SEMESTER ONE FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

the electrostatic attraction between charged particles, inside a compound:

A

ionic

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2
Q

the strongest of the intermolecular forces:

A

hydrogen bond

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3
Q

the strongest of the bonds within a molecular compound:

A

triple covalent bond

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4
Q

the weakest of the intermolecular forces:

A

dispersion forces

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5
Q

the weakest of the bonds within a molecule:

A

single covalent bond

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6
Q

gaseous state of a substance that is a liquid or solid at room temperature:

A

vapour

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7
Q

a physical blend of two or more components:

A

mixture

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8
Q

not uniform in composition:

A

heterogeneous mixture

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9
Q

a substance formed in a chemical reaction:

A

product

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10
Q

starting substance in a chemical reaction:

A

reactant

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11
Q

amount of matter an object contains:

A

mass

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12
Q

describes mixture with a uniform composition:

A

homogenous

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13
Q

a process in which a liquid is boiled to produce a vapour that is condensed again into a liquid:

A

distillation

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14
Q

substance that cannot be changed into simpler substances by chemical means:

A

element

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15
Q

composed of two or more substances chemically combined in a fixed proportion:

A

compound

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16
Q

process in which substances are changed into different substances:

A

chemical reaction

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17
Q

the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element:

A

atom

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18
Q

a negatively charged subatomic particle:

A

electron

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19
Q

a positively charged subatomic particle:

A

proton

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20
Q

a subatomic particle with no charge:

A

neutron

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21
Q

the central part of an atom, containing protons and neutrons:

A

nucleus

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22
Q

a theory is best described as a:

A

generalization that explains a body of known facts or phenomena

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23
Q

which step in the scientific method requires you to use your senses to obtain information?:

A

making an observation

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24
Q

the variable that you change during an experiment is called what type of variable?:

A

manipulated

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25
Q

which of the following are considered physical properties of a substance?:

a) colour and odor
b) melting and boiling points
c) malleability and hardness
d) all of the above

A

all of the above

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26
Q

a physical property may be investigated by:

a) melting ice
b) letting milk turn sour
c) allowing silver to tarnish
d) burning wood

A

melting ice

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27
Q

which state of matter is characterized by having an indefinite shape, but a definite volume?:

A

liquid

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28
Q

which of the following is true about homogeneous mixtures?:

A

they are known as solutions

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29
Q

a list of pure substances could include:

a) bread dough
b) vinegar (5% acetic acid)
c) vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
d) sea water

A

vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

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30
Q

which of the following is true about compounds?:

a) they can be physically separated into their component elements
b) they have compositions that vary
c) they are substances
d) they have properties similar to those of their component elements

A

they are substances

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31
Q

the chemical formula of a compound does NOT indicate ___:

A

how elements are joined in the compound

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32
Q

a physical change occurs when a:

a) peach spoils
b) copper bowl tarnishes
c) bracelet turns your wrist green
d) glue gun melts a glue stick

A

glue gun melts a glue stick

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33
Q

which of the following is chemical change?:

a) boiling water
b) melting ice
c) freezing water
d) separating water into hydrogen and oxygen

A

separating water into hydrogen and oxygen

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34
Q

which of the following is the BEST indication of chemical change?:

a) change in overall mass
b) change in size
c) formation of a gas
d) colour change

A

formation of a gas

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35
Q

the measurement 2.03 x 10^-3m represents:

A

0.00203 m

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36
Q

the expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is ____:

A

5.008 x 10^3 km

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37
Q

a measurement that closely agrees with accepted values is said to be:

A

accurate

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38
Q

these values were obtained as as the mass of products from the same reaction: 8.83 g; 8.84 g; 8.82 g. The known mass of products from that reaction is 8.60 g. The values are:

A

precise

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39
Q

the measurement that has been expressed to four significant figures is:

a) 0.0020 mm
b) .00402 mm
c) 30.00 mm
d) 402.10 mm

A

30.00 mm

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40
Q

the number of significant figures in the measurement 0.000305 kg is:

A

3

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41
Q

the dimensions of a rectangular solid are measured to be 1.27 cm, 1.3 cm, and 2.5 cm. The volume should be recorded as:

A

4.1 cm^3

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42
Q

three samples of 0.12g, 1.8g, and 0.562g are mixed together. The combined mass of all three samples, expressed to the correct number of significant figures, should be recorded as:

A

2.5 g

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43
Q

a volume of 1 cubic centimeter is equivalent to:

A

1 milliliter

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44
Q

which of the following volumes is the smallest?:

A

one microliter

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45
Q

the symbols for units of length in order from smallest to largest are:

A

mm, cm, m, km

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46
Q

a Kelvin reading of 50 K is the same as a Celsius reading of:

A

-223ºC

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47
Q

what is the quantity 0.0075 meters expressed in centimeters?:

A

0.75 cm

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48
Q

what is the quantity 7896 millimeters expressed in meters?:

A

7.896 m

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49
Q

0.25 g is equivalent to ____mg:

A

250 mg

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50
Q

the number of cubic centimeters equal to 0.5 mL is:

A

0.5

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51
Q

the mass of a 5.00 cm^3 sample of fold is 96.5 g. The density of gold is:

A

19.3 g/cm^3

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52
Q

which of the following is NOT a part of Dalton’s atomic theory?:

A

atoms are always in motion

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53
Q

experiments with cathode rays led to the discovery of the:

A

electron

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54
Q

because any element used in the cathode produced electrons, scientists concluded that:

A

all atoms contained electrons

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55
Q

the nucleus of an atom is ______:

A

the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons

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56
Q

in Rutherford’s gold foil experiments, most of the particles:

A

passed through the foil

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57
Q

all atoms of the same element have the same _____:

A

number of protons

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58
Q

Calcium-48 contains:

a) 20 electrons
b) 48 protons
c) 20 neutrons
d) 28 protons

A

20 electrons

59
Q

Nickel-60 has:

a) 28 neutrons
b) 32 neutrons
c) 60 neutrons
d) 88 neutrons

A

32 neutrons

60
Q

Bromine has atomic number 35 and mass number 80. It has:

A

35 protons, 35 electrons, and 45 neutrons

61
Q

isotopes of the same element have different _____:

A

mass numbers

62
Q

if E is the symbol for an element, which two of the following symbols represent isotopes of the same element?:

1) (super) 20 E
(sub) 10

2) (super) 20 E
(sub) 11

3) (super) 21 E
(sub) 9

4) (super) 21 E
(sub) 10

A

1 and 4

63
Q

which of the following isotopes has the same number of neutrons as phosphorus-31?:

a) 32 P
15

b) 32 S
16

c) 29 Si
14

d) 28 Si
14

A

32 S

16

64
Q

the average atomic mass of an element depends on both the masses of its isotopes and each isotope’s ____:

A

relative abundance

65
Q

Bohr’s model of the atom advanced our explanation of atomic structure by explaining:

A

an atoms emission spectra

66
Q

in an s orbital the probability of finding an electron a particular distance from the nucleus does NOT depend on:

A

direction with respect to the nucleus

67
Q

how many quantum numbers are needed to describe the energy state of an electron in an atom?:

A

4

68
Q

the main energy levels of an atom are indicated by the:

A

principal quantum numbers

69
Q

the spin quantum number of an electron can be thought of as describing:

A

the direction of electron spin

70
Q

for an electron in an atom to change from the ground state to an excited state:

A

energy must be absorbed

71
Q

the change of an atom from an excited state to the ground state always requires:

A

emission of electromagnetic radiation

72
Q

what types of atomic orbitals are in the third principal energy level?:

A

s, p, and d only

73
Q

the number of sublevels within each energy level of an atom is equal to the value of the:

A

principal quantum number

74
Q

the p orbitals are shaped like:

A

dumbbells

75
Q

a spherical electron cloud surrounding an atomic nucleus would best represent:

A

an s orbital

76
Q

a three-dimensional region around a nucleus where there is the highest probability of finding an electron is called a(n):

A

orbital

77
Q

the Aufbau principle states that an electron:

A

occupies the position of lowest energy

78
Q

what is the electron configuration of potassium?:

A

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1

79
Q

the electron configuration for an atom is 1s2, 2s2, 2p2. The atomic number of the element is:

A

6

80
Q

if n is the principal quantum number of a main energy level, the number of electrons in that energy level is:

A

2n2

81
Q

how many electrons are needed to completely fill the fourth energy level?:

A

32

82
Q

how many electrons are needed to fill the third main energy level if it already contains 8 electrons?:

A

10

83
Q

a group IIA element can reach a stable configuration through?:

A

the loss of 2 electrons

84
Q

which electron configuration of the 3p energy sublevel is the most stable:

A

3p6

85
Q

the emission of electrons from metals that have absorbed photons is called the:

A

photoelectric effect

86
Q

Max Planck proposed that a hot object radiated energy in small, specific amounts called:

A

quanta

87
Q

for electromagnetic radiation, c (the speed of light) equals:

A

frequency times wavelength

88
Q

which of the following electromagnetic waves have the highest frequencies?:

a) ultraviolet waves
b) X-rays
c) microwaves
d) gamma rays

A

gamma rays

89
Q

an emission spectrum is produced when an electron moves from on energy level:

A

to a lower energy level

90
Q

who arranged the elements according to atomic mass and used the arrangement to predict the properties of missing elements?:

A

Dmitri Mendeleev

91
Q

the periodic law states that:

A

the physical and chemical properties of the elements are functions of their atomic numbers

92
Q

which of the following elements is in the same period as phosphorus?:

A

magnesium

93
Q

a vertical column of blocks in the periodic table is called a(n):

A

group

94
Q

to which group do lithium and potassium belong?:

A

alkali metals

95
Q

to which group do fluorine and chlorine belong?:

A

halogens

96
Q

the most characteristic chemical property of the noble gases is that they:

A

are largely unreactive

97
Q

based on their location in the periodic table, oxygen and selenium have:

A

similar properties

98
Q

the electron configuration of cesium, atomic number 55, is [Xe] 6s1. In what period is cesium?:

A

Period 6

99
Q

Calcium, atomic number 20, has the electron configuration [Ar] 4s2. In what period is calcium?:

A

Period 4

100
Q

which of the following is true about the electron configurations of the noble gases?:

A

the highest occupied s and p sublevels are completely filled

101
Q

for Groups IIIA the total number of electrons in the highest occupied level equals:

A

3

102
Q

for Groups IIIA through VIIIA, the number of valence electrons is equal to the group numbers:

A

the group number

103
Q

the number of valence electrons in Group 1 elements is:

A

1

104
Q

how does atomic radius change from top to bottom in a group in the periodic table?:

A

it tends to increase

105
Q

in which of the following sets are the charges given correctly for all the ions?:

a) Na+, Mg+, Al+
b) K+, Sr2+, O2-
c) Rb-, Ba2-, P3+
d) N-, O2-, F3-

A

K+, Sr2+, O2-

106
Q

of the following elements, which one has the smallest first ionization energy?:

a) boron
b) carbon
c) aluminium
d) silicon

A

aluminium

107
Q

what is the element with the lowest electronegativity value?:

A

cesium

108
Q

the element that has the greatest electronegativity is:

A

fluorine

109
Q

the alkali metals are:

A

the most reactive group of metals

110
Q

the most reactive group of the nonmetals are the:

A

halogens

111
Q

how many electrons does barium have to give up to achieve a noble-gas electron configuration?:

A

2

112
Q

the electron configuration of nitrogen is 1s2, 2s2, 2p3. How many more electrons does nitrogen need to satisfy the octet rule?:

A

3

113
Q

what is the formula of the ion formed when potassium achieves noble-gas electron configuration?:

A

K+

114
Q

what is the formula of the ion formed when cadmium achieves a stable electron configuration?:

A

Cd2+

115
Q

what is the electron configuration of the calcium ion?:

A

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6

116
Q

the electron configuration of a fluoride ion, F- is ______:

A

the same as that of a neon atom

117
Q

what do you call a bond that forms when electrons are transferred from one atom to another?:

A

ionic bond

118
Q

the electrostatic attraction between positively charged ions and negatively charged ions permits two atoms to be held together by a(n):

A

ionic bond

119
Q

what is the formula unit of sodium nitride?:

A

Na 3 N

120
Q

what is the formula unit for potassium sulfide?:

A

K 2 S

121
Q

how many electrons must be shown in the Lewis structure of the hydroxide ion, OH-?

A

8

122
Q

which of the following is NOT a property of an ionic compound?:

a) low boiling point
b) brittleness
c) hardness
d) molten compound conducts electricity

A

low boiling point

123
Q

in the electron-sea model of a metallic bond, :

A

mobile electrons are shared by all the atoms

124
Q

because metallic bonds permit one plane of ions to slide past another without breaking bonds, metals are:

A

malleable

125
Q

a molecule is:

A

neutral group of atoms held together by covalent bonds

126
Q

which of the following compounds is NOT an example of a molecular formula?:

a) N2
b) H2O2
c) MgCl2
d) CO

A

MgCl2

127
Q

the chemical formula for water, a covalent compound, is H2O. This formula is an example of a(n):

A

molecular formula

128
Q

the octet rule states that chemical compounds tend to form so that each atom has an octet of electrons in:

A

its highest occupied energy level

129
Q

which elements can form diatomic molecules joined by single covalent bond?:

A

hydrogen and the halogens only

130
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a diatomic element?:

A

helium

131
Q

The side-by-side overlap of p orbitals produces what kind of bond?:

A

pi bond

132
Q

Which of the following bond types is normally the weakest?:

a) sigma bond formed by the overlap of two s orbitals
b) sigma bond formed by the overlap of two p orbitals
c) sigma bond formed by the overlap of one s and one p orbital
d) pi bond formed by the overlap of two p orbitals

A

pi bond formed by the overlap of two p orbitals

133
Q

an ionic compound known for binding water molecules is known as a(n):

A

hydrate

134
Q

a bond that is symmetrical along the axis between two atomic nuclei is a(n):

A

sigma bond

135
Q

use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the carbon dioxide molecule, CO2:

A

linear

136
Q

use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the beryllium chloride molecule, BeCl2:

A

linear

137
Q

according to VSEPR theory, the structure of the ammonia molecule, NH3, is:

A

trigonal pyramidal

138
Q

use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the carbon tetraiodide molecule, CI4

A

tetrahedral

139
Q

use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the water molecule

A

bent

140
Q

which of the following contribute to the molecular polarity of the water molecule?:

a) shape
b) polar bonds
c) lone pairs of electrons
d) all of the above

A

all of the above

141
Q

in fusion, atoms _____ to produce _____ energy than fission:

A

combine, more

142
Q

what is the mass and charge of an alpha particle?:

A

Mass: 4, Charge: +2

143
Q

Sulfur-35 undergoes beta decay, what is the atom produced after this decay?:

A

Chlorine-35