Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physiology > Semester 2 > Flashcards

Semester 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What statement about Action Potentials is CORRECT?

A

It is a transient depolarisation of a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is CORRECT about Intracellular Resting Membrane Potential?

A

It is always NEGATIVE with respect to the extracelluar space!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the effect of raised Extracellular K+ concentration from 4mM to 8mM on the resting membrane potential (RMP) in Excitable cells?

A

RMP is depolarised!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is CORRECT about the Sympathetic Nervous System?

A

When activated, it is responsible for Adrenaline secretion from Adrenal Glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Postganglionic Parasympathetic Nerve Fibres release Acetylcholine to cause what?

A

Activate postsynaptic Muscarinic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is CORRECT regarding myelination of nerves?

A

It allows Saltatory Conduction of action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What occurs at the Neuromuscular Junction?

A

Acetylcholine binds to Nicotinic receptors on the Muscle Membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Repolarisation is…

A

The restoration of difference in charge between inside + outside of cell membrane,
following depolarisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Depolarisation is…

A

LOSS of difference in charge between inside + outside of muscle or nerve cell plasma membrane.
Due to change in permeability AND migration of Na+ ions to the interior!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Resting Membrane Potential is…

A

The electrical potential difference across plasma membrane when cell is in NON- excited state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Threshold Potential is…

A

The membrane potential at which Na+ permeability
(caused by depolarisation)
INCREASES to make Na+ inward flow just equal to the K+ outward flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the role of DRG in Quiet Breathing?

A

To set the rhythm and depth of breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Rank the receptors in terms of STRENGTH of effect of control of breathing.
1 = strongest, 5 = weakest

A 
1 = Central Chemoreceptors
2= Peripheral Chemoreceptors
3= Stretch Receptors
4= Baroreceptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Match the type of receptor with the effect it measures.

A 
[H+] = Central Chemoreceptor
PCO2 = Central Chemoreceptor

Blood Pressure = Baroreceptor

PO2 = Peripheral Chemoreceptor

Expansion of lungs = Stretch Receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What events happen when PCO2 is HIGH?

A
  1. Shift in equilibrium in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) towards the generation of H+ ions
  2. Increased chemoreceptor activity
  3. Increased neural activity in respiratory centres
  4. Respiratory muscle contraction is stimulated
  5. Ventilatory rate and depth increases
  6. Shift in equilibrium in CSF towards generation of Carbonic Acid H2CO3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Baroreceptors influence breathing through stimulation of what?

A

Doral Respiratory Group (DRG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What occurs in Forced breathing?

A

Activation of DRG by central chemoreceptors

Activation of VRG by stretch receptors

Activation of VRG by baroreceptors!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The intracellular fluid can be distinguished from the extracellular fluid by the HIGH concentration of … ions in the ICF and LOW concentration of …, … and … ions

A

K +

Cl-, Na+ and HCO3-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens when extracellular [K+] decreases?

Concentration outside the cell goes down

A

Cells become LESS excitable.

Diffusion across the membrane is GREATER and the required membrane potential to balance the movement is MORE NEGATIVE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens when INTRAcellular [K+] increases?

Concentration inside the cell goes up

A

Membrane potential (concentration inside the cell) becomes LESS negative than resting membrane potential.

Membrane becomes depolarised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many neurons in Somatic and Autonomic pathways?

A

Somatic - 1 neuron in each direction

Autonomic - 2 neurons, pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why are different receptor subtypes used for Adrenaline and Noradrenaline?

A

The receptors have different affinities for adrenaline vs noradrenaline therefore will have different ‘strength’ of response to each!

Adrenaline and noradrenaline have different effects in different tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which neurotransmitters are used on target cells in:
A) Somatic motor neurones
B) Sympathetic Nervous System
C) Parasympathetic Pathways

A

A) Acetylcholine

B) At ganglion - acetylcholine
At target organ - noradrenaline

C) Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which receptors are responsible for spreading the message on target cells in:

A) Somatic motor neurones
B) Sympathetic Nervous System
C) Parasympathetic Pathways

A

A) At target organ - nicotinic ACh receptors

B) At ganglion - nicotinic ACh receptors
At target organ - Adrenergic (a and b) receptors

C) at ganglion - nicotinic ACh receptors
At target organ - muscarinic ACh receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What could cause the differences between experimental and predicted values for VC, FRC and TLC?

A

Individual variation
Predicted values are based on LARGE- scale population studies and are averages!
Practical considerations - if experimental values are lower, volunteer may have struggled to breathe through the flow head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Compared to normal breathing, how are FEV1 values affected by stimulating airways obstruction?

A

Expiratory rate is lower
FEV1 will be a smaller fraction of the total expired volume than in normal breathing
The decrease in FEV1 will result in significantly lower FEV1/ FVC ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the effects of smoking on respiration?

A

Increases mucous secretion which can cause obstruction
Increased risk of infection = increased inflammation and narrowing of airways

Increased RV
Decreased FVC and FEV1

Long term effects - destruction of alveolar surface and development of emphysema or COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the carrier protein that transports absorbed iron through the blood?

A

Transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of cell is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections that are less than 3% of leukocyte population and only live up to 12 hours?

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does it indicate is someone has a sore throat and swollen lymph nodes?

A

The affected Lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What DOES NOT describe a component of the life cycle of erythrocytes?

A

Biliverdin is the protein that stores iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is false about erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets?

A

They are whole cells found in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Polymononuclear phagocyte cells include which of the following leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils and mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is FALSE about blood grouping?

A

Type AB persons are called universal donors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If someone’s blood cells agglutinate when mixed with anti-A serum but NOT with anti-B serum, what can you infer about their blood type?

A

Their plasma contains B antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What substance stimulates the formation of platelets?

A

Thrombopoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is NOT involved in platelet plug formation?

A

Vascular spasm due to smooth muscle contraction, pain reflex and factor release from active platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, making to more likely to be phagocytosis is called…

A

Opsonisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The INTRINSIC pathway of coagulation is activated by what?

A

Activation of pro enzyme exposed to collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The function of opsonisation is…

A

To enable phagocytosis of the pathogen by phagocytes (neutrophils, basophils, monocytes and macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens if a person with type A blood receives a transfusion of type B blood?

A

( recipients blood contains A antigens on erythrocytes and anti B antibodies in plasma).
(Donors blood contains B antigens and anti A antibodies in plasma).

1) Anti B antibodies in recipients plasma will bind to the B antigens on the donors erythrocytes
2) Anti A antibodies in donors plasma can bind to A antigens on recipients red blood cells - this is a LESS SERIOUS reaction as donors anti A antibodies are very diluted in recipients plasma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the symptoms of anaemia?

A 
Fatigue and loss of energy 
Unusually rapid heartbeat and shortness of breath, particularly during exercise 
Dizziness 
Pale skin 
Insomnia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is anaemia and what are the signs?

A

Anaemia - lowered ability of the blood to carry oxygen

Signs:
Decrease in number of erythrocytes
OR
Decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in the blood

44
Q

What happens to capillary BP and GFR when afferent arteriole dilates?

A

If you dilate - means there’s more blood coming in! So…

Capillary blood pressure will be higher
GFR will go up

45
Q

Glomerular filtration rate…

A

Can be measured by the clearance rate of creatinine

46
Q

What is true about bodily fluid?

A

60% male and 55% female of total body weight is water!

47
Q

What is NOT correct about blood plasma?

A

Blood plasma contains HIGH concentration of K+ and Mg2+ and LOW concentrations of Na+ and Cl-

48
Q

What is the most numerous leukocyte?

A

Neutrophil

49
Q

Haematopoiesis is defined as…

A

Differentiation from a common progenitor cell

50
Q

What is NOT true about erythrocytes?

A

They are biconcave structures with a lifespan of 30 days

51
Q

What is the main function of neutrophils?

A

Defence against bacteria by phagocytosis

52
Q

What are the functions of blood?

A

Transport O2 and CO2
Transport nutrients
Transport hormones

53
Q

Why would iron deficiency cause anaemia?

A

Erythrocytes need Fe2+ for haemoglobin to transport gases

54
Q

What is NOT a blood grouping system?

A

Buffy

55
Q

Why is ABO blood grouping most considered when identifying antigen / antibody interactions?

A

They are IgM antibodies, bind strongly and agglutinate cells

56
Q

What are the functions of lymph?

A

Removal of interstitial fluid
Transport of leukocytes (white blood cells)
Lymph nodes act as filters where macrophages remove microbes

57
Q

Opsonisation marks things for destruction, what is true about this process?

A

Opsonins coat the outside of target
Complement proteins may be opsonins
Provide handles for phagocytes to attach for phagocytosis

58
Q

The complement cascade and the clotting cascade have 1 common feature, what is it?

A

Both are activation cascades of proteases

59
Q

What is NOT true about haemostasis?

A

Culminates in fibrin formation to stabilise clots

60
Q

What factors control the movement of water between interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid?

A

Osmolarity difference
pH differences
Number of transporters
Amount of ATP present

61
Q

Where does urine (formed by the nephrons) first drain into?

A

J - Papillary duct in renal renal pyramid

62
Q

Increased secretion of Aldosterone would result in an … of blood …

A

Increase

Volume

63
Q

What statement about the glomerular filtrate is correct?

A

It is formed at about 125 mL / min in a normal healthy adult

64
Q

What statement about the proximal tubule function is correct?

A

It recovers about 80% of the filtered fluid back to the bloodstream

65
Q

What waste product is normally excreted by the kidneys?

A

Urea

66
Q

What term means the return of substances into the bloodstream from the filtrate?

A

Reabsorption

67
Q

Glomerular capillaries and podocytes together form which of the following?

A

Filtration membrane

68
Q

What type of cells are found in the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

Simple cuboidal epithelial cells

69
Q

In which structure of the nephron does filtration occur?

A

Renal corpuscle

70
Q

Bladder filling is brought about by…

A

Relaxation of the urinary bladder

71
Q

Hypoventilation results in which of the following conditions?

A

Respiratory Acidosis

72
Q

Increased secretion of hydrogen ions would result in a …

A

Increase of blood pH

73
Q

Increased secretion of Aldosterone would result in an increase of blood…

A

Volume

74
Q

What transports urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder?

A

Ureter

75
Q

Consumption of salty food causes an increase in what hormone?

A

Anti- diuretic hormone (ADH)

76
Q

The kidneys realise Renin to cause an increase in blood…

A

Pressure

77
Q

In the proximal convoluted tubules, the reabsorption of a nutrient like glucose through the apical membranes occurs by…

A

Na+ / glucose symporter

78
Q

How do you think membrane potential changes?

A

Availability of ion channels - number and type in the membrane

Movement of charged ions across the membrane - Na+ in and K+ channels

79
Q

Explain the steps of excitation - contraction coupling for muscle contraction and relaxation

A
  1. Action potential propagates along surface membrane and down T-tubules
  2. Depolarisation opens Ca2+ channels in sarcoplasmic reticulum (ca2+ stores)
  3. Ca2+ released into sarcoplasm and [Ca2+] rises, 10- fold increase!
  4. Ca2+ binds to Troponin and CONTRACTS muscle
  5. Ca2+ re- accumulated by sER via a Ca2+ - ATPase pump and muscle RELAXES
80
Q

Pulmonary Ventilation refers to…

A

The movement of air into and out of the lungs

81
Q

Surfactant helps to prevent…

A

The Alveoli from collapsing

82
Q

What is correct in regards to Quiet Breathing?

A

Inspiration involves muscular contraction and Expiration is passive

83
Q

An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will…

A

Increase pulmonary ventilation

84
Q

Air moves out of the lungs because…

A

The volume of the lungs DECREASES with expiration

85
Q

The upper respiratory tract includes all EXCEPT the…

A

Lungs

86
Q

The Dorsal Respiratory Group controls…

A

The contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostals

87
Q

What would make the oxygen haemoglobin curve shift to the RIGHT?

A

Increased H+ concentration

88
Q

What is FALSE about left ventricular ejection phase?

A

It is when the pressure in the left ventricle is lower than the aortic pressure

89
Q

The period of ventricular contraction during the cardiac cycle is controlled by…

A

The stimulation of parasympathetic (vagal) nerve fibres

90
Q

What is FALSE regarding the baroreceptor reflex?

A

It is responsible for the regulation of heart rate

91
Q

What is correct about the heart?

A

It ejects about 5 litres of blood per minute in a typical resting adult

92
Q

List what the propagation of an action potential in the heart travels through.

A

SA node > atria > AV node > bundle of his > purkinje fibres > ventricles

93
Q

What is true about the electrocardiogram ECG?

A

The T wave corresponds to ventricular repolarisation

94
Q

What is FALSE about the left ventricular isovolumic relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle?

A

The Mitral Valve is opened

95
Q

Arterial blood pressure is the product of what?

A

Cardiac output and Systemic vascular resistance

96
Q

Cardiac muscle requires…

A

An electrical stimulation to contract!

97
Q

In the respiratory system, the MAJOR difference between a volume and a capacity is that…

A

A capacity is the sum of AT LEAST 2 volumes

98
Q

During Normal Expiration, what occurs?

A

Elastic recoil of the stretched muscles helps return the Thorax to its resting volume

99
Q

List the correct order of events starting at resting membrane potential in the generation of an action potential.

A
  1. The membrane depolarises to threshold
  2. Voltage gated Na+ and K+ channels begin to open
  3. Rapid Na+ entry
  4. Na+ channels close
  5. K+ moves from cell to extracellular fluid
  6. Hyper polarisation occurs
100
Q

During Inspiration, the diaphragm and other chest muscles … causing the thoracic cavity to…

A

Contract

Expand

101
Q

At the Nerve Skeletal Muscle junction, … neurons release … in … from the presynaptic nerve terminal to induce … release from sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A

Motor
Acetylcholine
Vesicles
Calcium

102
Q

What is NOT a major function of the kidney?

A

Regulation of blood cell size

103
Q

What is correct about Residual Volume RV?

A

Is it the volume of gas LEFT in the respiratory system after exhaling maximally

104
Q

What is correct about Tidal Volume VT?

A

It is the volume breached in each breath during Quiet Breathing

105
Q

What is FALSE about the Adrenal Medulla?

A

It is activated by parasympathetic nerves

106
Q

During excitation contraction coupling in skeletal muscle…

A

The intracellular Ca2+ concentration is transiently increased

107
Q

What is correct regarding gas transport?

A

The chloride shift enables carbonate ion release into the plasma for transport

Physiology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions