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human biology year 12 > semester 1 Flashcards WACE > Flashcards

semester 1 Flashcards WACE

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1
Q

what is homeostasis

A

the maintenance of a constant internal environment while fluctuations occur in the external environment

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2
Q

what is the endocrine system

A

a group of ductless glands which secrete chemical messages known as hormones to the bloodstream

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3
Q

what is a hormone

A

a chemical that is secreted by endocrine glands and that affects the functioning of the cell or organ. it is carried in the bloodstream

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4
Q

what are the key features of hormones

A
  1. target specific
  2. carried in bloodstream
  3. secreted by endocrine glands
  4. they are chemical messengers
  5. only affect the cell if they have receptors for that hormone
  6. change in the functioning of the cell
  7. mostly amines, proteins and steroids
  8. saturation can occur, when no more of that hormone can be used to alter the cell as their are no more receptors
  9. paracrines local hormones which secreted by cells and used in the same organ to increase communication
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5
Q

how do protein and amine hormones work

A

protein and amine hormones work by attaching themselves to the receptors cells on the membrane of the target cells, this usually causes a secondary messenger to be secreted which diffuses through the cell and activates particular enzymes(water soluble)

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6
Q

how do steroid hormones work

A

steroid hormones work by entering target cells and combining with receptor proteins inside the cell. the receptor may be on the mitocondria or other organelles in the nucleus. the hormone receptor complex can cause gene expression to begin

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7
Q

what is an endocrine gland

A

ductless, secretes hormones into extracellular fluid, usually passed through bloodstream

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8
Q

what is an exocrine gland

A

secretes into a duct that carries the secretion to the surface of the body

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9
Q

what hormones does the thyroid gland produce

A

thyroxine and calcitonin

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10
Q

what does both the thyroxine and calcitonin target

A

most cells

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11
Q

what is the action of the thyroxine hormone

A

stimulates metabolism, brings about the release of energy, monitors body temperature

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12
Q

what is the action of the calcitonin hormone

A

lowers blood calcium levels

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13
Q

what is the hormone produced from the paratyroid glamd

A

parathyroid gland

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14
Q

what does the parathyroid hormone target

A

bones, kidneys

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15
Q

what is the action of the parathyroid

A

to increase blood calcium levels

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16
Q

what hormone is secreted from the thymus

A

thymusin

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17
Q

what does the thymusin target

A

t-lymphocytes

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18
Q

what is the action of the thymusin

A

to influence the maturation and development of the t-lymphocytes

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19
Q

what hormones are secreted from the adrenal medulla

A

adrenaline(epinephrine)

noradrenaline(norepinephrine)

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20
Q

what does the adrenal cortex target

A

most tissues

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21
Q

what is the action of the adrenaline

A

targets many cells to prepare body for flight or respo\

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22
Q

what hormones are secreted form the adrenal crotex

A
  1. mineral carticoids
  2. glucorticoids
  3. gonadocorticoids
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23
Q

what does mineral corticoids target

A

kidney

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24
Q

what does glucorticoids target

A

most cells

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25
Q

what does gonadocorticoids target

A

testes

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26
Q

what is the action of the mineral carticoids

A

targets kidneys to reduce sodium concetration in urine and an icrease in potassium in unrine

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27
Q

what is the action of the glucocorticoids

A

stress responses, helps maintain normal glucose metabolism

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28
Q

what is the action of the gonadocarticoids

A

secondary sexual characterisitics

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29
Q

what hormones does the islets of langerhans secrete

A 
beta cells(insulin)
alpha cells(glucagon)
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30
Q

what does insulin target

A

most cells

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31
Q

what does glucagon target

A

liver and fat storage tissues

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32
Q

what is the action of the insulin

A

lowers blood glucose levels by promoting the uptake of glucose from blood to the cells of the body. acheived by the liver and skeleton muscles convert glucose to glucagon. fat storage tissues converts glucose to fats

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33
Q

what is the action of the glucagon

A

raises sugar levels in the opposite way to insulin. increases levels by promoting the breakdown of glycogon to glucose in the liver and the breakdown of fats

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34
Q

what hormones are secreted from the ovaries

A

oestrogen and progesterone

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35
Q

what does the oestrogen hormone target

A

many tissues

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36
Q

what does the progesterone target

A

uterus and mammary glands

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37
Q

what is the action of the progesterone and oestrogen

A

female secondary sexual characterisitics

development of the endometrium and the maintenance of the endometrium

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38
Q

hormone produced in the testes is

A

testosterone

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39
Q

what does testosterone target

A

many tissues

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40
Q

what is the action of the testosterone

A

male secondary sexual characteristsics

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41
Q

what hormones are secreted from the pituitary(anterior)

A 
thyroid stimulating hormone
adrenocorticotropic
gonadotropic( FSH and LH)
growth hormone 
prolactin
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42
Q

what does the thyroid stimulating hormone target

A

thyroid gland

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43
Q

what does the adrenocorticotropic hormone target

A

adrenal cortex

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44
Q

what does the follicle-stimulating hormone target

A

ovaries and testes

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45
Q

what does the lutenising hormone target

A

ovaries and testes

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46
Q

what does the growth hormone target

A

all cells

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47
Q

what does the prolactin target

A

mammary glands

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48
Q

what is the action of the thyroid stimulating hormone

A

regulates thyroid gland

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49
Q

what is the action of the adrenocorticotropic hormone

A

regulates adrenal cortex

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50
Q

what is the action of the follicle - stimulating hormone

A

ovaries - growth of follicles in ovaries

testes - production of sperm in testes

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51
Q

what is the action of the luteinising hormone

A

ovaries - ovulation and the maintenance of the corpus luteum

testes - secretion of testosterone from testes

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52
Q

what is the action of the growth hormone

A

growth of all cells and protein synthesis

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53
Q

what is the action of the prolactin

A

regulates milk production from mammary glands

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54
Q

what hormones are secreted from the pituitary(posterior)

A

antidiuretic hormone

oxytocin

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55
Q

what is the target for antidiuretic hormones

A

kidneys

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56
Q

what is the target for oxytocin

A

mammary glands

uterus

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57
Q

what is the action of the antiduretic hormone

A

regulates water absorption from kidneys

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58
Q

what is the action of oxytocin

A

allows milk letdown from mammary glands

stimulates contractions of uterus in labour

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59
Q

what is the hypothalamus

A

located at the base of the brain
regulates many of the basic functions fo the body
such as body temperature, water balance, heart rate
carried out through pituituary gland

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60
Q

what is the pineal gland

A

located deep inside the brain
size of the pea in children, gradually decreases
role remains a mystery
known to secrete the hormone melatonin which is involved in the regulation of sleep patterns

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61
Q

what does the stomach and small intestines secrete

A

they secrete hormones which coordinate the exocrine glands of the digestive system

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62
Q

what does the kidneys secrete

A

secretes hormones which stimulate the production of red blood cells in bone marrow

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63
Q

what does the heart secrete

A

secretes hormones which reduces blood pressure

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64
Q

what does the placenta secrete

A

secretes hormones during pregnancy need by the mother

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65
Q

what is the nervous system

A

the communication network and control centre of the body

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66
Q

what are the 2 parts of the nervous system

A

central and peripheral nervous system

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67
Q

what is the central nervous system

A

consists of the brain and spinal cord. this is the control centre of the nervous system

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68
Q

what is the peripheral nervous system

A

all other nerves that connect with the CNS and with the receptors, muscles and glands of the body

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69
Q

what specialised cells make up the nervous system

A

neurons

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70
Q

what is a neuron

A

basic structural and functional unit of the whole nervous system

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71
Q

what is the cell body of a neuron

A

contains the nucleus and other organelles of a cell

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72
Q

what is the dendrites

A

short extensions of the cell body that carry the nerve impulses into the cell body

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73
Q

what is the axon

A

usually a single long extension of the cell body that carries the nerve impulses away from the body

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74
Q

what can axons be covered in

A

axons can be covered in a layer of fatty material called myelin.

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75
Q

what forms the myelin sheath

A

schwann cells

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76
Q

what are the different functional neurons

A

sensory neurons
motor neurons
interneurons

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77
Q

what are the sensory neurons

A

carry messages from receptors in sense organs or skin to CNS

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78
Q

what are motor neurons

A

carry messages from the CNS to muscles and glands

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79
Q

what are interneurons

A

link sensory and motor neurons located within CNS

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80
Q

what are the different structures of a neuron

A

multipolar
bipolar
unipolar

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81
Q

what are multipolar neurons

A

have one axon and multiple dendrites, most common type

occurs in the brain, spinal cord and motor neurons that take messages to skeletal muscles

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82
Q

what are bipolar neurons

A

have one axon and one dendrite. both axon and dendrite may have branches at their ends. occur in eye, ear and nose where they take impulses from receptor cells to to other neurons

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83
Q

what are unipolar neurons

A

have just one extension - an axon
the cell body is off the the side of the axon
most sensory neurons that carry messages to the spinal cord are this type

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84
Q

what is a nerve fibre

A

any long extension of cytpolasm of a nerve cell, usually an axon

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85
Q

what is a nerve

A

a bundle of nerve fibres that are held together by connective tissue

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86
Q

what is a nerve impulse

A

the electrochemical change that travels along the membrane of a nerve cell; message is carried by a nerve

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87
Q

what is a synapse

A

the junction between 2 neurons or a neuron and a muscle or gland

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88
Q

what is a neurotransmitter

A

the chemical released into tiny gaps(synaptic cleft) which separates the 2 nerve cells

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89
Q

what is the neuromuscular junction

A

junction between a motor neuron and a muscle fibre. also called a motor end plate

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90
Q

what is action potential

A

when sodium ions move into a nerve cell at a particular place on the membrane; this change is transmitted along the cell membrane as a nerve impulse

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91
Q

what is polarisation

A

when a nerve is not firing an impulse, it is at rest

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92
Q

what is the membrane potential

A

the difference between the concentrations of ions inside and outside of the cell creates a potential between the inside and outside of the membrane

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93
Q

what is the resting membrane potential

A

membrane potential of unstimulated nerve cells - usually measured at about -70mv

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94
Q

what is the sodium potassium pump

A

actively moves ions across the membrane by transporting sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions in the cell

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95
Q

what is the refractory period

A

when the nerve fibre cannot be stimulated to respond again. resting membrane potential must be restored first . (after an action potential, brief period)

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96
Q

what does the central nervous system consist of

A

brain, spinal cord and other nerves

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97
Q

what does the peripheral nervous system consist of

A

12 pairs of cranial nerves
- sensory fibres carry impulses towards CNS
- motor fibres carry impulses away from CNS
31 pairs of spinal nerves (from spinal cord)
joined to spinal cord by 2 roots, the ventral and dorsal roots

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98
Q

what is the ventral root

A

contains axons of motor neurons (cell bodies located in grey matter of spinal cord)

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99
Q

what is the dorsal root

A

contains axons of sensory neurons ( cell bodies located in the dorsal root ganglion - a small swelling in the dorsal root)

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100
Q

what is the ganglion

A

cluster of cell bodies /

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101
Q

what is the afferent divison in peripheral nervous system

A

carries impulses to CNS, made up of somatic and viseral

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102
Q

what does somatic neurons in the afferent division do

A

sensory neurons from skin and muscle

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103
Q

what does the visceral neurons in the afferent divison do

A

sensory neurons from internal organs

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104
Q

what is the efferent divison in peripheral nervous system

A

carries impulses from CNS

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105
Q

what does somatic neurons in the efferent division do

A

messages to skeletal muscles

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106
Q

what does the autonomic neurons in the efferent divison do

A

autonomic messages to heart and involuntary muscles/ glands

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107
Q

what does the autonomic sub-divison divide into

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

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108
Q

descrition of autonomic

A

responsible for control of the internal environment of the body and usually checks outside of conscious control

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109
Q

description of somatic

A

responsible for carrying messages to skeletal muscles for which are under conscious control

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110
Q

effectors of autonomic

A

heart, muscle, involuntary muscles and glands

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111
Q

effectors of somatic

A

skeletals (suddenly muscles)

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112
Q

general function of autonomic

A

adjustment of the internal environment

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113
Q

general function of somatic

A

response to the external environment

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114
Q

efferent pathways autonomic

A

two more fibres crom the CNS to the effector with a synapse in the gangliom

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115
Q

efferent pathways somatic

A

one nerve fibre from the CNS to the effector. no synapse and no ganglion

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116
Q

neurotransmitters at effector for autonomic

A

acetylcholine or noradrenaline

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117
Q

neurotransmitter at effector for somatic

A

acetylcholine

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118
Q

set of nerves to target organ for autonomic

A

two sets - sympathetic and parasympathetic

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119
Q

set of nerves to target organ for somatic

A

one set

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120
Q

effect on target organ for autonomic

A

excitation or inhibition

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121
Q

effect on target organ for somatic

A

always excitation

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122
Q

control of autonomic divisions

A

involuntary

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123
Q

effect on target organ for somatic

A

always excitation

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124
Q

control for somatic cellsc

A

usually voluntary

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125
Q

control for somatic cells

A

usually voluntary

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126
Q

what is the general description for sympathetic divisions

A

generally produces responses that prepare the body for strenuous physical activity or situations that may involve aggression or fleeing from threat

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127
Q

what are the type of responses for sympathetic divisions

A

fight or flight

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128
Q

neurotransmitters for sympathetic division

A

nerve endings release noradrenaline

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129
Q

general description for para-sympathetic divisions

A

generally produces responses that maintain the body during restful conditions

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130
Q

neurotransmitters for para-sympathetic division

A

nerve endings release acetylcholine

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131
Q

what are the types of responses for para-sympathetic divisions

A

rest and digest

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132
Q

what happens in the central nervous system

A

incoming messages are processed and outgoing messages are initiated

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133
Q

what structures protect the delicate central nervous system

A

bone - cranium and vertebral canal
meninges membrane(3 layers)
cerebrospinal fluid

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134
Q

what is the cranium

A

part of skull that houses the brain

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135
Q

what is the vertebral canal

A

spinal cord runs through this opening

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136
Q

what are the meninges membrane

A

three layers of connective tissue form a membrane which covers the surface of the brain and spinal cord

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137
Q

what is the cerebrospinal fluid

A

fills between the middle of the inner layers of the meninges and circulates in the brain and a canal in the centre of the spinal cord
acts as a shock absorber and brings nutrients to the brain cells/ removes waste formed from blood and returns to blood.

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138
Q

what are the three layers of meninges

A

dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater

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139
Q

what is dura mater

A

though fibrous outer layer, sticks closely to the bones of the skull and the inside of the vertebral canal - but not as closely

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140
Q

what is arachnoid mater

A

mesh of loose fibres, more delicate to the dura mater. contains blood vessels and sticks closely to the brain and spinal cord

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141
Q

what is pia mater

A

thin layer which is firmly attached to the surface of the brain. impermeable to water(due to being covered in fat cells). blood vessels also piece through to the brain and spinal cord

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142
Q

what is the cerebrum

A 
largest part of brain
consists of the 
cerebral cortex
basal ganglia
convolutions(gyri)
sulci
fissures
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143
Q

what is the cerebral cortex

A

outer 2-4mm of brain made of grey matter

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144
Q

what is the basal ganglia

A

grey matter deep inside the brain

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145
Q

what are convolutions

A

folding patterns on the surface of the brain. increases surface area

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146
Q

what are sulci

A

shallow dips between convolutions

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147
Q

what are fissures

A

deep dips between the convolutions

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148
Q

what is the deepest fissure

A

the longitudinal fissure which separates the left and right hemispheres of the brain

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149
Q

what are the four main lobes of the brain

A

frontal
parietal
occipital
temporal

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150
Q

what is a tract

A

the white matter in the cerebellum contains bundles of myelinated nerve fibres which are usually called nerves outside the brain

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151
Q

what are the three types of tracts

A

tracts that connect various areas of the cortex within the same hemisphere
tracts that carry impulses between left and right hemispheres
tracts that connect the cortex to other parts of the brain or the spinal cord

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152
Q

what are the main functions of the cerebrum

A

thinking, reasoning, learning, memory, intelligence, sense of responsibility, perception of the five senses, initiation and control of voluntary muscle movements and more

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153
Q

what are the functional areas of the cerebral cortex

A

sensory areas - interpret messages from sensory neurons
motor areas - which control muscular movements
association areas - concerned with emotional and intellectual processes

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154
Q

what is the structure of the corpus callosum

A

large band of nerve fibres under cerebrum(at base of longitudinal fissure)

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155
Q

what is the function of the corpus callosum

A

nerve fibres across between the two hemispheres to allow the two sides of the brain to communicate

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156
Q

what is the structure of the cerebellum

A

folded into parallel ridges made of grey matter and there is white matter on the inner most section(branches out like a tree)

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157
Q

what is the function of the cerebellum

A

controls posture, balance, fine coordination of voluntray movement. all functions of the cerebellum take place below the conscious level

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158
Q

what is the location of the cerebellum

A

underneath and to the rear of the cerebrum

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159
Q

location of the hypothalmus

A

lies in the middle of the brain and cannot be seen from the outside

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160
Q

function of the hypothalmus

A

mostly concerned with maintaining homeostasis. regulates the ANS, body temperature, food and water intake, patterns of sleeping and waking, contractions of the urinary bladder, emotional responses and secretion of hormones

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161
Q

what is the medulla oblongata

A

a continuation of the spinal cord. about 3cm long. many nerve fibres pass through the medulla oblongata to get to the other parts of the brain

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162
Q

what is the function of the medulla oblongata

A

regulates reflexes such as sneezing, coughing and vomiting. regulates automatic body functions such as
cardiac centre - regulates heart beat and heart rate
respiratory centre - control rate and depth of breeding
vasomator centre - regulates diameter of blood vessels

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163
Q

nature of endocrine message

A

hormones

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164
Q

transport of messages for endocrine system

A

by the bloodstream

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165
Q

cells affected by endocrine system

A

all body cells

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166
Q

type of response from endocrine system

A

may be very general and widespread

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167
Q

time taken to respond for endocrine system

A

slower - from seconds to days

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168
Q

duration of response for endocrine system

A

long lasting - response may continue long after the stimulus has stopped

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169
Q

nature of message for nervous system

A

electrical impulses and neurotransmitters

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170
Q

transport of message for nervous system

A

along the membrane of neurons

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171
Q

cells affected by the nervous system

A

muscle and gland cells, other neurons

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172
Q

type of responses for nervous system

A

usually local and specific

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173
Q

time taken to respond in nervous system

A

rapid - within milliseconds

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174
Q

duration of response for nervous system

A

brief- stops quickly when the stimulus stops

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175
Q

what is a receptor

A

a structure that is able to detect change in the body’s internal or external environment

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176
Q

what are the types of receptors

A

thermoreceptors, osmoreceptors, chemoreceptors, touch/pressure receptors, pain receptors and photo/light receptors

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177
Q

where is the location of the thermoreceptors

A

hypothalamus(internal temp changes) and skin(external temp changes)

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178
Q

what do thermoreceptors detect

A

they detect hot or cold temperature

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179
Q

where is the location of osmoreceptors

A

hypothalmus

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180
Q

what do osmoreceptors detect

A

detect changes to osmotic pressure - to maintain water content
determined by the concentration of substances dissolved in water in the blood plasma

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181
Q

what is the location of chemoreceptors

A

located in nose(smell) mouth(taste) in many internal structures to monitor composition of body fluids and in some bv’s to monitor ph of the blood and co2/02 concentrations

182
Q

what do chemoreceptors detect

A

detect chemical change

183
Q

where are the touch/pressure receptors located

A

mainly in skin

184
Q

what do touch/ pressure receptors detect

A

closer they are to the surface the more they detect light touch, deeper receptors are more sensitive to pressure and vibrations

185
Q

what is the location of pain receptors(nocireceptors)

A

high number in skin and mucous membranes occur in most internal organs but not in the brain(the brain can’t hurt)

186
Q

what do pain receptors(nocireceptors) detect

A

stimulated by damaged skin

187
Q

where are photo/light receptors located

A

found in retina of eye rods for dim light and cones for colour vision

188
Q

what do photo/light receptors detect

A

detect light and enable us to have vision

189
Q

what is a reflex

A

a rapid, automatic response to change in the external environment

190
Q

what are the reflex traits

A 
starts from a stimulus in the external environment
are involuntary - no conscious control by brain
are rapid(small amount of neurons involved)
are stereotyped - occur the same way each time
191
Q

what is a reflex arc

A

the pathway a nerve impulse takes from receptor to effector

192
Q

what is the flow diagram for a reflex arc

A

stimulus -> receptor -> CNS(spinal cord) -> effector -> response

193
Q

what are the basic components of a reflex arc

A
  1. receptor - specialised cell or nerve ending of a sensory neuron
  2. sensory neuron - carry impulse to CNS
  3. synapse - at least one at this point (may not be from motor neuron to muscle)
  4. interneuron - interoperates information
  5. motor neuron - carry impulse to effector
  6. effector - carry out the response
194
Q

some examples of reflexes

A

blinking when dusk particles/ objects come close to the eye
removing hand/ foot from hot/sharp objects
knee jerk
yawing
coughing
ducking

195
Q

what us a learned reflex

A

not present from birth or not “innate” but learned overtime. more complex pathways

196
Q

examples of learned reflexes

A

maintaining balance when riding a bike. breaking when driving a car to respond to something running into you

197
Q

what is the tolerance limit in homeostasis

A

all cells have an optimal level to function - if not they will demature(upper and lower range of optimal level

