Senior Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cumulative screw depth to sacral width in SH fractures/separations

A

> 60%- two are stronger than a single of some or larger diameter, no significant strength given by adjunctive pin

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2
Q

Describe oral blood supply

A

Hard palate- major palatine; soft palate- minor palatine; face- infraorbital

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3
Q

Difference between Type I and II HH

A

I- sliding (cardia into diaphragm), II- paraesophageal (fundus in diaphragm)

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4
Q

Most common HH type, breed predelection

A

Type I (sharpeis)

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5
Q

How do you access esophageal FB at cardia

A

R side approach, 5th IC

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6
Q

Approach for esoph without need for ventilator

A

Cervical-ventral midline

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7
Q

Anterior and posterior thoracic approach- esophagus

A

Anterior 4th IC, posterior 9th IC

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8
Q

Ddx cricopharyngeal achalasia

A

rabies, megaesophagus, PRAA

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9
Q

Approach cat PRAA

A

L- 4th IC

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10
Q

What evidence will show perforation of the esoph

A

Air in mediastinum- NPO 3-5 d

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11
Q

Describe rad finding of vascular ring anomaly

A

obstruction and dye pooling cranial to heart

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12
Q

Describe diaphyseal femoral fracture approach

A

Lateral approach- incise fascia lata cranial to biceps femoris, extend cranially to tensor fasciae lata, retract vastus lateralis and biceps

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13
Q

Which landmark in the femur can help orient rotational alignment

A

Insertion of Adductor magnus (below biceps)

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14
Q

Diaphys femur Fx- pin placement

A

Normograde (craniolateral aspect of trochanteric fossa)

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15
Q

When is limb shortening not an issue for distal femoral fractures

A

> 4m

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16
Q

Which Fx should you consider pathologic a ddx

A

diaphyseal humeral

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17
Q

Tx calcaneal fx

A

Plate

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18
Q

Repair dicondylar humeral fracture

A

triceps tenotomy > olecranon osteotomy (last resort) lag condyle, bilateral plate

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19
Q

What should unicondylar humeral fx have on ddx

A

IOHC- incompletely ossified humeral condyle

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20
Q

Fixation: R/U diaphyseal

A

Type Ib ex fix, cranio lateral and cranio medial

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21
Q

Best radial fixation

A

Plate- NEVER IM pin

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22
Q

Where should you intubate in jaw fx

A

cranial to hyoid apparatus

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23
Q

Which way does stomach move in GDV

A

Pylorus moves ventral and left

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24
Q

Best approach to gastropexy

A

incisional

25
Q

What suture pattern should be used in enterotomy with pre-existing sepsis/malnutrition

A

Cushing/connell

26
Q

Where to linear FBs cut

A

Mesenteric side- where blood is

27
Q

Most common osteomyelitis pathogen

A

Staph

28
Q

What test and result does excessive pronation show

A

Campbells test- medial instability

29
Q

Increased ADduction in extended stifle

A

Lateral collateral ligament instability

30
Q

Positive drawer in flex but not extend

A

partial ccl tear (craniomedial CCL band)

31
Q

Better Sx hip candidate

A

Ortolani with low abduction angle

32
Q

What hip lux is most common

A

Craniodorsal

33
Q

Thumb test result- luxed

A

thumb remains in hip notch

34
Q

DJD synovial fluid cell

A

Mononuclear

35
Q

What kind of process is DJD

A

Secondary

36
Q

Which omegas in DJD

A

Low 6:3 ratio (high omega 3s)

37
Q

Pelvic diaphragm limits

A

Medial boundary- external anal sphincter; medial mm: levator ani; lateral mm: coccygeus; ventral: internal obturator

38
Q

Most common cat splenic tumor

A

MCT

39
Q

What supplies blood to liver

A

70% from portal vein

40
Q

Stellate “kiwi” sign on US

A

Mucocele

41
Q

Size recommendation for local flaps

A

L:W <1.5x

42
Q

Three classifications of flaps

A

blood supply (vasc/non), location (local/distant), composition (cutaneous, composite)

43
Q

What type and specific flap should be used to cover hind legs (and to what extent)

A

Caudal epigastric axial pattern flap (mid tibia dog 4 glands, hock cat 3 glands)

44
Q

What type and specific flap should be used to cover shoulder, axilla, cranial thorax

A

Thoracodorsal flap (to mid ante- dog; carpus- cat)

45
Q

Anatomic landmarks of thoracodorsal flap

A

Dorsal: midline to lateri dolente; Cr/Ca: scap spine, scap border; ventral: acromion

46
Q

Type of graft with higher survival rate

A

partial thickness

47
Q

Graft stages

A

2d: cyanotic- plasmatic imbibition; 3d: pink- inosculation; 5d: pink/red- revascularization

48
Q

Post-free graft care

A

2 weeks immobilized, bulky bandage chg 3-5d,

49
Q

Describe steps and timing of proliferation phase

A

~3-5d- fibroplasia, 4-6 angiogenesis (=granulation), 6-14d conrtraction, then epithelialization

50
Q

Function of maturation process

A

Collagen III –> I; scar 80% at 3m

51
Q

When is callus seen on rads

A

2-4w

52
Q

Fracture description

A

open/closed, configuration, location, bone, displacement (distal relative to proximal)

53
Q

Tension causes what type of Fx and where

A

Avulsion at aponeuroses

54
Q

What force causes oblique

A

compression and/or bending

55
Q

What causes lateral condylar fractures

A

Shear (eccentric loading)

56
Q

Bending can cause what Fx

A

Greenstick and transverse

57
Q

SH fractures go throgh what area of bone

A

Zone of hypertrophy (reserve zone)

58
Q

Open Fx classification

A

I: <1cm laceration; II: >1cm, min trauma, IIIa: coverage available, IIIb: extensive ST loss, IIIc: arterial supply

59
Q

90% canine thyroid tumors

A

Adenocarc, euthyroid