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Positioning Final > Semester 2 > Flashcards

Semester 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many degrees of CR angulation required for an AP axial sacrum?

A

15˚ cephalic

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2
Q

How many degrees of CR angulation for an AP axial coccyx

A

10˚ caudal

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3
Q

Before imaging the sacrum and/or coccyx, it is advisable to offer the patient an opportunity to use the restroom. Why?

A

Gas a fecal matter may obscure the area of interest

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4
Q

Which position/projection of the cervical spine will demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint space between C1-2

A

AP open mouth

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5
Q

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the intervertebral foramen of the lumbar spine?

A) 45˚ obliques
B) 30˚ obliques
C) AP axial
D) lateral

A

Lateral

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6
Q

The cervical vertebrae have distinguished characteristics, they include:

A

Bifid spinous processes

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7
Q

How close can we come to 125mAs

A) 30 mA @ 3 sec
B) 35 mA @ 3 seconds
C) 40 mA @ 3 sec
D)45 mA @ 3 seconds

A

40 mA @ 3 seconds

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8
Q

Which of the following is the most correct criteria for the AP axial C-spine projection?

A) C3 to T2-3 vertebral bodies should be visible
B) spinous processes are seen to be equal distances from the vertebra body lateral borders
C) center of the collimation field is at C4/5
D) all of the above

A

All of the above

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9
Q

We are looking at an oblique projection of the cervical spine and the left intervertebral foramina are demonstrated. The image was taken AP. How have we positioned the patient?

A

RPO

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10
Q

The spinal cord begins in the medulla oblongata, traverses through the foramen magnum, then down through the vertebral foramen of C-1 all the way to the sacrum?

True or false

A

False

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11
Q

Which term best defines or describes the vertebral body of C1?

A) the smallest of all vertebral bodies
B) a column of bone
C) a bony mass
D) there is no vertebral body at C1

A

There is no vertebral body at C1

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12
Q

Which aspect of the intervertebral disk is composed of semi gelatinous material

A

Annulus fibrosis

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13
Q

A 45˚ obliquity of the patient will adequately demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the L-spine. Assume that you have positioned the patient supine and LPO. Which zygapophyseal joints will be imaged?

A

Left

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14
Q

How much obliquity of the body is required for posterior oblique positions for the sacroiliac joints?

A

20˚ to 30˚

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15
Q

The LPO position for sacroiliac joints will best demonstrate the right joint?

True or false

A

True

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16
Q

Situation: a radiograph of an AP open-mouth projection reveals that the base of the skull is superimposed over the dens. What positioning error led to this radiographic outcome?

A

Too much extension of the skull

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17
Q

An anterior wedging of vertebrae with a loss of body height but rarely causing neurologic symptoms is called

A

A compression fracture

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18
Q

Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds with the L4-5 vertebral level?

A) xiphoid process
B) ASIS
C) lower costal margin
D) iliac crest

A

Iliac crest

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19
Q

Why should the hips and knees be flexed for an AP projection of the lumbar spine?

A

To reduce lumbar curvature

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20
Q

The quantity of radiation at any pint is______proportional to the square of the_________.

A

Inversely

Distance

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21
Q

Which positioning/SID is preferred for full-length erect spine scoliosis series?

A

PA 72”

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22
Q

Breathing instructions for L-spine radiography are:

A

Suspended after deep expiration

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23
Q

The zygapophyseal joints for the thoracic spine lie at an angle of_____in relation to the midsaggital plane.

A

70˚

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24
Q

S-1 is found at the level of the:

A

ASIS

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25
Q

Normal or abnormal convex thoracic curvature

A

Kyphosis

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26
Q

Any fracture of the dens which may or may not involve the lateral masses

A

Odontoid fracture

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27
Q

Which of the following projections will project the dens within the shadow of the foramen magnum?

A) Fuchs method
B) AP open mouth
C) twining method
D) gandy method

A

Fuchs method

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28
Q

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cervical spine reveals that the ramus of the mandible is superimposed over the spine. What could the technologist have done to prevent this?

A

Increase the extension of the skull

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29
Q

Breathing instructions and exposure for lateral C-spine

A

Exposure after suspended expiration

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30
Q

A forward slipping of one vertebral body over another is a condition known as:

A

Spondylolisthesis

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31
Q

The function of the gallbladder is to:

A

Store bile

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32
Q

The sternal angle is a palpable landmark at the level of

A

T4-5

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33
Q

Which of the following techniques is most effective in preventing lung markings from obscuring the sternum?

A) oblique as much as needed to not superimpose the sternum over the hilum region
B) high kVp
C) decrease SID to magnify sternum
D) use a breathing technique

A

Use a breathing technique

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34
Q

A majority of institutions in both the United States and Canada include a PA chest projection as part of a rib series

True or false

A

True

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35
Q

Which joint id the bony connection between the shoulder girdle and the axial skeleton?

A

Sternoclavicular joint

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36
Q

The right and left hepatic ducts join to become the

A

Common hepatic duct

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37
Q

The most lateral border of the ribs is called the

A

Angle of the ribs

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38
Q

The medical term for the condition of gallstones is

A

Choleliths

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39
Q

Critical thinking

Which two projections should be taken for an injury to the right anterior upper ribs?

A

PA and LAO

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40
Q

What is the name of the part of the rib that articulates with the thoracic vertebral body?

A

Head

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41
Q

To image the individual sternoclavicular joints, how much obliquity of the body is required?

A

20-25˚

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42
Q

The costocartilage of which pair of ribs attaches to the sternum at the level of the sternal angle?

A

Second

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43
Q

Which of the following ribs is considered to be a false rib?

A) 7th
B) 1st
C) 9th
D) none of the above

A

9th

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44
Q

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the axillary portion of the left ribs?

A) PA
B) LPO
C) AP
D) LAO

A

LPO

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45
Q

Critical thinking

During an operative cholangiogram, the images obtained will demonstrate the same radiographic findings as would be seen during an ERCP

True or false

A

True

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46
Q

To which vertebral level do we direct the CR to image bilateral sternoclavicular joints?

A

T3

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47
Q

Which of the following CANNOT be accomplished during an ERCP

A) tissue sampling from the bile duct
B) determine patency
C) stunting of the common bile duct
D) removal of pancreatic stones

A

Removal of pancreatic stones

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48
Q

Breathing instructions for imaging sternoclavicular joints should include

A

Suspend respiration upon end expiration

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49
Q

What is the recommended SID for the lateral sternum position

A

72”

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50
Q

Critical thinking:

Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram is a routing x-ray procedure easily performed in an R/F room

True or false

A

False

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51
Q

Which of the following structures connects the anterior aspect of the ribs to the sternum

A) costovertebral joints
B) costocartilage
C) sternal tendons
D) costotransverse joints

A

Costocartilage

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52
Q

Which radiographic position best demonstrates the anterior fifth rib on the right side without vertebral superimposition

A

LAO

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53
Q

The spaces between the ribs are called the intercostal

A

Spaces

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54
Q

SID for PA oblique sternum is recommended to be

A

30”

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55
Q

How should the CR be directed for the oblique position to best demonstrate the sternum

A

Perpendicularly

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56
Q

A lateral projection of the sternum requires that respiration be suspended upon expiration

True or false

A

False

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57
Q

Which two projections should be taken for an injury to the left posterior lower ribs

A

AP and LPO

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58
Q

The xiphoid process corresponds to the level of

A

T9-10

59
Q

The widest aspect of the thorax occurs at the level of:

A

T7

60
Q

Which of the following statements is true about radiography of the floating ribs?

A) always image these ribs PA
B) always image these ribs AP
C) perform the study with the patient recumbent
D)suspend respiration upon end inspiration

A

Always image these ribs AP

61
Q

There are four accessory glands of digestion. Which one does not fit?

A) spleen
B) liver
C) gallbladder
D) salivary glands

A

Spleen

62
Q

The sigmoid colon is on the left side of the body

True or false

A

True

63
Q

Which lateral decubitus projection will show us the lateral wall of the ascending colon, and the medial wall of the descending colon?

A

Left lateral decubitus

64
Q

To what level is an enteroclysis catheter advanced before it can be used

A

To the ligament of treitz

65
Q

The small bowel appears to have a “twist” causing an obstruction at that point. This is known as a(n)

A

Volvulus

66
Q

An upper GI exam is used to demonstrate the:

A

Esophagus
Stomach
Duodenum

67
Q

Barium sulfate does not dissolve in water, therefore the barium contrast media that we use in medical procedures is classified as a:

A

Suspension

68
Q

Backward flow of stomach contents into your esophagus is a medical condition called:

A

Gastroesophageal reflux

69
Q

If your patient is nauseated and asks to lie down for the interval prior to the next SBTF image, the best position would be:

A

Right lateral

70
Q

Defocography is an x-ray procedure using

A

Fluoroscopy

71
Q

Barium sulfate as a contrast media should be avoided when a patient

A

Has a lacerated bowel

72
Q

Typical transit time of barium sulfate from ingestion to the cecum is______hours

A

2-3

73
Q

The esophagus extends from vertebral level c_6 down to_______

A

T-11

74
Q

What percentage of the small intestine is the ilium?

A

60%

75
Q

What is the centering for a 90 minute SBFT?

A

Standard KUB centered at the iliac crest

76
Q

The pyloric portion of the stomach is ___________to the body of the stomach

Distal or proximal

A

Distal

77
Q

The 30 minute SBFT image is centered at:

A

A level just above the iliac crest

78
Q

One of the advantages of conventional colonoscopy over virtual colonoscopy is:

A

The ability to remove polyps

79
Q

The ascending colon is on the left side of the body.

True or false

A

False

80
Q

The first portion of the small bowel is termed the:

A

Duodenum

81
Q

An AP axial BE image is obtained with central ray angled________cephalic

A

30-40

82
Q

Dysphagia is an appropriate indication for an esophagram

True or false

A

True

83
Q

A condition where a portion of the stomach is just above the diaphragm

A

Hiatal hernia

84
Q

There are 4 sections of the duodenum. The portion where the hepatopancreatic duct enters is the:

A

Descending

85
Q

The entrance and exit of the stomach are controlled by sphincters. The muscle controlling the exit of the stomach is the________.

A

Pyloric sphincter

86
Q

The enema bag should be no more than_________above the anus

A

24”

87
Q

At merrill’s memorial, all barium overhead projections are obtained at_________kVp

A

120

88
Q

Which of the following landmarks or body planes is NOT a consideration for the lateral stomach projection?

A) L1, L2
B) right side
C) mid-coronal plane
D) iliac crest

A

Iliac crest

89
Q

How much obliquity of the body fo and RAO esophagus?

A

35˚-40˚

90
Q

How much obliquity of a sthenic patient for an RAO stomach?

A

40˚-50˚

91
Q

The vertebral level used to center for images of the esophagus is:

A

T5, T6

92
Q

Barrett’s esophagus________considered a precancerous condition

A

Is

93
Q

Asking the patient to increase their abdominal pressure by tightening abdominal muscles is called

A

Valsalva

94
Q

The preferred method for inserting the enema tip is to direct it_________and then________

A

Anterior

Cephalic

95
Q

THE IMAGE THAT SHOWS THE MUCOSA OF THE LARGE INTESTINE BEST ON A SINGLE CONTRAST BE IS THE

A

Post evacuation

96
Q

Food that has been mechanically and chemically altered in the stomach is transported to the duodenum as a material called

A

Chyme

97
Q

What is the best positioning landmark to use for a lateral BE image?

A

ASIS

98
Q

The negative contrast of choice for a double contrast UGI

A

Carbon dioxide

99
Q

The prone cross-table lateral projection on the air contrast BE is more correctly described as

A

Ventral decubitus

100
Q

As a general rule to include the entire esophagus, we position the central ray so that the top of the image receptor is level with

A

The mouth

101
Q

The splenic flexure is on the left side of the body

True or false

A

True

102
Q

What portions of the vertebrae unite to form the spinous process

A

Laminae

103
Q

What structures separate the vertebral bodies in the articulated spine?

A

Intervertebral disks

104
Q

Which portions of the vertebrae articulate to form the zygapophyseal joints?

A

Inferior articular facets of superior vertebrae and superior articular facets of inferior vertebrae

105
Q

Which pathological condition is defined as a variant of rheumatoid arthritis the involves the sacroiliac (SI) joints and the vertebral column?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

106
Q

Failure of the posterior encasement of the spinal cord to close is termed?

A

Spina bifida

107
Q

All of the following structures are features of the cervical portion of the vertebral column except:

A) mamillary processes
B) transverse foramina
C) vertebra prominens
D) bifid spinous processes

A

Mamillary processes

108
Q

Which vertebra is characterized by a prominent process extending from the anterior superior surface of its body?

A

C2

109
Q

Which portion of the vertebral column features the pars interarticularis?

A

Lumbar

110
Q

The portion of the vertebral column located between L5 and the coccyx is the:

A

Sacrum

111
Q

What is the purpose of positioning the vertebral column in the same plane during radiographic procedures?

A

It opens the joint spaces and reduces distortion

112
Q

What is the central ray orientation for the AP axial projection of the cervical spine?

A

15 to 20 degrees cephalad

113
Q

How is the patient positioned to demonstrate the left zygapophyseal joints of the cervical vertebrae?

A

Left lateral

114
Q

During an examination of the lumbar vertebrae with the patient in a 45-degree LPO position, the anatomy best demonstrated in the image is the:

A

Left zygapophyseal joints

115
Q

Which projection is contraindicated in patients with suspected trauma or pathologic conditions of the vertebrae?

A

AP projection of the dens (fuchs method)

116
Q

For the left sacroiliac (SI) joint to be demonstrated, the patient must be positioned:

A

In a 25-30 degree RPO

117
Q

The AP axial projection of the sacrum requires the central ray to be directed:

A

15 degrees cephalad

118
Q

All of the following findings are demonstrated on the lateral projection of the lumbar vertebrae except:

A) open intervertebral foramina
B) vertebral bodies in profile
C) open right zygapophyseal joints
D) open intervertebral disk spaces

A

Open right zygapophyseal joints

119
Q

How is the central ray directed for the lateral projection of the thoracic vertebrae when the vertebral column is supported in a horizontal plane that is parallel to the image receptor?

A

Perpendicular

120
Q

What is the central ray direction for the PA axial oblique projection of the cervical vertebrae?

A

15-20 degrees caudad

121
Q

Motion at the site of a spinal fusion may be evaluated with the use of:

A

AP projection of the lumbar, left and right lateral bending

Lateral projection on the lumbar, hyperflexion and hyperextension

122
Q

Which of the following projections is used to image the posterior portions of the cervical and thoracic vertebrae?

A

AP axial (pillars)

123
Q

For the PA oblique projection of the right sacroiliac (SI) joint, the patient is positioned in a:

A

25-30 degree RAO

124
Q

Compared with the AP projection, the PA projection of the lumbar vertebrae:

A

Reduces gonadal dose

Aligns the intervertebral disk spaces with the beam divergence

125
Q

How is the central ray directed for the AP axial oblique projection of the vertebral arch (pillars)?

A

35 degrees caudad

126
Q

The AP projection of the lumbar spine for spinal fusion is obtained with the patient positioned:

A

Bending to the sides

127
Q

Which projection may be used to demonstrate early scoliosis changes in the vertebral column?

A

AP projection of the lumbar spine, lateral bending positions

128
Q

What portion of the rib articulates with the transverse process of the thoracic vertebra?

A

Tubercle

129
Q

The bony thorax comprises

A

12 pairs of ribs

12 thoracic vertebrae

130
Q

Which pathological condition is marked by thick, soft bone subject to bowing and fractures?

A

Paget’s disease

131
Q

The curved portion of a rib is termed the:

A

Angle

132
Q

The rib pairs classified as false ribs are:

A

8 through 12

133
Q

The articulation between the inferior portion of the sternum and body of the sternum is the:

A

Xiphisternal joint

134
Q

During imaging of the ribs, the area of interest must first be localized to enable the radiographer to:

A

Choose the appropriate patient position

Give the proper breathing instructions to the patient

135
Q

What is the patient position for the PA oblique projection of the sternum?

A

15 to 20 degrees RAO

136
Q

How is the patient positioned to demonstrate the left posterior axillary ribs?

A

45 degree LPO

137
Q

When the patient is positioned in a 10 to 15 degree LAO position, what anatomy is best demonstrated?

A

Left SC joint

138
Q

Which breathing instructions should be given to a patient to demonstrate the right posterior ribs above the diaphragm?

A

Inhale and hold your breath

139
Q

For the right SC joint to be demonstrated, the patient must be positioned in a:

A

10 to 15 degree RAO

140
Q

The PA oblique projection of the SC joints, central ray angulation method, requires the central ray to be angled:

A

15 degrees toward MSP

141
Q

The PA projection of the ribs demonstrates the:

A

Anterior ribs

142
Q

How are the upper limbs positioned when the patient is in the upright position for the lateral projection of the sternum?

A

Behind the back, with the shoulders rolled posteriorly

143
Q

Where does the central ray enter the patient for the PA oblique projection of the left SC joint?

A

To the right of the MSP at the level of T2-T3

Positioning Final (1 decks)

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