SEMESTER ONE FINAL Flashcards
1
Q
the electrostatic attraction between charged particles, inside a compound:
A
ionic
2
Q
the strongest of the intermolecular forces:
A
hydrogen bond
3
Q
the strongest of the bonds within a molecular compound:
A
triple covalent bond
4
Q
the weakest of the intermolecular forces:
A
dispersion forces
5
Q
the weakest of the bonds within a molecule:
A
single covalent bond
6
Q
gaseous state of a substance that is a liquid or solid at room temperature:
A
vapour
7
Q
a physical blend of two or more components:
A
mixture
8
Q
not uniform in composition:
A
heterogeneous mixture
9
Q
a substance formed in a chemical reaction:
A
product
10
Q
starting substance in a chemical reaction:
A
reactant
11
Q
amount of matter an object contains:
A
mass
12
Q
describes mixture with a uniform composition:
A
homogenous
13
Q
a process in which a liquid is boiled to produce a vapour that is condensed again into a liquid:
A
distillation
14
Q
substance that cannot be changed into simpler substances by chemical means:
A
element
15
Q
composed of two or more substances chemically combined in a fixed proportion:
A
compound
16
Q
process in which substances are changed into different substances:
A
chemical reaction
17
Q
the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element:
A
atom
18
Q
a negatively charged subatomic particle:
A
electron
19
Q
a positively charged subatomic particle:
A
proton
20
Q
a subatomic particle with no charge:
A
neutron
21
Q
the central part of an atom, containing protons and neutrons:
A
nucleus
22
Q
a theory is best described as a:
A
generalization that explains a body of known facts or phenomena
23
Q
which step in the scientific method requires you to use your senses to obtain information?:
A
making an observation
24
Q
the variable that you change during an experiment is called what type of variable?:
A
manipulated
25
which of the following are considered physical properties of a substance?:
a) colour and odor
b) melting and boiling points
c) malleability and hardness
d) all of the above
all of the above
26
a physical property may be investigated by:
a) melting ice
b) letting milk turn sour
c) allowing silver to tarnish
d) burning wood
melting ice
27
which state of matter is characterized by having an indefinite shape, but a definite volume?:
liquid
28
which of the following is true about homogeneous mixtures?:
they are known as solutions
29
a list of pure substances could include:
a) bread dough
b) vinegar (5% acetic acid)
c) vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
d) sea water
vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
30
which of the following is true about compounds?:
a) they can be physically separated into their component elements
b) they have compositions that vary
c) they are substances
d) they have properties similar to those of their component elements
they are substances
31
the chemical formula of a compound does NOT indicate ___:
how elements are joined in the compound
32
a physical change occurs when a:
a) peach spoils
b) copper bowl tarnishes
c) bracelet turns your wrist green
d) glue gun melts a glue stick
glue gun melts a glue stick
33
which of the following is chemical change?:
a) boiling water
b) melting ice
c) freezing water
d) separating water into hydrogen and oxygen
separating water into hydrogen and oxygen
34
which of the following is the BEST indication of chemical change?:
a) change in overall mass
b) change in size
c) formation of a gas
d) colour change
formation of a gas
35
the measurement 2.03 x 10^-3m represents:
0.00203 m
36
the expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is ____:
5.008 x 10^3 km
37
a measurement that closely agrees with accepted values is said to be:
accurate
38
these values were obtained as as the mass of products from the same reaction: 8.83 g; 8.84 g; 8.82 g. The known mass of products from that reaction is 8.60 g. The values are:
precise
39
the measurement that has been expressed to four significant figures is:
a) 0.0020 mm
b) .00402 mm
c) 30.00 mm
d) 402.10 mm
30.00 mm
40
the number of significant figures in the measurement 0.000305 kg is:
3
41
the dimensions of a rectangular solid are measured to be 1.27 cm, 1.3 cm, and 2.5 cm. The volume should be recorded as:
4.1 cm^3
42
three samples of 0.12g, 1.8g, and 0.562g are mixed together. The combined mass of all three samples, expressed to the correct number of significant figures, should be recorded as:
2.5 g
43
a volume of 1 cubic centimeter is equivalent to:
1 milliliter
44
which of the following volumes is the smallest?:
one microliter
45
the symbols for units of length in order from smallest to largest are:
mm, cm, m, km
46
a Kelvin reading of 50 K is the same as a Celsius reading of:
-223ºC
47
what is the quantity 0.0075 meters expressed in centimeters?:
0.75 cm
48
what is the quantity 7896 millimeters expressed in meters?:
7.896 m
49
0.25 g is equivalent to ____mg:
250 mg
50
the number of cubic centimeters equal to 0.5 mL is:
0.5
51
the mass of a 5.00 cm^3 sample of fold is 96.5 g. The density of gold is:
19.3 g/cm^3
52
which of the following is NOT a part of Dalton's atomic theory?:
atoms are always in motion
53
experiments with cathode rays led to the discovery of the:
electron
54
because any element used in the cathode produced electrons, scientists concluded that:
all atoms contained electrons
55
the nucleus of an atom is ______:
the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons
56
in Rutherford's gold foil experiments, most of the particles:
passed through the foil
57
all atoms of the same element have the same _____:
number of protons
58
Calcium-48 contains:
a) 20 electrons
b) 48 protons
c) 20 neutrons
d) 28 protons
20 electrons
59
Nickel-60 has:
a) 28 neutrons
b) 32 neutrons
c) 60 neutrons
d) 88 neutrons
32 neutrons
60
Bromine has atomic number 35 and mass number 80. It has:
35 protons, 35 electrons, and 45 neutrons
61
isotopes of the same element have different _____:
mass numbers
62
if E is the symbol for an element, which two of the following symbols represent isotopes of the same element?:
1) (super) 20 E
(sub) 10
2) (super) 20 E
(sub) 11
3) (super) 21 E
(sub) 9
4) (super) 21 E
(sub) 10
1 and 4
63
which of the following isotopes has the same number of neutrons as phosphorus-31?:
a) 32 P
15
b) 32 S
16
c) 29 Si
14
d) 28 Si
14
32 S
| 16
64
the average atomic mass of an element depends on both the masses of its isotopes and each isotope's ____:
relative abundance
65
Bohr's model of the atom advanced our explanation of atomic structure by explaining:
an atoms emission spectra
66
in an s orbital the probability of finding an electron a particular distance from the nucleus does NOT depend on:
direction with respect to the nucleus
67
how many quantum numbers are needed to describe the energy state of an electron in an atom?:
4
68
the main energy levels of an atom are indicated by the:
principal quantum numbers
69
the spin quantum number of an electron can be thought of as describing:
the direction of electron spin
70
for an electron in an atom to change from the ground state to an excited state:
energy must be absorbed
71
the change of an atom from an excited state to the ground state always requires:
emission of electromagnetic radiation
72
what types of atomic orbitals are in the third principal energy level?:
s, p, and d only
73
the number of sublevels within each energy level of an atom is equal to the value of the:
principal quantum number
74
the p orbitals are shaped like:
dumbbells
75
a spherical electron cloud surrounding an atomic nucleus would best represent:
an s orbital
76
a three-dimensional region around a nucleus where there is the highest probability of finding an electron is called a(n):
orbital
77
the Aufbau principle states that an electron:
occupies the position of lowest energy
78
what is the electron configuration of potassium?:
1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1
79
the electron configuration for an atom is 1s2, 2s2, 2p2. The atomic number of the element is:
6
80
if n is the principal quantum number of a main energy level, the number of electrons in that energy level is:
2n2
81
how many electrons are needed to completely fill the fourth energy level?:
32
82
how many electrons are needed to fill the third main energy level if it already contains 8 electrons?:
10
83
a group IIA element can reach a stable configuration through?:
the loss of 2 electrons
84
which electron configuration of the 3p energy sublevel is the most stable:
3p6
85
the emission of electrons from metals that have absorbed photons is called the:
photoelectric effect
86
Max Planck proposed that a hot object radiated energy in small, specific amounts called:
quanta
87
for electromagnetic radiation, c (the speed of light) equals:
frequency times wavelength
88
which of the following electromagnetic waves have the highest frequencies?:
a) ultraviolet waves
b) X-rays
c) microwaves
d) gamma rays
gamma rays
89
an emission spectrum is produced when an electron moves from on energy level:
to a lower energy level
90
who arranged the elements according to atomic mass and used the arrangement to predict the properties of missing elements?:
Dmitri Mendeleev
91
the periodic law states that:
the physical and chemical properties of the elements are functions of their atomic numbers
92
which of the following elements is in the same period as phosphorus?:
magnesium
93
a vertical column of blocks in the periodic table is called a(n):
group
94
to which group do lithium and potassium belong?:
alkali metals
95
to which group do fluorine and chlorine belong?:
halogens
96
the most characteristic chemical property of the noble gases is that they:
are largely unreactive
97
based on their location in the periodic table, oxygen and selenium have:
similar properties
98
the electron configuration of cesium, atomic number 55, is [Xe] 6s1. In what period is cesium?:
Period 6
99
Calcium, atomic number 20, has the electron configuration [Ar] 4s2. In what period is calcium?:
Period 4
100
which of the following is true about the electron configurations of the noble gases?:
the highest occupied s and p sublevels are completely filled
101
for Groups IIIA the total number of electrons in the highest occupied level equals:
3
102
for Groups IIIA through VIIIA, the number of valence electrons is equal to the group numbers:
the group number
103
the number of valence electrons in Group 1 elements is:
1
104
how does atomic radius change from top to bottom in a group in the periodic table?:
it tends to increase
105
in which of the following sets are the charges given correctly for all the ions?:
a) Na+, Mg+, Al+
b) K+, Sr2+, O2-
c) Rb-, Ba2-, P3+
d) N-, O2-, F3-
K+, Sr2+, O2-
106
of the following elements, which one has the smallest first ionization energy?:
a) boron
b) carbon
c) aluminium
d) silicon
aluminium
107
what is the element with the lowest electronegativity value?:
cesium
108
the element that has the greatest electronegativity is:
fluorine
109
the alkali metals are:
the most reactive group of metals
110
the most reactive group of the nonmetals are the:
halogens
111
how many electrons does barium have to give up to achieve a noble-gas electron configuration?:
2
112
the electron configuration of nitrogen is 1s2, 2s2, 2p3. How many more electrons does nitrogen need to satisfy the octet rule?:
3
113
what is the formula of the ion formed when potassium achieves noble-gas electron configuration?:
K+
114
what is the formula of the ion formed when cadmium achieves a stable electron configuration?:
Cd2+
115
what is the electron configuration of the calcium ion?:
1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6
116
the electron configuration of a fluoride ion, F- is ______:
the same as that of a neon atom
117
what do you call a bond that forms when electrons are transferred from one atom to another?:
ionic bond
118
the electrostatic attraction between positively charged ions and negatively charged ions permits two atoms to be held together by a(n):
ionic bond
119
what is the formula unit of sodium nitride?:
Na 3 N
120
what is the formula unit for potassium sulfide?:
K 2 S
121
how many electrons must be shown in the Lewis structure of the hydroxide ion, OH-?
8
122
which of the following is NOT a property of an ionic compound?:
a) low boiling point
b) brittleness
c) hardness
d) molten compound conducts electricity
low boiling point
123
in the electron-sea model of a metallic bond, :
mobile electrons are shared by all the atoms
124
because metallic bonds permit one plane of ions to slide past another without breaking bonds, metals are:
malleable
125
a molecule is:
neutral group of atoms held together by covalent bonds
126
which of the following compounds is NOT an example of a molecular formula?:
a) N2
b) H2O2
c) MgCl2
d) CO
MgCl2
127
the chemical formula for water, a covalent compound, is H2O. This formula is an example of a(n):
molecular formula
128
the octet rule states that chemical compounds tend to form so that each atom has an octet of electrons in:
its highest occupied energy level
129
which elements can form diatomic molecules joined by single covalent bond?:
hydrogen and the halogens only
130
Which of the following is NOT an example of a diatomic element?:
helium
131
The side-by-side overlap of p orbitals produces what kind of bond?:
pi bond
132
Which of the following bond types is normally the weakest?:
a) sigma bond formed by the overlap of two s orbitals
b) sigma bond formed by the overlap of two p orbitals
c) sigma bond formed by the overlap of one s and one p orbital
d) pi bond formed by the overlap of two p orbitals
pi bond formed by the overlap of two p orbitals
133
an ionic compound known for binding water molecules is known as a(n):
hydrate
134
a bond that is symmetrical along the axis between two atomic nuclei is a(n):
sigma bond
135
use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the carbon dioxide molecule, CO2:
linear
136
use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the beryllium chloride molecule, BeCl2:
linear
137
according to VSEPR theory, the structure of the ammonia molecule, NH3, is:
trigonal pyramidal
138
use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the carbon tetraiodide molecule, CI4
tetrahedral
139
use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the water molecule
bent
140
which of the following contribute to the molecular polarity of the water molecule?:
a) shape
b) polar bonds
c) lone pairs of electrons
d) all of the above
all of the above
141
in fusion, atoms _____ to produce _____ energy than fission:
combine, more
142
what is the mass and charge of an alpha particle?:
Mass: 4, Charge: +2
143
Sulfur-35 undergoes beta decay, what is the atom produced after this decay?:
Chlorine-35
