxillary, Mandibular) neurotip (sharp or dull), cotton wool Look at anterior tongue – bite marks, ulceration Look at eye for ulceration Corneal reflex (CNVa afferent, CN VII efferent) Numbness in one division suggests pathology after CN V ganglion Combined CNVa & CNVb issues indicate cavernous sinus / superiororbital fissure problem
150
What is Rogers sign?
Numb chin | Caused by inferior alveolar nerve compression
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How can you test the trigeminal nerve motor branch?
Bite down on tongue depressors look at tooth mark impression Clench teeth – feel masseter & temporalis Jaw jerk exaggerated in UMN lesions Open mandible - deviates toward weak side due to opening action of medial pterygoid muscle
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Describe the pathway of the facial nerve
Exits the lateral pontomedullary junction and exits the skull via the internal acoustic meatus with CN VIII Passes through the facial canal running close to IAM middle ear –middle ear infection could affect Exits skull via stylomastoid foramen - risk of compression in baby during forcep delivery Enters parotid, forms plexus and gives off 5 main branches: Temporal, Zygomatic, Buccal, Marginal mandibular, Cervical
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What branches are given off the facial nerve in the facial canal?
Stapedius Greater petrosal Chorda tympani
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How can you test the facial nerve?
Look for facial asymmetry Test muscle power L-R (resist opening eyes & mouth, show teeth) Check ear for vesicles (Ramsay-Hunt) & parotid issues Stapedius affected = complains of hyperacusis Taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue (not normally tested) Tears, nasal mucous and saliva (excluding parotid) Upper motor neurone lesions spare forehead LMN lesion causes full ipsilateral palsy
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Describe the path of the vestibulocochlear nerve
Exits the lateral pontomedullary junction, exits the skull via the internal acoustic meatus with CN VII and passes to the cochlea and vestibular apparatus
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How can you test the cochlear component of the vestibulocochlear nerve?
Inspect ear & EAM: Blood, Blockage, Polyp, Vesicles, Infection, Secretions Test hearing in both ears (whispering 68 & 100) Hearing tests use a 256 Hz tuning fork - Rinne - Tuning fork on mastoid till sound stops then hold in the air by the EAM Air conduction better than bone conduction Conduction deafness leads to no note at EAM (Rinne-negative) Weber - Tuning fork on forehead ask where patient hears the sound/vibrating & if it is louder on one side (lateralises). Normally there is no lateralisation. Conduction deafness: Sound loudest in affected ear Sensorineural deafness: Sound loudest in normal ear
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How can you test the vestibular nerve?
Tested if patient complains of vertigo Hallpike manoeuvre: Start with sitting patient, Hold head between 2 hands, Get patient to lie back to 30° below horizontal, Examiner rotates head by 30° with eyes open, Positive test produces vertigo and rotatory nystagmus toward affected side. Benign paroxysmal positioning vertigo results in no repetition of test result for 10 min. Brainstem lesions have no latent period
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What functions are controlled by the glossopharyngeal nerve?
Sensation from the pharynx, posterior 1/3 of tongue, pharyngotympanic tube & middle ear Sensation from the carotid body and sinus Autonomic to parotid gland Motor to stylopharyngeus
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What does the motor branch of the vagus supply?
Supplies pharyngeal constrictors, palatopharyngeus, salpingopharyngeus, palatoglossus, levator veli palatini, all intrinsic muscles of larynx, cricothyroid & upper oesophagus
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How can you test cranial nerves IX and X?
Inspect the soft palate and oropharynx for asymmetry Ask patient to phonate – palate & uvula pulled away from weak side Touch pharynx to elicit gag reflex Sensation but no contraction = CN X lesion Assess character of voice Assess swallowing (if appropriate)
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Damage to which nerves can lead to soft palate paralysis?
CN Vc - tensor veli palitini CN X - levator veli palitini Palate will be pulled away from the weak side
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What does the spinal part of CN XI supply?
Motor supply to trapezius & sternocleidomastoid
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How can you test the spinal part of cranial nerve XI?
Shrug shoulders Axial rotation of neck & feel sternocleidomastoid SCM weakness can lead to head turned to weak side at rest
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What does the Hypoglossal nerve supply?
Supplies all somatic muscle of the tongue - except palatoglossus
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How can you test the Hypoglossal nerve?
Protrude tongue – deviates to weak side Look for wasting & fasciculation Speed of left-right wiggling Only LMN lesions lead to unilateral weakness
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What 3 things occur during the accommodation reflex?
Vergence Pupillary constriction Lens fattening
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Describe the process of lens fattening
Ciliary body contraction relaxes suspensory ligaments enabling the lens to recoil thus making it fatter
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Describe the pathway of the accommodation reflex that leads to medial vergence of the eyes
Retina to primary visual cortex | To frontal eye field to CN III nucleus to medial rectus muscles
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Describe pathway that leads to pupillary constriction and lens fattening in the accommodation reflex
Retina to primary visual cortex To frontal eye field to Edinger Westphal nucleus To ciliary ganglion to ciliary body and sphincter pupillae Ciliary body causes lens fattening Sphincter pupillae causes pupillary constriction
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What are the 3 muscles that control the eyelid and what is their supply?
Orbicularis oculi = closes (CN VII) Levator palpebrae superioris = opens (CN III) Superior tarsal muscle (smooth muscle) = opens (Sympathetic)
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What are the 3 axis that the eye can rotate around?
Transverse - look left or right Sagittal - look up or down Coronal - torsion, twist
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In what 3 ways can the eyes perform tracking movements?
Track target = Target moving Stabilise target = You are moving target is not Scan target to target = Saccade (fast movement)
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What areas of the brain contribute to control of eye movements?
Vestibular nuclei & parapontine reticular formation Frontal eye field Saccade centres (several locations) Visual association areas
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What is the medial longitudinal fasciculus?
Neuronal tract that enables conjugate lateral gaze Connects CNIII, IV and VI with vestibular nuclei, cerebellum & neck muscle lower motor neurons CN VI nucleus wired up to contralateral CNIII nucleus Involved in lateral gaze Under automatic & voluntary control
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What can result from lesions to the medial longitudinal fasciculus?
Inter nuclear opthalmoplegia Lose conjugate eye activity - medial and lateral rectus don't work together Able to converge during accommodation as this involves a different pathway
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Describe the process that brings about voluntary saccades
R Frontal eye field connects to contra L parapontine reticular formation This connects to L VI nucleus which connects to contra R III nucleus via MLF R frontal eye field has direct connection to R III nucleus Overall response is look left
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When head is rotating axially in a given direction what makes both eyes look to the opposite side?
Vestibulo occular reflex Lateral semicircular canals on same side as the direction the head is moving input to contra VI nucleus and then ipsi III nucleus
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What 3 things can make you look in the opposite direction? | What happens if any of these are damaged?
Vestibular nucleus Frontal eye field Lateral semicircular canal Eyes drift toward the damaged side if damaged
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What is the cold caloric test?
Induce nystagmus & test brainstem function (Cold water cools fluid in lateral SCC causing it to move) Eyes slowly looking toward cold water side Fast correction to midline Nystagmus will be away from side with cold water
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What is pain?
An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage