Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DCS 207 Cardiac Sonography Theory 1 > Semester 1 Pool > Flashcards

Semester 1 Pool Flashcards

1
Q

According to the electrocardiogram (EKG), electrical systole is:

A. Onset of the QRS to the onset of the T wave
B. Onset of the T wave to the onset of the P wave
C. Onset of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave
D. End of the T wave to the onset of the QRS complex

A

C. Onset of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All of the following are components of a pulsed-wave Doppler of a pulmonary vein EXCEPT:

A. E
B. AR
C. S2
D. S1

A

A. E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

All of the following are considered a part of normal ventricular diastole EXCEPT:
A. Atrial systole
B. Early passive filling
C. Ventricular depolarization
D. Isovolumic relaxation

A

C. Ventricular depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

All of the following are true statements concerning the left ventricle EXCEPT:

A. Heavily trabeculated
B. Contains two papillary muscle groups
C. Bullet shaped (truncated ellipsoid)
D. Top normal thickness is approximately 1.0 cm

A

A. Heavily trabeculated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All of the following are true statements concerning the right ventricle EXCEPT:

A. Most anterior positioned cardiac chamber
B. Heavily trabeculated
C. Normal wall thickness is 0.3 to 0.5 cm
D. Normally forms the cardiac apex

A

D. Normally forms the cardiac apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All of the following left ventricular wall segments may be evaluated in the parasternal long-axis view EXCEPT:

A. Cardiac apex
B. Mid-anterior interventricular septum
C. Basal anterior interventricular septum

A

A. Cardiac apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All of the following left ventricular wall segments may be evaluated in the parasternal short-axis of the left ventricle at the level of the papillary muscles EXCEPT:

A. Anterolateral
B. Anterior interventricular septum
C. Cardiac apex
D. Anterior wall

A

C. Cardiac apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

All of the following structures are located in the right atrium EXCEPT:

A. Crista terminalis
B. Moderator band
C. Eustachian valve
D. Thebesian valve

A

B. Moderator band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

All of the following ventricular wall segments may be supplied by the right coronary artery EXCEPT:

A. Basal and mid-inferolateral walls of the left ventricle
B. Basal and mid-anterior interventricular septum
C. Basal and mid-inferior walls of the left ventricle
D. Lateral wall of the right ventricle

A

B. Basal and mid-anterior interventricular septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

All of the following wall segments may be visualized in the apical four-chamber view EXCEPT:

A. Anterior interventricular septum
B. Cardiac apex
C. Lateral wall of the right ventricle
D. Anterolateral wall

A

A. Anterior interventricular septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

All of the following wall segments may be visualized in the apical two-chamber view EXCEPT:

A.Right ventricular outflow tract
B. Inferior wall
C. Anterior wall
D. Cardiac apex

A

A.Right ventricular outflow tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Normal pressure values in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) for the listed cardiac chambers or great vessels include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Aorta: 100 to 140 systolic; 3 to 12 end-diastolic
B. Pulmonary artery: 15 to 30 systolic; 2 to 12 mean diastolic
C. Right atrial pressure: 2 to 8 mean
D. Right ventricle: 15 to 30 systolic; 2 to 8 diastolic

A

A. Aorta: 100 to 140 systolic; 3 to 12 end-diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Structures of the mitral valve apparatus include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Papillary muscles
B. Sinuses of Valsalva
C. Chordae tendineae
D. Mitral valve annulus

A

B. Sinuses of Valsalva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The Chiari network is found in the:

A. Left ventricle
B. Right atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left atrium

A

B. Right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The boundaries of the functional left ventricular outflow tract are best described as extending from the:

A.Free edge of the anterior mitral valve leaflet to the aortic valve annulus
B.Anterior aortic valve annulus to the posterior aortic valve annulus
C. Anteromedial position of the tricuspid valve annulus to the pulmonic valve annulus
D. Tips of the left ventricular papillary muscles to the edge of the anterior mitral valve leaflet

A

A.Free edge of the anterior mitral valve leaflet to the aortic valve annulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The coronary sinus can be differentiated from the descending thoracic aorta with pulsed-wave Doppler because coronary sinus flow is predominantly diastolic while aortic flow is:

A.Phasic
B. Predominantly diastolic
C. Predominantly systolic
D. Equiphasic

A

C. Predominantly systolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The correct order for the branches of the transverse aorta (aortic arch) is:

A. Sinus of Valsalva, right innominate, left innominate
B. Right brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian
C. Left subclavian, right subclavian, left common carotid
D. Right brachiocephalic; left brachiocephalic, left common carotid

A

B. Right brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The crista terminalis is found in the:

A. Right ventricle
B. Right atrium
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle

A

B. Right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The eustachian valve is found in the:

A. Left atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle

A

C. Right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The imaginary boundaries that define the mid-left ventricle are the:

A. Tip of the papillary muscles to the base of the papillary muscles
B. Aortic annulus to the edge of the mitral valve
C. Base of the papillary muscles to the cardiac apex
D. Mitral annulus to the tip of the papillary muscles

A

A. Tip of the papillary muscles to the base of the papillary muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The left anterior descending coronary artery supplies blood to all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Apical cap
B. Anterior wall of the left ventricle
C. Inferior wall of the left ventricle
D. Anterior interventricular septum

A

C. Inferior wall of the left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The moderator band is always located in the:

A. Left ventricle
B. Right atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left atrium

A

C. Right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The most likely explanation of main pulmonary artery dilatation is:

A. Truncus arteriosus
B. Carcinoid heart disease
C. Bicuspid aortic valve
D. Pulmonary hypertension

A

D. Pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The name of the aortic segment located between the left subclavian artery and the insertion of the ligamentum arteriosum is the:

A. Aortic isthmus
B. Transverse aorta
C. Sino-tubular junction
D. Aortic root

A

A. Aortic isthmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The names of the two left ventricular papillary muscle groups are:

A. Superior; inferior
B. Anterolateral; posteromedial
C. Anterior; posterior
D. Medial; lateral

A

B. Anterolateral; posteromedial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The most common cause of chronic tricuspid regurgitation is:

A. Tricuspid valve prolapse
B. Rheumatic heart disease
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Ebstein’s anomaly

A

C. Pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The most common etiology of pulmonary regurgitation is:

A. Carcinoid heart disease
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Rheumatic heart disease

A

C. Pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The most common etiology of tricuspid stenosis is:

A. Right atrial myxoma
B. Rheumatic fever
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Carcinoid heart disease

A

B. Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The murmur of tricuspid regurgitation is best described as a:

A. Systolic ejection murmur heard best at the upper right sternal border
B. Holodiastolic murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border
C. Pansystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex with radiation to the axilla
D. Pansystolic murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border

A

D. Pansystolic murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The pulmonary vein atrial reversal wave may be _______ in peak velocity and duration in a patient with severe acute aortic regurgitation.

A. Increased
B. Unchanged
C. Reversed
D. Decreased

A

A. Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The severity of aortic regurgitation may best be determined with color flow Doppler by all of the following methods EXCEPT:

A. Measuring the aortic regurgitation jet aliasing area in the parasternal long-axis view
B. Determining the presence of holodiastolic flow reversal in the descending thoracic aorta and/or abdominal aorta
C. Measuring the vena contracta in the parasternal long-axis view
D. Comparing the aortic regurgitation jet width with the left ventricular outflow tract width in the parasternal long-axis view

A

A. Measuring the aortic regurgitation jet aliasing area in the parasternal long-axis view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The typical two-dimensional echocardiographic findings in rheumatic tricuspid stenosis include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Systolic bowing of the posterior tricuspid valve leaflet
B. Diastolic doming of the anterior tricuspid valve leaflet
C. Right atrial dilatation
D. Leaflet thickening especially at the leaflet tips and chordae tendineae

A

A. Systolic bowing of the posterior tricuspid valve leaflet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When two-dimensional evaluation of a systolic ejection murmur reveals a thickened aortic valve with normal systolic excursion and a peak velocity across the aortic valve of 1.5 m/s. The diagnosis is most likely aortic valve:

A. Sclerosis
B. Stenosis
C. Prolapse
D. Regurgitation

A

A. Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A tricuspid regurgitation peak velocity of 3.0 m/s is obtained. This indicates:

A. Mild tricuspid regurgitation
B. Severe tricuspid regurgitation
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Moderate tricuspid regurgitation

A

C. Pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

All of the following are cardiac Doppler findings for tricuspid valve stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Increased mean pressure gradient
B. Increased tricuspid valve E wave velocity
C. Decreased pressure half-time
D. Decreased tricuspid valve area

A

C. Decreased pressure half-time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

All of the following are considered useful quantitative measurements to determine the severity of aortic regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Regurgitant fraction
B. Peak velocity of aortic regurgitation
C. Effective regurgitant orifice
D. Regurgitant volume

A

B. Peak velocity of aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

All of the following are dilated in significant chronic tricuspid regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Right atrium
B. Hepatic veins
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Pulmonary veins

A

D. Pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

All of the following color flow Doppler findings indicate significant pulmonary regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Wide jet width at origin
B. Peak velocity of <1.0 m/s
C. Holodiastolic flow reversal in the main pulmonary artery
D. Jet width/Right ventricular outflow tract width > 70%

A

B. Peak velocity of <1.0 m/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An intracardiac pressure that may be determined from the continuous-wave Doppler tricuspid regurgitation signal is:

A. Pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure
B. Systolic pulmonary artery pressure
C. Mean pulmonary artery pressure
D. Systemic vascular resistance

A

B. Systolic pulmonary artery pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cardiac Doppler findings associated with significant chronic tricuspid regurgitation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Systolic flow reversal in the pulmonary vein
B. Increased E velocity of the tricuspid valve
C. Systolic flow reversal in the hepatic vein
D. Concave late systolic configuration of the regurgitation signal

A

A. Systolic flow reversal in the pulmonary vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Causes of anatomic tricuspid regurgitation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Ebstein’s anomaly
B. Carcinoid heart disease
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Infective endocarditis

A

C. Pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Echocardiographic evidence of severe acute aortic regurgitation includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Premature opening of the mitral valve
B. Premature closure of the mitral valve
C. Reverse doming of the anterior mitral valve leaflet
D. Premature opening of the aortic valve

A

A. Premature opening of the mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Holodiastolic flow reversal in the descending thoracic aorta and/or the abdominal aorta may be present in each of the following EXCEPT:

A. Severe mitral regurgitation
B. Aortopulmonary window
C. Severe aortic regurgitation
D. Patent ductus arteriosus

A

A. Severe mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In a patient with severe acute aortic regurgitation the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure increases rapidly. This pathophysiology will affect which of the following?

A. Systolic ejection period
B. Closure of the mitral valve
C. Closure of the pulmonary valve
D. Left ventricular dimension

A

B. Closure of the mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In significant chronic aortic regurgitation, M-mode and two-dimensional evidence includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Left ventricular dilatation
B. Hyperkinesis of the posterior (inferolateral) wall of the left ventricle
C. Paradoxical interventricular septal motion
D. Hyperkinesis of the interventricular septum

A

C. Paradoxical interventricular septal motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

M-mode and two-dimensional echocardiographic findings for chronic tricuspid regurgitation include:

A. Protected right ventricle
B. Left ventricular volume overload
C. Paradoxical interventricular septal motion
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy

A

C. Paradoxical interventricular septal motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Methods for determining the severity of tricuspid regurgitation with pulsed-wave Doppler include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Laminar flow of the tricuspid regurgitant jet
B. Peak velocity of the tricuspid regurgitant jet
C. Increased E wave velocity of the tricuspid valve
D. Holosystolic flow reversal of the hepatic vein

A

B. Peak velocity of the tricuspid regurgitant jet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Possible echocardiographic and cardiac Doppler findings in a patient with carcinoid heart disease include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Tricuspid stenosis
B. Tricuspid valve prolapse
C. Pulmonary regurgitation
D. Tricuspid regurgitation

A

B. Tricuspid valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Posterior displacement of the aortic valve leaflet(s) into the left ventricle outflow tract during ventricular diastole is called aortic valve:

A. Stenosis
B. Perforation
C. Prolapse
D. Sclerosis

A

C. Prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Premature closure of the mitral valve is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Loss of sinus rhythm
B. First-degree atrioventricular block
C. Acute severe mitral regurgitation
D. Acute severe aortic regurgitation

A

C. Acute severe mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Severe aortic regurgitation is diagnosed with continuous-wave Doppler by all of the following criteria EXCEPT:

A. A maximum velocity of 4 m/s
B. Steep deceleration slope
C. Increased jet density
D. A pressure half-time of < 200 msec

A

A. A maximum velocity of 4 m/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Significant chronic pulmonary regurgitation is associated with:

A. Right ventricular volume overload
B. Right ventricular hypertrophy
C. Right atrial hypertrophy
D. Left ventricular volume overload

A

A. Right ventricular volume overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Signs of significant tricuspid regurgitation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Right ventricular heart failure
B. Pulsus paradoxus
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Jugular venous distention

A

B. Pulsus paradoxus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The M-mode finding that indicates severe acute aortic regurgitation is premature aortic valve:

A. Closure
B. Systolic flutter
C. Opening
D. Mid-systolic closure

A

C. Opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The M-mode/two-dimensional echocardiography parameters that have been proposed as an indicator for aortic valve replacement in severe chronic aortic regurgitation are left ventricular:

A. End-diastolic dimension ≤ 55 mm and fractional shortening of ≥ 25%
B. End-systolic dimension ≥ 55 mm and fractional shortening of ≤ 25%
C. End-diastolic dimension ≥ 70 mm and left atrial dimension ≥ 55 mm
D. End-diastolic dimension ≥ 55 mm and fractional shortening ≤ 25%

A

B. End-systolic dimension ≥ 55 mm and fractional shortening of ≤ 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The continuous-wave Doppler signal of aortic regurgitation may be differentiated from the continuous-wave Doppler signal of mitral stenosis by the following guideline:

A. Cannot be differentiated by continuous-wave Doppler.
B. If the diastolic flow pattern commences before mitral valve opening then the signal is due to aortic regurgitation
C. The Doppler flow velocity pattern of mitral valve stenosis is laminar while the Doppler flow pattern of aortic regurgitation is turbulent.
D. If the diastolic flow pattern commences after mitral valve opening then the signal is due to aortic regurgitation

A

B. If the diastolic flow pattern commences before mitral valve opening then the signal is due to aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The mitral valve pulsed-wave Doppler flow pattern often associated with severe acute aortic regurgitation is grade:

A. II (pseudonormal)
B. III or IV (restrictive)
C. I (impaired relaxation)
D. Normal for age

A

B. III or IV (restrictive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

All of the following represents possible etiologies for acute aortic regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Infective endocarditis
B. Aortic dissection
C. Aortic valve sclerosis
D. Trauma

A

C. Aortic valve sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

An effect of significant aortic valve stenosis on the left ventricle is:

A. Eccentric left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Asymmetrical septal hypertrophy
C. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy
D. Protected in significant aortic valve stenosis

A

C. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Aortic valve with reduced systolic excursion. On physical examination there was a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur and a diastolic decrescendo murmur heard. The most likely diagnosis is aortic valve:

A. Stenosis and mitral valve prolapse
B. Stenosis and regurgitation
C. Flail
D. Regurgitation

A

B. Stenosis and regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cardiac Doppler parameters used to assess the severity of valvular aortic stenosis include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Aortic velocity ratio
B. Mean pressure gradient
C. Peak aortic valve velocity
D. Aortic pressure half-time

A

D. Aortic pressure half-time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging provides all of the following information in a patient with aortic regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Effective regurgitant orifice
B. Left ventricular volumes
C. Regurgitant volume
D. Detailed resolution of the aortic valve

A

D. Detailed resolution of the aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In the parasternal long-axis view, severe aortic valve stenosis is defined as an aortic valve leaflet separation that measures:

A. ≤ 12 mm
B. ≤ 10 mm
C. ≤ 8 mm
D. ≥ 14 mm

A

C. ≤ 8 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Of the transvalvular pressure gradients that can be measured in the echocardiography laboratory, the most useful in examining aortic valve stenosis is probably:

A. Peak instantaneous pressure gradient
B. Mean systolic gradient
C. Mean diastolic gradient
D. Peak-to-peak gradient

A

B. Mean systolic gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pathologies that may result in a left ventricular pressure overload include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Systemic hypertension
B. Valvular aortic stenosis
C. Discrete subaortic stenosis
D. Mitral valve stenosis

A

D. Mitral valve stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Possible two-dimensional echocardiographic findings in significant aortic valve stenosis include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Post-stenotic dilatation of the descending aorta
B. Aortic valve calcification
C. Post-stenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy

A

A. Post-stenotic dilatation of the descending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Reverse diastolic doming of the anterior mitral valve leaflet is associated with:

A. Papillary muscle dysfunction
B. Flail mitral valve
C. Severe aortic regurgitation
D. Rheumatic mitral valve stenosis

A

C. Severe aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Secondary echocardiographic findings associated with severe valvular aortic stenosis include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Decreased left ventricular systolic function (late in course)
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Post-stenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta

A

C. Right ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The Doppler maximum peak instantaneous pressure gradient in a patient with aortic stenosis is 100 mm Hg. The cardiac catheterization peak-to-peak pressure gradient will most likely be:

A. Dependent upon respiration
B. Equal to 100 mm Hg
C. Lower than 100 mm Hg
D. Higher than 100 mm Hg

A

C. Lower than 100 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The LEAST common valve regurgitation found in normal patients is:

A.Tricuspid regurgitation
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Pulmonary regurgitation

A

C. Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The aortic valve area considered severe aortic valve stenosis is:

A. < 2 cm^2
B. ≤ 1.0 cm^2
C. < 3 cm^2
D. < 1.5 cm^2

A

B. ≤ 1.0 cm^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The characteristic M-mode findings for aortic valve stenosis include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Reduced leaflet separation in systole
B. Diastolic flutter of the aortic valve leaflets
C. Thickening of the aortic valve leaflets
D. A lack of systolic flutter of the aortic valve leaflets

A

B. Diastolic flutter of the aortic valve leaflets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The characteristic feature of the murmur of chronic aortic regurgitation is a:

A. Diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best along the left sternal border
B. Harsh systolic ejection murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border
C. Diastolic rumble following an opening snap
D. Diastolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard best along the left upper sternal border

A

A. Diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best along the left sternal border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The echocardiographer may differentiate between the similar systolic flow patterns seen in coexisting severe aortic valve stenosis and mitral regurgitation by all the following EXCEPT

A. Mitral regurgitation flow always lasts until mitral valve opening, whereas aortic valve stenosis flow does not.
B. Aortic ejection time is shorter that the mitral regurgitation time
Mitral regurgitation flow always lasts until mitral valve opening, whereas aortic valve stenosis flow does not.
C. Since both are systolic flow patterns, it is not possible to separate mitral regurgitation from aortic valve stenosis
D. Mitral diastolic filling profile should be present during recording of the mitral regurgitation, whereas no diastolic flow is observed in aortic valve stenosis.

A

C. Since both are systolic flow patterns, it is not possible to separate mitral regurgitation from aortic valve stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The hallmark M-mode finding for aortic regurgitation is:

A. Fine diastolic flutter of the anterior mitral valve leaflet
B. Chaotic diastolic flutter of the mitral valve
C. Systolic flutter of the aortic valve
D. Coarse diastolic flutter of the anterior mitral valve leaflet

A

A. Fine diastolic flutter of the anterior mitral valve leaflet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The most common etiology of chronic aortic regurgitation is:

A. Dilatation of the aortic root and aortic annulus
B. Marfan’s syndrome
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Trauma

A

A. Dilatation of the aortic root and aortic annulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The murmur associated with severe aortic regurgitation is:

A. Carvallo’s
B. Still’s
C. Austin-Flint
D. Graham-Steell

A

C. Austin-Flint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The murmur of aortic stenosis is described as:

A. Diastolic rumble
B. Systolic ejection murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border
C. Holodiastolic decrescendo murmur heard best at the right sternal border
D. Holosystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex

A

B. Systolic ejection murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The onset of flow to peak aortic velocity continuous-wave Doppler tracing in severe valvular aortic stenosis is:

A. Increased with inspiration
B. Increased
C. Decreased with expiration
D. Decreased

A

B. Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The pulse that is characteristic of significant valvular aortic stenosis is:

A. Pulsus alternans
B. Pulsus parvus et tardus
C. Pulsus paradoxus
D. Pulsus bisferiens

A

B. Pulsus parvus et tardus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The severity of aortic valve stenosis may be underestimated if only the maximum velocity measurement is used in the following condition:

A. Doppler intercept angle of 0°
B. Anemia
C. Low cardiac output
D. Significant aortic regurgitation

A

C. Low cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The two-dimensional view which best visualizes systolic doming of the aortic valve leaflets is the:

A. Subcostal short-axis view of the aortic valve
B. Parasternal short-axis view of the aortic valve
C. Parasternal long-axis view
D. Apical five-chamber view

A

C. Parasternal long-axis view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Flail mitral valve can be differentiated from severe mitral valve prolapse on two-dimensional echocardiography because flail mitral valve leaflet demonstrates:

A. Chronic mitral regurgitation
B. Leaflet tip that points toward the left atrium
C. A thicker mitral valve
D. Leaflet tip that points toward the left ventricle

A

B. Leaflet tip that points toward the left atrium

84
Q

In patients with severe acute mitral regurgitation, the continuous-wave Doppler peak velocity of the regurgitant jet is:

A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Unaffected
D. Dependent largely upon left ventricular global systolic function

A

A. Decreased

85
Q

In patients with signIficant mitral regurgitation, the continuous-wave Doppler tracing of the regurgitant lesion may demonstrate a(n):

A. Jet duration of < 85 msec
B. Symmetrical shape of the mitral regurgitation flow velocity spectral display
C. Asymmetrical shape of the mitral regurgitation flow velocity spectral display
D. Jet area of < 20%

A

C. Asymmetrical shape of the mitral regurgitation flow velocity spectral display

86
Q

In patients with significant mitral regurgitation, the isovolumic relaxation time may be:

A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Unaffected
D. Affected by respiration

A

A. Decreased

87
Q

In patients with significant pure mitral regurgitation, the E velocity of the mitral valve pulsed-wave Doppler tracing is:

A. Decreased
B. Unaffected
C. Increased with inspiration
D. Increased

A

D. Increased

88
Q

Mitral valve chordal rupture usually results in:

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Tricuspid regurgitation
C. Pulmonary regurgitation
D. Mitral regurgitation

A

D. Mitral regurgitation

89
Q

On M-mode and two-dimensional echocardiography dense echoes are noted posterior to normal mitral valve leaflets. The probable diagnosis is mitral valve:

A. Vegetation
B. Annular calcification
C. Aneurysm
D. Papilloma

A

B. Annular calcification

90
Q

Quantitative approaches to determine the severity of mitral regurgitation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Regurgitant fraction
B. Regurgitant volume
C. Effective regurgitant orifice
D. Regurgitant jet area

A

D. Regurgitant jet area

91
Q

Secondary causes of mitral valve prolapse include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Bicuspid aortic valve
C. Primary pulmonary hypertension
D. Atrial septal defect

A

B. Bicuspid aortic valve

92
Q

The associated auscultatory findings for mitral valve prolapse include:

A. Pericardial knock
B. Mid-systolic click
C. Ejection click
D. Friction rub

A

B. Mid-systolic click

93
Q

The cardinal symptoms of valvular aortic stenosis include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Anasarca
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Angina pectoris
D. Syncope

A

A. Anasarca

94
Q

The complications of mitral valve prolapse include all of the
following EXCEPT:

A. Significant mitral regurgitation
B. Mitral valve repair and replacement
C. Valvular stenosis
D. Increased risk of infective endocarditis

A

C. Valvular stenosis

95
Q

The effect significant mitral regurgitation has on the pulsed-wave Doppler tracing of the pulmonary veins may be described as:

A. S wave reverses, D wave increases
B. S wave increases, D wave decreases
C. Unaffected
D. S wave increases, D wave decreases

A

A. S wave reverses, D wave increases

96
Q

The etiology of aortic valve stenosis includes all the following EXCEPT:

A. Degenerative
B. Bacterial
C. Congenital
D. Rheumatic

A

B. Bacterial

97
Q

The gold standard two-dimensional echocardiographic view recommended to diagnose the presence of mitral valve prolapse is:

A. Subcostal five-chamber
B. Apical four-chamber
C. Parasternal long-axis
D. Parasternal short-axis of the mitral valve

A

C. Parasternal long-axis

98
Q

The most common symptoms of mitral valve prolapse include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Ascites
B. Syncope
C. Palpitations
D. Atypical chest pain

A

A. Ascites

99
Q

The most likely etiology of aortic valve stenosis in a 47-year-old patient is:

A. Degenerative
B. Endocarditis
C. Congenital
D. Annular

A

C. Congenital

100
Q

The peak mitral regurgitation velocity as determined with continuous-wave Doppler reflects the:

A. Maximum pressure difference between the left atrium and left ventricle
B. Direction of the regurgitant jet
C. Etiology of the mitral regurgitation
D. Severity of the mitral regurgitation

A

A. Maximum pressure difference between the left atrium and left ventricle

101
Q

The term myxomatous degeneration is associated with mitral valve:

A. Vegetation
B. Stenosis
C. Prolapse
D. Flail

A

C. Prolapse

102
Q

There is posterior mitral valve prolapse present. With color flow Doppler on, which direction will the mitral regurgitation jet be baffled?

A. Anterior
B. Cephalad
C. Posterior
D. Inferior

A

A. Anterior

103
Q

Which of the following is most commonly associated with mitral valve prolapse?

A.Left heart volume overload
B. Right heart pressure overload
C. Left heart pressure overload
D. Right heart volume overload

A

A.Left heart volume overload

104
Q

A Doppler mean pressure gradient of 18 mm Hg is calculated in a patient with valvular aortic stenosis. The severity of the aortic stenosis is:

A. Severe
B. Moderately severe
C. Moderate
D. Mild

105
Q

All of the following all associated with significant chronic aortic regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Holosystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex
B. Wide pulse pressure
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Angina pectoris

A

A. Holosystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex

106
Q

All of the following are two-dimensional echocardiography findings in a patient with significant chronic aortic regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Abnormal aortic valve or aortic root
B. Left ventricular enlargement
C. left atrial enlargement
D. Hyperkinetic left ventricular wall motion

A

C. left atrial enlargement

107
Q

All of the following may be measured in the cardiac catheterization laboratory when evaluating aortic stenosis EXCEPT:

A. Peak velocity
B. Maximum peak instantaneous pressure gradient
C. Peak-to-peak pressure gradient
D. Mean pressure gradient

A

A. Peak velocity

108
Q

Secondary echocardiographic/Doppler findings in patients with rheumatic mitral stenosis include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Increased tricuspid regurgitant jet velocity
B. Increase right heart dimensions
C. Left ventricular dilatation
D. Abnormal interventricular septal wall motion

A

C. Left ventricular dilatation

109
Q

Signs and symptoms of mitral stenosis secondary to rheumatic heart disease include:

A. Pulmonary hypertension
B. Vertigo
C. Angina pectoris
D. Cyanosis

A

A. Pulmonary hypertension

110
Q

Systolic bowing of the inter-atrial septum toward the right atrium throughout the cardiac cycle may be an indication of:

A. Tricuspid regurgitation
B. Tricuspid stenosis
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Tricuspid atresia

A

C. Mitral regurgitation

111
Q

The abnormal mitral valve pressure half-time for patients with mitral valve stenosis is:

A. 60 to 90 msec
B. 0 to 30 msec
C. 30 to 60 msec
D. 90 to 400 msec

A

D. 90 to 400 msec

112
Q

The cardiac valves listed in decreasing order as they are affected by rheumatic heart disease are:

A. Pulmonic, aortic, tricuspid, mitral
B. Mitral, aortic, tricuspid, pulmonic
C. Tricuspid, mitral, pulmonic, aortic
D. Aortic, pulmonic, tricuspid, mitral

A

B. Mitral, aortic, tricuspid, pulmonic

113
Q

The classic cardiac Doppler features of mitral valve stenosis include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Turbulent flow
B. Increased mitral valve area
C. Increased pressure half-time
D. Increased E velocity

A

B. Increased mitral valve area

114
Q

The classic description of the murmur of chronic mitral regurgitation is:

A. Systolic ejection murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border
B. Continuous machinery-like murmur
C. Holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex radiating to the axilla
D. Diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best at the left sternal border

A

C. Holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex radiating to the axilla

115
Q

The equation used in the cardiac catheterization laboratory to determine mitral valve area and aortic valve area is the:

A. Gorlin
B. Continuity
C. Bernoulli
D. Doppler

116
Q

The most accurate method for determining the severity of mitral valve stenosis is:

A. Measuring the thickness of the mitral valve leaflets
B. Performing planimetry of the mitral valve orifice by two-dimensional echocardiography
C. Measuring the E-F slope of the anterior mitral valve leaflet by M-mode
D. Determining the maximum velocity across the mitral valve by pulsed-wave Doppler

A

B. Performing planimetry of the mitral valve orifice by two-dimensional echocardiography

117
Q

The most common etiology of mitral stenosis in adults is:

A. Severe mitral annular calcification
B. Rheumatic fever
C. Congenital
D. Left atrial myxoma

A

B. Rheumatic fever

118
Q

The most common presenting symptom of significant chronic mitral regurgitation is:

A. Hemoptysis
B. Dyspnea
C. Ascites
D. Systemic embolization

A

B. Dyspnea

119
Q

The most likely heart sound to be heard in patients with significant chronic pure mitral regurgitation is:

A. Loud S1
B. Fixed split S2
C. Ejection click
D. S3

120
Q

Two-dimensional echocardiographic examination reveals thin mobile mitral valve leaflet tips and a Doppler E velocity of 1.8 m/s with a pressure half-time of 180 msec in an elderly patient. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Rheumatic mitral stenosis
B. Moderate to severe mitral annular calcification
C. Abnormal relaxation of the left ventricle
D. Aortic regurgitation

A

B. Moderate to severe mitral annular calcification

121
Q

Two-dimensional echocardiographic findings for rheumatic mitral stenosis include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Hockey-stick appearance of the anterior mitral valve leaflet
B. Increased left atrial dimension
C. Reverse doming of the anterior mitral valve leaflet
D. Thickened mitral valve leaflets and subvalvular apparatu

A

C. Reverse doming of the anterior mitral valve leaflet

122
Q

Typical echocardiographic findings in a patient with isolated rheumatic mitral stenosis include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Left atrial thrombus
B. D-shaped left ventricle
C. Dilated left ventricle
D. Left atrial enlargement

A

C. Dilated left ventricle

123
Q

A color flow Doppler method for semi-quantitating mitral regurgitation is regurgitant jet:

A. Turbulence
B. Area
C. Height
D. Length

124
Q

A common finding associated with a regurgitant murmur in
the elderly is:

A. Mitral annular calcification
B. Aortic valve stenosis
C. Mitral valve stenosis
D. Mitral valve vegetation

A

A. Mitral annular calcification

125
Q

A key word that is often used to describe the characteristics of the valve leaflets in mitral valve prolapse is:

A. Sclerotic
B. Dense
C. Redundant
D. Doming

A

C. Redundant

126
Q

All of the following are associated with mitral valve prolapse EXCEPT:

A. Aortic valve prolapse
B. Pulmonary atresia
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Tricuspid valve prolapse

A

B. Pulmonary atresia

127
Q

All of the following are true statements concerning mitral regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Mitral regurgitation may result in an increase in preload
B. Regurgitant jet area, vena contracta width and proximal isovelocity surface area are recommended when determining severity
C. Mitral regurgitation may be acute, chronic or intermittent
D. Severity of mitral regurgitation is not affected by afterload

A

D. Severity of mitral regurgitation is not affected by afterload

128
Q

All of the following are useful color-flow Doppler techniques in the evaluation of mitral regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Jet area
B. Peak velocity
C. PISA diameter
D. Vena contracta width

A

B. Peak velocity

129
Q

An accepted method for determining the severity of mitral regurgitation by continuous-wave Doppler is spectral:

A. Jet density
B. Length
C. Width
D. Velocity

A

A. Jet density

130
Q

Cardiac Doppler evidence of severe mitral regurgitation includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Regurgitant jet area/left atrial area ratio > 40%
B. Dense, triangular continuous-wave Doppler tracing
C. Pulmonary vein systolic flow reversal
D. Mitral valve E wave velocity < 1.0 m/sec

A

D. Mitral valve E wave velocity < 1.0 m/sec

131
Q

Diastolic mitral regurgitation is associated with:

A. Severe tricuspid regurgitation
B. Severe aortic regurgitation
C. Flail mitral valve
D. Mitral valve prolapse

A

B. Severe aortic regurgitation

132
Q

Echocardiographic characteristics of mitral valve prolapse include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Systolic bowing of the mitral valve leaflets towards the left atrium
B. Increased mitral valve annulus diameter
C. Diastolic doming of the mitral valve leaflets
D. Thickened, redundant, myxomatous leaflets

A

C. Diastolic doming of the mitral valve leaflets

133
Q

The pulsed-wave Doppler mitral valve peak E wave velocity is 100 cm/s. The lateral wall mitral annulus tissue Doppler imaging E’ wave is 5 cm/s. The diastolic filling pressure is assumed to be:

A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Normal
D. Dependent upon respiration

A

B. Increased

134
Q

The simplified Bernoulli equation disregards all of the following factors EXCEPT:

A. Proximal velocity
B. Viscous friction
C. Velocity at the site of obstruction
D. Flow acceleration

A

C. Velocity at the site of obstruction

135
Q

The stroke volume is 63 mL. The heart rate is 100 beats per minutes. The cardiac output is:

A. 6.3 Lpm
B. 6.3 bpm
C. 63000 Lpm
D. 63 mL

A

A. 6.3 Lpm

136
Q

The top normal peak velocity for the aortic valve is:

A. 1.7 m/s
B. 0.7 m/s
C. 0.9 m/s
D. 2.0 m/s

A

A. 1.7 m/s

137
Q

The tricuspid regurgitation peak velocity is 2.0 m/s. The right ventricular outflow tract velocity time integral is 20 cm. The pulmonary vascular resistance is:

A. Decreased
B. Normal
C. Equal to the peak velocity of the tricuspid regurgitation
D. Increased

138
Q

The tricuspid regurgitation peak velocity is determined to be 3.2 m/s. The inferior vena cava is normal in dimension (< 1.7 cm) and collapsed with a sniff by more than 50%. The right ventricular systolic pressure and systolic pulmonary artery pressure is:

A. 41 mm Hg
B. 44 mm Hg
C. 49 mm Hg
D. 56 mm Hg

A

B. 44 mm Hg

139
Q

The use of the continuity equation in patients with aortic stenosis is based on the premise that:

A. Left ventricular outflow tract flow is greater than flow across the aortic valve
B. As the aortic stenosis progresses, V1 increases
C. As the aortic stenosis progresses, V2 decreases
D. Flow volume in the left ventricular outflow tract equals the flow volume across the aortic valve

A

D. Flow volume in the left ventricular outflow tract equals the flow volume across the aortic valve

140
Q

When evaluating valvular stenosis all of the following are useful Doppler parameters EXCEPT:

A. Peak velocity
B. Peak instantaneous pressure gradient
C. Mean pressure gradient
D. Chamber dimensions

A

D. Chamber dimensions

141
Q

Which of the following represent the lengthened Bernoulli equation?

A. CSA x VTI
B. EDV-ESV
C. 4 x V22
D. 4 x V2 2 – V1 2

A

D. 4 x V2 2 – V1 2

142
Q

With aortic valve stenosis and poor global left ventricular systolic function the severity of aortic stenosis by the Doppler pressure gradient may be:

A. Unpredictable
B. Unaffected
C. Underestimated
D. Overestimated

A

C. Underestimated

143
Q

With aortic valve stenosis and significant aortic regurgitation the severity of the aortic stenosis by the Doppler pressure gradient may be:

A. Overestimated
B. Unpredictable
C. Unaffected
D. Underestimated

A

A. Overestimated

144
Q

A Doppler mean pressure gradient across a stenotic mitral valve of 22 mm Hg is obtained. The severity of the mitral stenosis is:

A. Severe
B. Moderately severe
C. Moderate
D. Mild

145
Q

A deceleration time of 800 msec was obtained by continuous-wave Doppler in a patient with rheumatic mitral valve stenosis. The pressure half-time is:

A. 400 msec
B. 232 msec
C. 800 msec
D. 220 msec

A

B. 232 msec

146
Q

A strong indication for mitral stenosis on two-dimensional echocardiography is an anterior mitral valve leaflet that exhibits:

A. Diastolic doming
B. Systolic bowing
C. Reverse doming
D. Coarse, chaotic diastolic motion

A

A. Diastolic doming

147
Q

All of the following are causes for chronic mitral regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Mitral annular calcification
B. Cleft mitral valve
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Ruptured papillary muscle

A

D. Ruptured papillary muscle

148
Q

All of the following are possible etiologies of anatomic mitral regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Mitral valve prolapse
B. Mitral annular calcification
C. Dilated cardiomyopathy
D. Ruptured chordae tendinea

A

C. Dilated cardiomyopathy

149
Q

Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging provides all of the following information in the evaluation of mitral regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. Left ventricular volumes
B. Left ventricular mass
C. Detailed visualization of the mitral valve apparatus
D. Regurgitant volume

A

C. Detailed visualization of the mitral valve apparatus

150
Q

Chronic significant mitral regurgitation may result in all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Left ventricular volume overload pattern
B. Mitral annular calcification
C. Left atrial enlargement
D. Left ventricular enlargement

A

B. Mitral annular calcification

151
Q

Conditions that may lead to clinical symptoms that mimic those associated with rheumatic mitral stenosis include:

A. Ventricular septal defect
B. Pericardial effusion
C. Left atrial myxoma
D. Aortic stenosis

A

C. Left atrial myxoma

152
Q

Congestive heart failure in a patient with significant chronic mitral regurgitation occurs because of increased pressure in the:

A. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
C. Aorta
D. Left atrium

A

D. Left atrium

153
Q

Critical mitral valve stenosis is said to be present if the mitral valve area is reduced to:

A. 1.5 to 2.5 cm^2
B. 2.5 to 3.5 cm^2
C. 1.0 to 1.5 cm^2
D. < 1.0 cm^2

A

D. < 1.0 cm^2

154
Q

M-mode and two-dimensional findings associated with significant chronic mitral regurgitation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Left ventricular enlargement
B. Left atrial enlargement
C. Fine diastolic flutter of the mitral valve
D. Left ventricular volume overload pattern

A

C. Fine diastolic flutter of the mitral valve

155
Q

Mitral stenosis is considered to be severe by all the following criteria EXCEPT:

A. Mitral valve area ≤ 1.0 cm^2
B. Mitral valve Doppler A wave peak velocity > 1.3 m/s
C. Pressure half-time > 220 msec
D. Mean pressure gradient ≥ 10 mm Hg

A

B. Mitral valve Doppler A wave peak velocity > 1.3 m/s

156
Q

Patients with mitral stenosis, left atrial enlargement and atrial fibrillation are at increased risk for the development of:

A. Left atrial myxoma
B. Left ventricular dilatation
C. Left atrial thrombus
D. Left ventricular thrombus

A

C. Left atrial thrombus

157
Q

Possible signs and symptoms associated with acute severe mitral regurgitation include:

A. Systemic embolization
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Hemoptysis
D. Anasarca

A

B. Pulmonary edema

158
Q

Predict the tissue Doppler imaging E/E’ ratio in a patient with known pseudonormalization of the mitral valve inflow pattern.

A. Increased E’/A’ ratio
B. Decreased E’A’ ratio
C. Normal E’/A’ ratio
D. Dependent upon respiration

A

B. Decreased E’A’ ratio

159
Q

Pressure recovery may explain discrepancies between the pressure gradient measurements acquired in the cardiac catheterization laboratory and the pressure gradient measurements acquired in the echocardiography laboratory (e.g., aortic stenosis, prosthetic aortic valve). Pressure recovery occurs at the:

A. Flow convergence region (PISA)
B. Turbulent region
C. distal to the vena contracta and turbulent region
D. Vena contracta

A

C. distal to the vena contracta and turbulent region

160
Q

Pulmonary regurgitation as detected by Doppler in structurally normal hearts is:

A. An abnormal finding
B. A rare finding
C. A common finding
D. Dependent upon respiration

A

C. A common finding

161
Q

Right ventricular systolic pressure may be calculated when the following condition is present:

A. Mitral regurgitation
B. Pulmonary regurgitation
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Tricuspid regurgitation

A

D. Tricuspid regurgitation

162
Q

The S’ wave of the mitral valve annulus is determined to be 3 cm/s in peak velocity. This suggests:

A. Dependent upon respiration
B. Normal global left ventricular systolic function
C. Reduced global left ventricular systolic function
D. Hyperdynamic global left ventricular systolic function

A

C. Reduced global left ventricular systolic function

163
Q

The blood pressure in a patient with a patent ductus arteriosus is 124/68 mm Hg. The peak velocity across the patent ductus arteriosus as determined by continuous-wave Doppler is 5 m/s. The systolic pulmonary artery pressure is:

A. 124 mm Hg
B. 100 mm Hg
C. 24 mm Hg
D. 34 mm Hg

A

C. 24 mm Hg

164
Q

The blood pressure in a patient with a ventricular septal defect is 114/77 mm Hg. The peak velocity across the ventricular septal defect as determined with continuous-wave Doppler is 4 m/s. The right ventricular systolic pressure and systolic pulmonary artery pressure is:

A. 64 mm Hg
B. 50 mm Hg
C. 55 mm Hg
D. 114 mm Hg

A

B. 50 mm Hg

165
Q

The blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The peak velocity of mitral regurgitation is 5 m/s. The left atrial pressure is:

A. 5 mm Hg
B. 120 mm Hg
C. 20 mm Hg
D. 100 mm Hg

A

C. 20 mm Hg

166
Q

The continuous-wave Doppler maximum aortic regurgitation velocity reflects the:

A. Mean systolic pressure gradient between the aorta and the left ventricle
B. Maximum peak instantaneous diastolic pressure difference between the aorta and the left ventricle
C. Mean diastolic pressure gradient between the aorta and left ventricle
D. Maximum instantaneous systolic pressure gradient between the aorta and left ventricle

A

B. Maximum peak instantaneous diastolic pressure difference between the aorta and the left ventricle

167
Q

The difference between the transmitted frequency and the reflected frequency is known as the:

A. Bernoulli equation
B. Gorlin equation
C. Doppler shift
D. Doppler principle

A

C. Doppler shift

168
Q

The equation which relates the pressure drop across an area of narrowing is the:

A. Bernoulli equation
B. Continuity equation
C. Velocity ratio equation
D. Doppler equation

A

A. Bernoulli equation

169
Q

The expected continuous-wave Doppler peak velocity of tricuspid regurgitation assuming normal intracardiac pressures is:

A. 1.0 m/s
B. 0.5 m/s
C. 3.3 m/s
D. 2.2 m/s

A

D. 2.2 m/s

170
Q

The following data is obtained in a patient with a prosthetic mitral valve: left ventricular outflow tract diameter is 2.0 cm, the left ventricular outflow tract velocity time integral is 15 cm and the prosthetic mitral valve velocity time integral is 47 cm. The mitral valve area by the continuity equation is:

A. 1.0 cm2
B. 30 cm2
C. 3.14 cm2
D. 2.0 cm2

A

A. 1.0 cm2

171
Q

The following data is obtained in a patient with aortic stenosis: left ventricular outflow tract diameter is 2.0 cm, peak left ventricular outflow tract velocity integral is 20 cm, the aortic valve time velocity integral is 40 cm. The aortic valve area is:

A. 0.3 cm2
B. 3.14 cm2
C. 1.57 cm2
D. 0.75 cm2

A

C. 1.57 cm2

172
Q

The following data is obtained in a patient with aortic stenosis: left ventricular outflow tract velocity time integral is 20 cm and the aortic valve velocity time integral is 40 cm. The velocity ratio is:

A. 40
B. 800
C. 20
D. 0.5

173
Q

The following data is obtained: left ventricular outflow tract diameter is 2.2 cm, left ventricular outflow tract peak systolic velocity is 1.1 m/s and the peak systolic aortic valve velocity is 5 m/s. The aortic valve area is:

A. 100 cm2
B. 2.14 cm2
C. 0.83 cm2
D. 0.75 cm2

A

C. 0.83 cm2

174
Q

The formula that is used to calculate the peak pressure gradient in coarctation of the aorta is:

A. 220 ÷ PHT
B. CSA x VTI
C. 4 (V2 2 – V1 2)
D. 4 (V2 2)

A

C. 4 (V2 2 – V1 2)

175
Q

The formula used to estimate left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP) from continuous-wave Doppler recording of aortic regurgitation is LVEDP is equal to:

LVEDP, left ventricular end-diastolic pressure; BPs, systolic blood pressure; Vmax, maximum velocity of aortic regurgitation; AR, aortic regurgitation; BPd, diastolic blood pressure; EDV, end-diastolic velocity.

A. BPd – 4 x EDV AR
B. BPd – 4 x EDV AR2
C. BPd – Vmax AR
D. BPs – Vmax AR

A

B. BPd – 4 x EDV AR2

176
Q

The laminar core of a turbulent jet is called the:

A. Vena contracta
B. Flow convergence region (PISA)
C. Relaminarization
D. Turbulent region

A

A. Vena contracta

177
Q

The left ventricular outflow tract diameter in early ventricular systole as measured in the parasternal long-axis is 2.0 cm. The left ventricular outflow tract time velocity integral is 20 cm. The Doppler stroke volume is:

A. 2 mL
B. 63 mL
C. 3.14 cm
D. 20 mL

178
Q

The mitral valve area can be determined by Doppler with the following formula:

A. 220 ÷ deceleration time
B. Pressure half-time ÷ 220
C. Deceleration time ÷ pressure half-time
D. 220 ÷ pressure half-time

A

D. 220 ÷ pressure half-time

179
Q

The peak velocity across a patent foramen ovale (PFO) is determined to be 1.0 m/s. The right atrial pressure (RAP) is determined to be 5 mm Hg by examination of the characteristics of the inferior vena cava. The left atrial pressure (LAP) is equal to:

A. 1 mm Hg
B. 14 mm Hg
C. 9 mm Hg
D. 4 mm Hg

A

C. 9 mm Hg

180
Q

The peak velocity of pulmonary regurgitation is determined to be 3 m/s. The RAP is 3 mmHg. The mean pulmonary artery pressure is:

A. 9 mm Hg
B. 44 mm Hg
C. 39 mm Hg
D. 3 mm Hg

A

C. 39 mm Hg

181
Q

The pressure drop between two-chambers may be calculated by the formula:

A. 220 ÷ pressure half-time
B. Transmitted frequency – received frequency
C. CSA x VTI
D. 4 x V2 2

A

D. 4 x V2 2

182
Q

The pulmonary regurgitation end velocity is determined to be 2.0 m/s. The inferior vena cava is normal in dimension (< 1.7 cm) and collapses with a sniff by greater than 50%. The pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure is equal to:

A. 19 mm Hg
B. 21 mm Hg
C. 16 mm Hg
D. 7 mm Hg

A

A. 19 mm Hg

183
Q

The normal mitral valve area is:

A. 4 to 6 cm2
B. 3 to 5 cm2
C. 3.5 to 4.5 cm2
D. 5 to 8 cm2

A

A. 4 to 6 cm2

184
Q

The normal volume of clear serous fluid in the pericardial sac is:

A. 20 to 50 mL
B. 200 to 500 mL
C. 200 to 500 L
D. 10 to 50 mL

A

D. 10 to 50 mL

185
Q

The outpouching behind each aortic valve leaflet is called the:

A. Ligamentum arteriosum
B. Sinuses of Valsalva
C. Aortic isthmus
D. Ductus arteriosus

A

B. Sinuses of Valsalva

186
Q

The potential space behind the left atrium where pericardial effusion could accumulate is the:

A. Sinus of Valsalva
B. Oblique sinus
C. Transverse sinus
D. Pleural potential space

A

B. Oblique sinus

187
Q

The section of the aorta that is located between the diaphragm and the iliac arteries is called the:

A. Transverse aorta
B. Descending thoracic aorta
C. Aortic isthmus
D. Abdominal aorta

A

D. Abdominal aorta

188
Q

When should the left atrium be measured?

A. End systole
B. Early diastole
C. Diastasis
D. Late diastole

A

A. End systole

189
Q

Which left ventricular wall segment is LEAST likely to be supplied by the circumflex coronary artery?

A. Lateral wall of the cardiac apex
B. Inferolateral wall of the left ventricle
C. Anterolateral wall of the left ventricle
C. Basal inferior wall of the left ventricle

A

C. Basal inferior wall of the left ventricle

190
Q

Which two-dimensional view is recommended when measuring the right atrium?

A. Subcostal four-chamber
B. Parasternal short-axis of the aortic valve
C. Apical four-chamber
D. Parasternal right ventricular inflow tract

A

C. Apical four-chamber

191
Q

A patient with known aortic stenosis presents for evaluation. The ejection fraction is 22%. The peak velocity across the aortic valve as determined by continuous-wave Doppler is 2.3 m/s. The peak instantaneous pressure gradient is 21 mm Hg. The mean pressure gradient is 14 mm Hg. The severity of the aortic stenosis is:

A. Moderate
B. Requires more information
C. Severe
D. Mild

A

B. Requires more information

192
Q

A peak velocity of 2 m/s is obtained in a patient with rheumatic mitral stenosis. The peak (maximum) instantaneous pressure gradient is:

A. 4 mm Hg
B. 16 mm Hg
C. 26 mm Hg
D. 2 mm Hg

A

B. 16 mm Hg

193
Q

All of the following are simplified PISA methods for determining the severity of mitral regurgitation EXCEPT:

A. ≥ 0.9 cm PISA radius that is holosystolic indicates significant mitral regurgitation
B. 220 ÷ pressure half-time
C. ERO (cm2) = r2 ÷ 2
D. RV (mL) = 2 x r2 x aliasing velocity (cm/s)

A

B. 220 ÷ pressure half-time

194
Q

As a valve orifice narrows because of stenosis pressure proximal to the stenosis will:

A. Increase
B. Increase with inspiration, decrease with expiration
C. Decrease
D. Equilibrate

A

A. Increase

195
Q

Assuming normal intracardiac pressures, predict the peak systolic velocity for a patent ductus arteriosus.

A. 0.5 m/s
B. 5 m/s
C. 3 m/s
D. 1 m/s

196
Q

Assuming normal intracardiac pressures, predict the peak velocity of atrial septal defect.

A. 5 m/s
B. 0.5 m/s
C. 1 m/s
D. 3 m/s

197
Q

Assuming normal intracardiac pressures, the expected continuous-wave Doppler peak velocity of mitral regurgitation would be:

A. 1 m/s
B. 5 m/s
C. 7 m/s
D. 3 m/s

198
Q

Assuming normal intracardiac pressures, the expected peak systolic velocity of a ventricular septal defect would be:

A. 5 m/s
B. 0.5 m/s
C. 1 m/s
D. 3 m/s

199
Q

Assuming normal intracardiac pressures, the expected peak velocity of pulmonary regurgitation is:

A. 3 m/s
B. 4 m/s
C. 1 m/s
D. 2 m/s

200
Q

Components of the Doppler equation include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Propagation speed of sound changes relative to the velocity of the red blood cells.
B. The transmitted ultrasound frequency is an important determinant of the Doppler shift detected.
C. The angle between the ultrasound beam and the direction of blood flow must be known for accurate measurement of blood flow.
D. The cosine of 0° is 1 and it is assumed in echocardiography that the recorded velocity has been obtained at a near-parallel intercept angle.

A

A. Propagation speed of sound changes relative to the velocity of the red blood cells.

201
Q

Determine the Qp/Qs for an atrial septal defect with the following data: RVOTd = 3.0 cm; RVOTVTI = 20 cm; LVOTd = 2.0 cm; LVOTVTI = 10 cm

RVOTd, right ventricular outflow tract diameter; RVOTVTI, right ventricular outflow tract velocity time integral; LVOTd, left ventricular outflow tract diameter; LVOTVTI, left ventricular outflow tract velocity time integral

A. 10:1
B. 3.3:1
C. 2:1
D. 4.5:1

202
Q

Determine the mitral effective regurgitant orifice and regurgitant volume using the PISA method:

Radius: 1.0 cm

Aliasing velocity: 40 cm/s

Mitral regurgitation peak velocity: 500 cm/s

Mitral regurgitation velocity time integral: 110 cm

A. 0.40 cm2; 110 mL
B. 55 cm2; 50 mL
C. 0.50 cm2; 55 mL
D. 1 cm2; 50 mL

A

C. 0.50 cm2; 55 mL

203
Q

Determine the mitral regurgitant volume, regurgitant fraction and effective regurgitant orifice using the following information:

LVOT diameter: 2.0 cm, LVOTVTI: 10 cm,
Mitral valve annulus diameter: 3.0 cm,
Mitral valve annulus VTI: 15 cm, Mitral regurgitation VTI: 200 cm
LVOT, left ventricular outflow tract; VTI, velocity time integral

A. 200 mL; 50%; .75 cm2
B. 34 mL; 17%; .17 cm2
C. 2 mL; 100%; 2 cm2
D. 74 mL; .70%; 37 cm2

A

D. 74 mL; .70%; 37 cm2

204
Q

Formulas that may be used to calculate the cross-sectional area of an orifice or vessel through which blood is flowing include all the following EXCEPT:

r, radius; D, diameter

A. p x (D2 ÷ 4)
B. p x (D ÷ 2)2
C. 2 x p x r2
D. 0.785 x D

A

C. 2 x p x r2

205
Q

In a patient with aortic stenosis the continuous-wave Doppler recordings demonstrate a maximum peak systolic velocity across the aortic valve of 5 m/s. The peak (maximum) instantaneous pressure gradient is:

A. 110 mm Hg
B. 25 mm Hg
C. 5 mm Hg
D. 100 mm Hg

A

D. 100 mm Hg

206
Q

In patients with aortic valve stenosis the pressure gradients measured by Doppler include:

A. Peak (maximum) instantaneous pressure gradient
B. Peak-to-peak pressure gradient
C. Peak (maximum) instantaneous pressure gradient and peak-to-peak gradient
D. Peak-to-mean gradient

A

A. Peak (maximum) instantaneous pressure gradient

DCS 207 Cardiac Sonography Theory 1 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions