Seminole

Question 1

Blue handle (forward)

Answer 1

Propellor governor increases oil pressure, drives a piston, which moves the blades to a low pitch-high RPM unfeathered position.

Question 2

Blue handle (aft)

Answer 2

Propellor governor decreases oil pressure, allowing a nitrogen-charged cylinder, spring, and centrifugal counterweights to drive the blades to a high pitch-low RPM feathered position.

Question 3

Describe the electrical system.

Answer 3

14 volt electrical system
12 volt (35 mp) battery 
two 70 amp engine driven alternators 
two 14 Volt voltage regulators 
two 17 volt over voltage relays

Question 4

Squat switches do what?

Answer 4

Activate or deactivate various aircraft functions when the aircraft lifts off the wunway. These include: activating the gear warning horn and unsafe light if the gear handle is raised on the ground, disabling the hydraulic pump to prevent gear retraction while on the ground, activating the stall warning system once airborne, and activating the flight hour meter (OFF/ON Hobbs). On 2000 and newer model Seminoles, the gear warning horn, gear unsafe light, and safety switch are tied to the left main squat switch. The stall warning system and flight hour meter are tied to the right main squat switch.

Question 5

What type of ailerons does the Seminole have?

Answer 5

Frise

Question 6

The V-shape antenna is the combination of?

Answer 6

VOR/glideslope/localizer

Question 7

What do bonding straps do?

Answer 7

Transfer electric charge due to static electricity or lighting strikes to the static wicks without damage to moving or sensitive parts (pivot points, bearings, etc.)

Question 8

What is a push rod?

Answer 8

A metal rod that causes a flight control surface to move in response to inputs on the yoke or rudder pedals.

Question 9

What color is brake fluid?

Answer 9

Red.

Question 10

The air that goes into the cabin passes through?

Answer 10

The combustion heater before entering the cabin, whether or not the heater is on.

Question 11

The alternator cooling vent directs air to where?

Answer 11

The back of the alternator.

Question 12

The OAT probe connects directly to…

Answer 12

the analog temperature gauge inside the cockpit.

Question 13

What does the heater combustion blower intake do?

Answer 13

Brings in fresh air for the combustion process of the heater. This air is mixed with fuel from the left side of the fuel system (apporximately ½ gallon per hour) and ignited.

Question 14

What does the heater drain do?

Answer 14

Allows any condensation or contaminants to drain from the combustion heater located in the nose of the airplane.

Question 15

What do the battery vents, intake & discharge, do?

Answer 15

Cool the battely.

Question 16

What does the battery drain do?

Answer 16

Allows corrosive material or fluids to drain away from the airplane without coming in contact with the airplane’s surface.

Question 17

Extension or retraction of gear operation is done by?

Answer 17

An electrically powered, reversible hydraulic pump

NOTE: Springs assist in gear extension and in locking the gear in the down position. After the gear is down and the downlock hooks engage, springs maintain force on each hook to keep it locked until it is released by hydraulic pressure.

Question 18

The main struts should be extended?

Answer 18

2.60” +- 0.25”

Question 19

The nose strut should be extended?

Answer 19

2.70” +-0.25”

Question 20

The drain to the left of the marker beacon does what?

Answer 20

Allows moisture to drain from the fresh air inlet and fresh air fan assembly.

Question 21

What does the propellor governor do?

Answer 21

Senses the rotational speed of an aircraft engine and changes the propeller blade angle to maintain the selected RPM regardless of the operational conditions of the aircraft.

Question 22

What is a scupper drain?

Answer 22

A trough on the top of the fuel tank that allows fluids that spill or accumalate under the fuel tank access panel to drain away, reducing the potential for fuel contamination. The drain port at the lowest part of the scupper drain trough must be unobstructed for the scupper drain to work properly. Each 55-gallon fuel tank has a scupper drain near the fuel cap under the access panel.

Question 23

The Seminole has two stall tabs. When will each go off?

Answer 23

The outboard stall warning tab is for flap settings 0 and 10 degrees, while the inboard is for the flap settings of 25 and 40 degrees.

Question 24

Why are there counterweights inside the wing tips?

Answer 24

Allows pilot to better feel control inputs

Reduce aileron flutter by adding weight to the airfoil

Return the airfoil to a neutral position after control inputs are released

Question 25

Why do we sump the fuel tanks?

Answer 25

To check, see, and remove sediment & moisture from the fuel system.

Question 26

Why do fuel tanks have fuel vents?

Answer 26

To prevent a vacuum from forming as fuel is consumed from the fuel tanks.

NOTE: Seminole vents are aerodynamically designed to prevent ice from accreting.

Question 27

What do static wicks do?

Answer 27

Allow electric charge to transfer from the aircraft skin into the surrounding atmosphere. This charge can accumulate due to precipitation static or lighting strikes. There are a total of 9 wicks.

Question 28

What are cowl flaps used for?

Answer 28

To regulate cooling air for the engines? The cowl flaps have 3 positions: open, closed, intermediate.

Question 29

What procedures should be followed if a landing gear malfunction is suspected?

Answer 29

Ensure:
Nav lights: OFF
Dimmer switch: DAY
Circuit breakers: CHECK
Master switch: ON
Alternators: ON/Positive reading 

If gear unsafe light is not illuminated, check condition of bulb by switching it with a bulb from the annunciator panel, preferably a bulb that is crucial.

Question 30

What are the procedures for extending landing gear manually in an emergency situation?

Answer 30

Airspeed: 100 KIAS (MAX)
Gear position: DOWN (locked position)
Emergency gear extend knob: PULL
Indicator lights: 3 GREEN

Question 31

A partial loss of oil pressure usually indicates what?

Answer 31

A malfunction in the oil pressure regulating system. A landing should be made as soon as possible to investigate the cause and prevent engine damage. Complete the engine securing procedures.

Question 32

A complete loss of oil pressure usually indicates what?

Answer 32

Oil exhaustion or a faulty gauge. A landing should be made as soon as possible to investigate the cause and prevent engine damage. If engine oil is depleted, the engine will seize and if feathering is not initiated before 950 RPM is reached, the propeller will not feather. Complete the engine securing procedures.