198
Q

what is a feedback system

A

a circular situation in which the body detects a change(stimulus) and responds to it, altering the original stimulus

199
Q

what does a feedback system always involve

A

stimulus
receptor
modulator(control centre which processes the information)
effector
response(brings about the reaction)
feedback(the response to the original stimulus)

200
Q

what is negative feedback

A

when the response is opposite to the stimulus

201
Q

what is a positive feedback

A

when the response is to enhance the stimulus. eg contractions in labour and milk - letdown reflex

202
Q

why is homeostasis important

A

cells of the body have particular conditions at which thet function at the optimum level/most effieciently. if these conditions are not met or fall too far above or below the optimum range, the cells could die

203
Q

what is steady state

A

another way of describing homeostasis or maintaining the internal environment around an optimum level for cell functioning

204
Q

what is tolerance limits

A

limits of factors(e.g core temperature, blood glucose limit) beyond which the modern will malfunction)

205
Q

what is set point

A

the level at which a variable is to be maintained in a feedback system(e.g thermoregulation-core temperature)

206
Q

what is dynamic equilibrium

A

the fluctuations above and below a set point as the body tries to maintain homeostasis

207
Q

what is the difference between positive and negative feedback

A

negative feedback is in a homeostatic mechanism when the response is opposable to the stimulus. positive feedback is in a non-homeostatic mechanism which reinforces or intensifies the stimulus

208
Q

what are the sick components of a feedback model

A 
stimulus - change in environment
receptor - detects change
modular - control centre
effector - carries out response
response - change carried out
feedback - what is achieved
209
Q

what is the optimum level for human core temperature

A

36.8 degrees

210
Q

how does dynamic equilibrium work in thermoregulation

A

to maintain the balance between heat loss and heat gain

211
Q

what could happen if excess heat was not removed from the body

A

nerves could malfunction, proteins can change their structure and death could result

212
Q

heat input for thermoregulation

A

from surrondings: conduction and radiation

from body processes - metabolism

213
Q

heat out from thermoregulation

A

to surrondings(conduction/convection/ radiation)
evaporation of water from skin and lungs
warm air breathed out
warm urine/faeces expelled

214
Q

how does metabolism/metabolic rate effect core temperature

A

during cellular respiration 60% of the energy produced is lost as heat energy which helps maintain core body temperature
the rate at which energy is released (metabolic rate) depends on many factors such as stress, exercise or even fever. during these times metabolic rate increases by up to 40 times, therefore heat production increases.
stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes noraderenaline to be released, which increases metabolic rate

215
Q

what are the receptors and the modulator to core body temperature

A

peripheral thermoreceptors - in skin and mucous membranes(two types; hot and cold)
central thermoreceptors in hypothalamus
the hypothalamus receives the information in the temperature regulating centre and initiates the response

216
Q

what is the role of the skin in thermoregulation

A

surface blood vessels and constrict/dilate to reduce increases heat loss via radiation, conduction and convection. this is controlled by autonomic nerves
sweat from sweat glands to increase heat loss via evaporation, controlled by sympathetic nerves.
water loss via lungs and mucous membranes contributes to heat loss

217
Q

stimulus for high body temperature

A

increase in core temperature

218
Q

receptors for high body temperature

A

peripheral thermoreceptors in skin and central thermoreceptors in hypothalamus

219
Q

modulator for high body temperature

A

temperature regulating centre in hypothalamus

220
Q

effectors for high body temperature

A

surface blood vessel
sweat glands
thyroid gland
cerebral cortex

221
Q

response for high body temperature

A

vasodilation of surface blood vessels brings blood close the the surface/ away from core and increases heat loss via radiation
releases of sweat increases heat loss via evaporation
decrease in thyroxine levels to reduce metabolic rate, therefore reduce heat production
behavioural responses such as removing items of clothing

222
Q

feedback for high body temperature

A

decrease core body temperature

223
Q

stimulus for low body temperature

A

decrease in core body temperature

224
Q

receptors for low body temperature

A

peripheral thermoreceptors in skin and central thermoreceptors

225
Q

modulator for low body temperature

A

hypothalamus - temperature regulating centre

226
Q

effectors for low body temperature

A 
surface blood vessels
skeletal muscles
thyroid gland
adrenal medulla 
cerebral cortex
227
Q

response for low body temperature

A

vasoconstriction of surface blood vessels brings blood closer to the core and reduces heat loss via radiation
shivering - oscillating muscle tremors increases heat production
increase in thyroxine levels to increase metabolic rate, therefore increase heat production
secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline via sympathetic nerves. increases metabolic rates therefore heat production
behavioural responses such as putting on items of clothing, cross arms to reduce surface area for heat loss via radiation

228
Q

feedback for low body temperature

A

increase core temperature

229
Q

what are the tolerance limits

A

36.8 degrees is the optimum level

42 degrees is dangerous, 45 degrees can cause death. falling below 33-32 degrees can also cause death

230
Q

what is heat stroke

A

when temperature and humidity is high it is difficult to lose heat via evaporation or radiation and thermoregulatory mechanisms may fall. leads to a person falling ill can be serious/fatal

231
Q

what is heat exhaustion

A

caused by extreme sweating and vasodilation to lose heat. blood pressure and output decreases due to lack of water decreasing blood plasma volume. can cause fainting

232
Q

what is hypothermia

A

caused by extreme cold. if core temperature drops below 33 degrees, metabolic rate slows so far that heat production cannot replace heat loss. can cause death.

233
Q

what percentage of water are we

A

60%

234
Q

what various fluids is water found in the body

A

2/3 intracellular fluid/cytosol(in cells)

1/3 extracellular fluid(outside cells and in blood plasma)(fluid between cells)

235
Q

how do we intake water

A

food(70ml)
drink(1600ml)
metabolic rate(200ml)

236
Q

how do we output water

A

urine - kidney(1500ml)
skin(500ml)
lungs(300ml)
faeces - alimentary canal (1200ml)

237
Q

what is excretion

A

the removal of metabolic waste products

238
Q

what is excreted from the lungs

A

excrete h20 and water. water is lost as water vapour during exhalation

239
Q

what is excreted from the sweat glands

A

secrete water containing metabolic waste products such as salts

240
Q

what is excreted from the alimentary canal

A

most materials in faeces are not considered metabolism wastes except bile pigments. water is lost with faeces

241
Q

what is excreted from the kidneys

A

principle excretory organ as they are responsible for maintaining constant concentrations of materials in body fluids as well as removing wastes

242
Q

what is the main role of the kidney

A

water regulation which therefore causes it to maintain composition of body fluids

243
Q

what is the functional unit of the kidney called

A

nephron

244
Q

where are the nephrons located

A

within the kidney

245
Q

what is the pathway of urine which is produced

A

ureter-bladder-urethra

246
Q

what are the three phases of urine production

A

filtration - most contents of blood(as high blood pressur) filters capsule, cells, protein stay in blood
reabsortion - useful materials reabsorb in blood
secretion - unwanted materials are passed into the filtrate

247
Q

what is the composition of urine

A

95% water and solutes such as sodium, calcium and urea

248
Q

what is osmotic pressure

A

measures the tendency of a solution to take in water via osmosis. it depends on the concentration of solute

249
Q

how does antiduretic hormone play a part in osmotic pressure

A

controls the level of reabsortion at the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. high ADH levels results in the tubules increasing their permeability to water, low level has the opposite effect

250
Q

how does aldosterone play a part in osmotic pressure

A

controls level of sodium being reaborbed to blood and potassium being secreted to urine. high aldosterone increase both of these. water is reabsorbed along with sodium, therefore also works to regulate water levels in blood/blood volume. increasing blood volume also increases blood pressure. therefore aldosterone also regulates blood pressure

251
Q

stimulus for increase osmotic pressure/ decrease plasma volume

A

increase osmotic pressure/ decrease plasma volume

252
Q

receptor for increase osmotic pressure/ decrease plasma volume

A

osmoreceptors in thirst centre of hypothalamus

253
Q

modulator for increase osmotic pressure/ decrease plasma volume

A

thirst centre in hypothalamus

254
Q

effector for increase osmotic pressure/ decrease plasma volume

A

posterior pitituary
nephrons
adrenal cortex

255
Q

response for increase osmotic pressure/ decrease plasma volume

A

release ADH
ADH causes distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts to become more permeable to water, therefore more water is reaborbed, increasing blood volume.
release aldosterone
also acts on nephrons to increase reabsortion of sodium ions to blood. water is also reabosrbed with the sodium, therefore increase water in plasma

256
Q

feedback for increase osmotic pressure/ decrease plasma volume

A

decrease osmotic pressure/ increase plasma volume

257
Q

stimulus for decrease osmotic pressure/ increase plasma volume

A

decrease osmotic pressure/ increase plasma volume

258
Q

receptor for decrease osmotic pressure/ increase plasma volume

A

osmoreceptors in thirst centre of hypothalamus

259
Q

modulator for decrease osmotic pressure/ increase plasma volume

A

thirst centre of hypothalamus

260
Q

effector for decrease osmotic pressure/ increase plasma volume

A

posterior pitituary
nephrons
adrenal cortex

261
Q

response for decrease osmotic pressure/ increase plasma volume

A

inhibits release of antiduretic hormone
reduction in ADH causes the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to become less permeable to water. therefore less water us reabsorbed, decreasing blood volume.
inhibits release of aldosterone
also acts on the nephrons to decrease reabsortion of sodium ions to blood. water is also reabsorbed with the sodium, therefore decrease water in plasma

262
Q

what is dehydration

A

water loss exceeds water gain
may be caused by excessive sweating, vomiting, diarrhoea, lack of thirst reflex on old people, lack of water
causes severe thirst, low blood pressure, dizziness and extreme headache: extreme cases: death

263
Q

what is water intoxication

A

when fluids become excessively diluted and cells take in too much water via osmosis.
balance of electrolytes is out, therefore not enough salts/water in body. can be caused when a person with severe dehydration attempts to drink water, but does not intake salts, can cause death

264
Q

what is the form of sugar in blood

A

glucose

265
Q

why is glucose needed in continual supply

A

source of energy for cells(cellular respiration)

266
Q

how do we gain glucose

A

food

267
Q

what carries blood from the intestines and stomach to the liver

A

the hepatic portal

268
Q

what is the role of liver in blood glucose level

A

glucose may be used for liver function
converted to glycogen for storage
continue to circulate in blood
converted to fat for long term

269
Q

what is the role of the pancrease in blood glucose level

A

islets of langerhans contain alpha and beta cells
alpha cells secrete glucagon to stimulate glycogenolysis (glycogen to glucose)
beta cells secrete insulin to stimulate glycogenesis(glucose to glycogen)

270
Q

role of adrenal glands

A 
adrenal cortex(stimulated by ACTH) secretes cortisol and adrenal medulla, secretes adrenaline/noradrenaline
increases metabolic fat, promotes gluconeogenesis
271
Q

what is glucose

A

form of sugar in blood

272
Q

what is glucagon

A

hormone secreted by the alpha cells which raises BGL

273
Q

what is glycogen

A

stored form of glucose

274
Q

what is glycogenesis

A

glucose to glycogen insulin stimulates

275
Q

what is glycogenolysis

A

glycogen to glucose glucogen stimulates

276
Q

what is glyconeogeneis

A

producing glucose from fats, proteins and amino acids. when glucose levels are too low

277
Q

stimulus for increase blood glucose level

A

increase BGL

278
Q

receptor for increase blood glucose level

A

beta cells(islets of langerhans)

279
Q

modulator for increase blood glucose level

A

beta cells

280
Q

effector for for increase blood glucose level

A

beta cells
liver
adrenal cortex
adrenal medulla

281
Q

reponse for for increase blood glucose level

A

release insulin, promotes uptake of glucose by cells and protein synthesis
liver converts glucose to glycogen for storage in liver (glycogenesis) and fat storage.
inhibits cortisol secretion which reduces glycogeonolyis =- reducing blood glucose
inhibits secretion of adrenaline/noradrenaline. inhibits glycogenolysis in liver - reducing blood glucose levels

282
Q

stimulus for decrease blood glucose level

A

decrease BGL

283
Q

receptor for for decrease blood glucose level

A

alpha cells (islets of lanerghans pancreas)

284
Q

modulator for decrease blood glucose level

A

alpha cells

285
Q

effectors for decrease blood glucose level

A

alpha cells, liver, adrenal cortex, adrenal medulla

286
Q

response for decrease blood glucose level

A

release glucagon, promotes glycogen to be convterted to glucose (glycogenolyisis)
liver glycogenolyis, gluconeogenesis
secretes cortisolwhich stimulates conversion of amino acids into glucose
secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline which stimulates glycogenolyisis - increasing blood glucose

287
Q

what happens when glucose levels exceed tolerance limits

A

hyperglycaemia - abnormally high BGL

hypoglycaemia - abnormally low BGL

288
Q

what is type 1 diabetes

A

insulin dependant, child onset, immune system atatcks beta cells and tehrefore cannot pruduce insulin

289
Q

what is type 2 diabetes

A

non-insulin dependant

adult onset - lifestyle disease, produce insulin but cells do not response to this

290
Q

what do all cells need a constant supply of

A

oxygen, carbon dioxide,

291
Q

what must be removed continuously from the body

A

oxygen, carbon dioxide

292
Q

how can the amount of carbon dioxide and oxygen change in blood

A

changes in breathing

293
Q

how is circulatory system involved in regulation of gas concentrations

A

involved to circulate blood to the lungs

294
Q

how does the control of breathing work

A

diaphragm and inercostal muscles contract/relax
due to stimulation by nerve impulses from phrenic nerve
respiratory centre location in medulla oblongata(centre of inhalation and exhalation)
chemoreceptors detect changes in gases

295
Q

what is monitored in regulation of gas concentration

A

under normal circumtances oxygen levels play little part in breathing regulation
carbon dioxide levels
hydrogen ion concentrations

296
Q

why is hydrogen ions monitored in regulation of gas concentration

A

co2 + h20 - h2c03 - h+ + hco3-
when co2 dissolves in water it form carbonic acid which breaks down into h+ and hco3-
smallest amounts of change effects breathing rate

297
Q

where are the receptors located in regulation of gas concentration

A

o2 - chemoreceptors in aortic and carotid bodies, medulla oblongata
co2 - central and peripheral chemoreceptors, medulla oblongata
h+ - chemorecepors in aortic and carotid bodies

298
Q

stimulus for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (breathing rate regulation)

A

for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph

299
Q

receptor for for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (breathing rate regulation)

A

central and peripheral chemoreceptors(medulla oblongata/aortic and carotid bodies)

300
Q

modulator for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (breathing rate regulation)

A

respiratory centre in medulla oblongata

301
Q

effector for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (breathing rate regulation)

A

diaphram and intercostal muscles

302
Q

response for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (breathing rate regulation)

A

increase rate of contraction and therefore increase breathing rate ], which in turn increases rate of gas exchange (o2 in, co2 out)

303
Q

feedback for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (breathing rate regulation)

A

for decrease in co2/h+ or increase Ph

304
Q

why do we experience heavy breathing during exercise

A

muscles require larger amounts of oxygen and produce large amounts of carbon dioxide. therefore increases the demand of oxygen exchange

305
Q

what is hyperventilation

A

rapid, deep breathing, voluntary or from stress
provides more oxygen and removes more carbon dioxide then required
usually corrects self, over prolonged time, it can cause person to pass out

306
Q

how and why can breathing be controlled voluntarily

A

speech, protective(not breathing around irritating particles or underwater) bypasses medulla oblongata and is controlled by cerebral cortex
cannot hold breathe forever: co2 builds up and respiratory centre is triggered

307
Q

why is the output of blood from the heart important

A

maintains homeostasis of gases in bodily fluids

308
Q

what is heart rate

A

number of heart beats per minute
average resting heart rate for an adult is 70bpm. varies greatly depending on many factors such as age,gender, fitness…

309
Q

what is stroke volume

A

volume of blood forced out with each contraction

310
Q

what is cardiac output

A

amount of blood leaving the heart every minute

cardiac output is SV x HR

311
Q

what is blood pressure

A

force at which blood presses on the walls of the blood vessels, depends on cardiac output and diameter of blood vessels

312
Q

what is blood pressure affected by

A

cardiac output - increase co2, increase BP - therefore affected by gas concentration
diameter of blood vessels: dilated reduces Bp, constriction increase Bp
controlled by autonomic nervous system(sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation)
volume of plasma in blood: high volume of water over salts reduces Bp, higher volume of salts over water increase Bp(aldosterone) - therefore fluid affected by fluid regulation

313
Q

what are the regulations of heart rate

A

nodes, autonomic nervous system, chemoreceptors, cardiac centre

314
Q

how does nodes regulate heart rate

A

controlled by the sino-atrial node and atrioventricular node which control the contraction of the heart muscle
SA node stimulates nerve impulse which spreads over the atria, causing contraction
the impulses reaches the AV node and stimulates it to send a nerve impulse over the ventricles, causing contraction

315
Q

how does autonomic nervous system regulate heart rate

A

under the influence of the ANS can be acted on by either sympathetic or parasympathetic division
requires a balance between the two

316
Q

how does chemoreceptors regulate heart rate

A

chemoreceptors in aortic and carotid bodies detect changes

317
Q

how does the cardiac centre regulate heart rate

A

cardiovascular regulating centre: (or cardiac centre) is located in the medulla oblongata
any increase in CO2 concentration or decrease in Ph will influence the cardiac centre to increase cardiac output as well as trigger the response previously discussed

318
Q

what is the stimulus for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (heart rate regulation)

A

increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph

319
Q

what is the receptorsfor increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (heart rate regulation)

A

central and peripheral chemoreceptors(medulla oblongata/aortic and carotid bodies)

320
Q

modulator for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (heart rate regulation)

A

respiratory and cardiovascular centres in the medulla oblongata

321
Q

effectors for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (heart rate regulation)

A

diaphragm and intercostal muscles
adrenal medulla
heart muscle

322
Q

response for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (heart rate regulation)

A

increase rate of contraction and therefore increase breathing rate, which in turn increases rate of gas exchange (o2 in co2 out)
secretes adrenaline/noradrenaline which increases the stimulation on the SA node
increase stimulation by SA node cause heart rate muscle to increase rate and strength of contractions, therefore increase heart rate

323
Q

feedback for increase in co2/h+ or decrease Ph (heart rate regulation)

A

decrease in co2/h+ or increase Ph

324
Q

what happens to a person with diabetes

A 
a diabetic person either does not produce enough insulin or their cells are not resistant to it. 
this throws out the balance between insulin and glucagon which regulate BGL
causes hyperglycaemia (abnormally high levels of blood glucose)
325
Q

how does someone recieve type 1 diabetes and what are the effects and treatments

A

usually begins in childhood
fault in the persons immune system causes destruction of beta cells, therefore insulin is not produced
in most cases this can be managed by insulin injections or an insulin pump under the skin
long term effects can cause kidney failure, stroke, amputations nerve damage and blindess

326
Q

how does someone recieve type 2 diabetes and what are the effects and treatments

A

develops in adults (usually 45 years and over)
able to produce insulin but cells do not respond to it as they have become resistant
therefore body cells do not uptake glucose or limited from blood
lifestyle disease - preventable
treatment includes managing diet and exercise

327
Q

what happens to a person with a form of thyroidism

A

under secretion of thyroid hormones thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine(both have the same effect to regulate metabolism)

328
Q

how does someone recieve hyperthyroidism, what are the effects and what treatment is there

A

too much thyroxine
most common form is graves disease - enlargement of thyroid caused by an immune system reaction
cells are over stimulated so can cause rapid heart bear, weight loss, increase appetite, sweating, anxiety, protruding eyeballs
treatment: include drugs to block thyroids use of iodine or can be given a radioactive iodine drink which kills thyroid cells

329
Q

how does someone recieve hypothyroidism, what are the effects and what treatment is there

A

not enough tyroxine
can be due to problems with thyroid, pituitary or hypothalamus
lack of iodine - means thyroid gland cannot produce its hormones
causes enlarged thyroid - goitre
hypothyroidism can also be caused by an immune system attack - hashimoto’s disease or even surgery to remove the thyroid such as if a person has thyroid cancer
more symptoms: slow heart rate, weight gain, lack of energy
treatment: more iodine in diet, hormone replacement tablets

330
Q

how does someone receive human growth deficiency

A

essential for normal growth and metabolism
synthesised and secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
deficiency can cause growth retardation or dwarfism
can result from disease or can be inherited
affected children can be injected with HGH

331
Q

what drugs have similar effects to neurotransmitters

A

caffeine, alcohol, amphetamine/methamphetamine, MDMA/ecstasy, cocain, heroin

332
Q

what effect does caffeine have

A

mimics adrenaline

333
Q

what effect does alcohol have

A

depresses CNS, stimulates insulin production and inhibits antiduretic hormone

334
Q

what effect does amphetamine/methamphetamine have

A

release adrenalin, dopamine and seratonin - neutrotransmitters

335
Q

what effect does MDMA/ecstasy have

A

initiates flight or fight

336
Q

what effect does cocaine have

A

blocks removal of noradrenaline, dopamine and serotonin therefore stimulates CNS

337
Q

what effect does heroine have

A

binds to receptors to decrease pain, slows breathing rate, decreases blood pressures and body temperature

338
Q

what effect can poor eating habits have

A

inadequate nutrition can lead to vitamin and mineral deficiency diseases
lack of the following: iodine, iron(anaemia, reduced oxygen carrying capacity of blood, haemoglobin) vitamin B12(pernicious anaemia) vitamin k(essential for blood clotting)
balancing energy intake and output is essential for homeostasis. appetite and body weight are crucial factors in maintaining this balance. high fat diets throw out balance

339
Q

what effect can excessive exercise have

A

compulsive/excessive exercise can mean that proteins in muscles are needed to be broken down for energy and muscle mass is reduced
places great stress on the heart and calcium in bones can be decomposed
amenorrhea - in females who exercise excessively menstruation stops - conserves energy

340
Q

what is emphysema

A

lung disease which breaks down the alveoli walls
results in less surface area for gas exchange therefore not enough oxygen can be taken in
most common cause is smoking
incurable
over time oxygen tubes/masks may need to be used

341
Q

what is fever

A

can result from infectious diseases - therefore not a disease itself but a symptom of a disease
increase in body temperature
can help fight off infection but can distrupt homoestasis

342
Q

what is hypertension

A

occurs when homeostatic responses cannit keep blood pressure within normal limits
significantly increase risk of cardiovascular problems and kidney failure
risk factors include obesity, lack of exercise, excessive slat intake and excessive alcohol intake

343
Q

what are injuries

A

many injuries can directly effect homeostasis
e.g excessive blood loss limits supply of oxygen and glucose to cells and the removal of wastes, punctured lungs impairs gas exchange, immobility limits squeezing action on veins therefore decreases venous returns, spinal cord injuries can damage nerve impulses require to reach effectors such as diaphragm or other muscles

344
Q

what is a communicable disease

A

also known as infectious or transmissible disease
disease caused by foreign organisms invading the body and multiplying there. these disease causing micro-organisms are known as pathogens
some communicable diseases are contagious - meaning they can be passed on by direct contact with a person who has the disease, or by direct contact with an object touched by another person.

345
Q

what is a pathogen

A

disease causing micro-organism

346
Q

what are the four types of pathogens

A

fungi, bacteria, virus, parasites

347
Q

what is a virus

A

requires an electron microscope to be seen
contain genetic material (DNA or RNA) covered in protein coating
DNA or RNA causes multiplication of virus within the affected living cell
new virus particles can leave infected host and infect others
bacteriophages are viruses that attack bacteria
not all viruses are harmful

348
Q

examples of viruses

A

HIV/AIDS, bird flu, chickenpox, herpes, glandular fever, hepatitis, rubella

349
Q

what is bacteria

A

single cell organisms
microscopic
classified based on shape
majority of bacteria are not harmful to humans(non-pathogenic)
bacteria decomposes organic material and can be used in industrial processes(cheese and yoghurt)
in humans bacteria lives in large amounts on skin and in the intestines(aiding in digestion)

350
Q

examples of bacteria

A

chlamydia, cholera, gastroenteritis, gonorrhoea, leprosy, peptic ulcers, pneumonia

351
Q

what is fungi

A

do not commonly affect humans
mostly diseased that effect skin
can be useful fungi such as mushrooms and yeast

352
Q

examples of fungi

A

ringworm, thrush, tinea

353
Q

what is a parasite

A

organisms that live on or in another living thing(the host) ang gain shelter and food from it
can cause little to lots of harm
ectoparasites live on the surface of the body
endoparasites live inside the body

354
Q

examples of parasites

A

ectoparasites - fleas and lice

endoparasites - roundworms and protozoans

355
Q

what are the 6 transmissions of pathogens

A

physical contact, droplets, bodily fluids, ingestion, airborne, vectors

356
Q

how is physical contact a pathogen transmission

A

either directly(touching an infected person) or indirectly(touching an object that has been touched by an infected person)

357
Q

examples of physical contact diseases

A

skin infections and STI’s

358
Q

how is bodily fluids pathogen transmission

A

blood or other bodily fluids come in contact with mucous membranes or the bloodstream.

359
Q

examples of bodily fluids diseases

A

HIV, hepatitis B and C

360
Q

how is droplets a pathogen transmission

A

droplets of moisture containing the pathogen be emitted when breathing, talking, etc
these droplets can settle on food or food utensils

361
Q

examples of droplet diseases

A

cold, flu, measles

362
Q

how is indigestion a pathogen transmission

A

contaminated food/drink

363
Q

examples of indigestion diseases

A

salmonella

364
Q

how is airborne a pathogen transmission

A

evaporated exhaled droplets that are inhaled

365
Q

examples of airborne diseases

A

various viruses

366
Q

how is a vector a pathogen transmission

A

via other mammals such as insects either directly by bite or indirectly by contaminated food etc

367
Q

examples of vector diseases

A

maleria(mosquito), lyme disease(ticks)

368
Q

what are the two catergories for the bodies defences

A

non-specific defences and specific defences

369
Q

what are the bodies non-specific defences

A

work against all pathogens

body’s first line of defence

370
Q

what are the bodies specific defences

A

directed at a particular pathogen
e.g if you get chickenpox your body creates antibodies for chickenpox so you become immune and cannot contract them again. these antibodies wont work for any other viruses though

371
Q

what are the seven external defences

A

skin, mucous membranes, hairs and cilia, acids, lysosome, cerumen and urine

372
Q

what role does skin have as an external defence

A

provides a barrier. provided it is not broken, its relatively impermeable to micro-organisms
oil glands secrete sebum which contains substances that kill pathogenic bacteria - sweat can also prevent micro-organism growth

373
Q

what role does mucous membranes have as an external defence

A

body cavities open to the exterior contain nucleus that aims to stop the entry of micro-organisims. the whole digestive, urinary and reproductive tract is protected this way

374
Q

what role does hairs and cilia have as an external defence

A

nasal cavity contains hairs and mucous which helps nose trap about 90% of particles and micro-organisms that are breathed in
cilia are tiny hair like projections from cells which beat to move trapped micro-organisms towards throat where they can be coughed up or swallowed.

375
Q

what role does acids have as an external defence

A

acidic juices in stomach, acidic secretions of the vagina and slight acidity of sweat helps kill micro-organisms

376
Q

what role does lysozyme have as an external defence

A

found in tears, sweat, nasal secretions and saliva. cleanses and kills bacteria

377
Q

what role does cerumen have as an external defence

A

aka ear wax, protects from infections. also contain some lysozyme

378
Q

what role does urine have as an external defence

A

flushing action cleanses the urethra and prevents bacterial growth

379
Q

what is a reflex action

A

autonomic, involuntrary response to a stimulus. the four reflexes that protect against diseases are sneezing, coughing, vomiting and diarrhoea

380
Q

what are phagocytes

A

cells that can engulf and digest micro-organisms and cell debris

381
Q

how is sneezing a protective reflex

A

irritation on walls of nasal cavity
fumes, dust particles(likely to be carrying pathogens)
forceful expulsion of air carries the irritant out

382
Q

how is coughing a protective reflex

A

irritation of lower respiratory tract(bronchi and bronchioles)
forceful expulsion of air carries out irritant - forces mucous and foreign particles up towards throat and mouth

383
Q

how is vomiting a protective reflex

A

in reference to protection against disease, vomiting is stimulated by bacterial toxins in the stomach
contractions of the diaphragm and abdominal muscles causes vomiting
stomach contents are expelled

384
Q

how is diarrhoea a protective reflex

A

irritation of intestines(bacteria, viruses or some animal parasites)
causes increased contractions of muscles in intestine walls so irritant moves quickly along. not enough time for water reabsortion so faeces is very watery

385
Q

what is a leucocyte(white blood cell)

A

different types
all have a role in phagocytosis
leucocytes leave the blood capillaries and move through body tissues to the site of infections or injuries
some secrete substances that destroy bacteria before they are engulfed and others engulf the live bacteria and then digest them

386
Q

what are macrophages

A

large phagocytic cells that develop form some leucocytes
can be ‘wondering cells’ that move through tissues searching for pathogens to destroy, while others are fixed in one location and only destroy pathogens that come by them
macrophages either release a substance to destroy the micro-organisms or engulf and digest them

387
Q

what is inflammation

A

a response to damaged tissues

388
Q

what is the purpose of the inflammatory response

A

reduce the spread of pathogens, destroy them and prevent the entry of any more pathogens
reduce damaged tissue and cell debris
begin the repair of damaged tissue

389
Q

what are the 4 signs of inflammation

A

redness, heat, pain, swelling

390
Q

what are the seven steps in the inflammatory response

A 
mast cells
histamine
heparin
phagocytes
pain receptors
pus
mitosis
391
Q

what is the role of the mast cells in the inflammatory response

A

special cells present in almost all tissues, stimulate and co-ordinate inflammation by releasing chemicals including histamine and heparin

392
Q

what is the role of histamine in the inflammatory response

A

increases blood flow to the area and causes the walls of the blood capillaries to become more permeable so extra fluid can be filtered from the blood which causes the swelling. the increased blood flow causes redness and heat

393
Q

what is the role of heparin in the inflammatory cycle

A

prevents blood clotting in the immidiate area of the injury. however, a clot of fluid around the damaged area does form inhibiting the spread of pathogens to healthy tissues

394
Q

what is the role of phagocytes in the inflammatory cycle

A

attracted to the area by chemicals released by mast cells. the leucocytes and macrophages then consume macrophages and debris

395
Q

what is the role of pain receptors in the inflammatory cycle

A

the abnormal conditions of the damaged tissues stimulates pain receptors in this area, therefore the person feels pain

396
Q

what is the role of pus in the inflammatory response

A

the phagocytes (filled with bacteria, debris and dead cells begin to die themselves. the dead phagocytes and tissue fluid form a yellow liquid called pus

397
Q

what is the role of mitosis in the inflammatory response

A

new cells are produced by mitosis to repair the damaged tissues

398
Q

what is a fever

A

elevation of body temperature (above 37 degrees) as a result of infection

399
Q

what does a fever aim to do

A

inhibit bacterial/viral growth and speed up the rate of chemical reactions for cell repair

400
Q

what happens to body temperature during fever

A

still regulated but always at a higher level

401
Q

how does the body try to conserve heat during a fever

A

via vasoconstriction, causing the person to feel cold and also shivering can occur to increase heat production

402
Q

what happens when the fever breaks crisis point

A

vasodilation will occur and the person may feel hot and sweat a lot

403
Q

what is the most likely reason for the body thermostat to be reset

A

a substance called pyrogens secreted by white blood cells during the inflammatory response

404
Q

when can a fever result in death

A

when it is 44.5-45.5 degrees

405
Q

what is the lymphatic system

A

a network of lymph capillaries joined to large lymph vessels, some of which contain lymph nodes along them

406
Q

what is the purpose of the lymphatic system

A

to collect fluid that escapes from the “leaky” blood capillaries and return it back to the circulatory system, has a role to play in defending the body

407
Q

what is good hygiene

A

to reduce the risk of infections with pathogens:
-wash hands:especially when preparing food, before eating, after using the toilet, before administering first aid, after coughing/sneezing
-cover mouth when coughing/sneezing
- wear gloves/ safety glasses when cleaning blood/bodily fluids
-disinfect surfaces
never share personal items such as tooth brushes, razors

408
Q

what are mechanical barriers

A

provide obstacles for pathogens therefore reduce the risk of infection/disease
examples:
surgical masks
gloves
safety glasses
protective clothing
barrier contraceptive devices (e.g condom)

409
Q

what is the immune response

A

also known as the homeostatic response, protects against foreign organisms/ chemicals/ cancerous or abnormal cells. it is comprised of different types of cells found in most organs of the body

410
Q

what are the non-specific cells

A

include phagocytes(engulf organisms and cell debris)

411
Q

what are specific cells

A

include b cells and t cells which provide protection against specific micro-organisms/disease-causing substances
when these cells react - it is called the immune response

412
Q

what are the two parts of the immune response

A

antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated response

413
Q

what role does lymphoid tissue have

A

both aspects of the immune response require lymphoid tissue
found mostly in the lymph nodes but also in the spleen, thymus and tonsils
composed of two types of lymphocytes involved in the immune response(b cells and t cells)
b-cells and t cells are both produced in bone marrow and find their way to the lymphoid tissue - however each take different routes

414
Q

what route does t-cells take to get to the lymphoid tissue

A

half of the cells produced go to the thymus to mature before moving to the lymphoid tissue

415
Q

what route does b-cells take to get to the lymphoid tissue

A

half of the cells mature in the bone marrow before moving to the lymphoid tissue

416
Q

what are antigens

A

any substance capable of causing a specific immune response (body will produce antibodies)
antibody - mediated and cell mediated immunity are triggered by antigens

417
Q

information on antigens

A

large molecules and can be proteins, carbohydrates, lipds and nucleic acid.
could be a whole organism or part
any toxin produced by a bacteria is also called an antigen
an antigen could even be a foreign blood type blood cells or pollen

418
Q

what are self antigens

A

large molecules produced in the persons own body that do not cause immune response

419
Q

what are non-self antigens

A

foreign compounds that do cause the immune response

420
Q

what is an antibody

A

specialised protein produced in response to a non-self- antigen

421
Q

what is the antigen-antibody complex

A

antibody produced in response to an antigen combined with an antigen

422
Q

what is the active site

A

where the antibody and antigen combine. fit together like a lock and key

423
Q

what is the antibody-mediated immunity

A

aka humoral response
involves production and release of antibodies in blood and lymph
provides resistance to viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins before these micro-organism can enter the body’s cells
involves b cells found in lymphoid tissue
different b cells are capable of responding to different antigens

424
Q

how does the antibody - mediate process happen

A

antigen activates b cells
b cells enlarge and divide into a group of cells called a clone
most clones become plasma cells which secrete the specific antibody needed
antibody will then circulate the blood, lymph and extracellular fluid until it attaches to the active site of the specific antigen
other b cells(that do not become plasma cells become memory cells)
memory cells spread to all body tissues of if a subsequent invasion occurs the response will be very quick

425
Q

what is a primary response

A

first exposure to the antigen that comes on immune response
can be fairly slow- days needed to build up enough antibodies
b cells need time to multiply and differentiate into plasma cells
leaves the body with a memory of the particular antigen

426
Q

what is a secondary response

A

subsequent exposures to the same antigen
immune response is much quicker due to memory cells
plasma cells can form more rapidly and antibody levels will rise
it can be so quick that symptoms would likely be not felt by the individual

427
Q

what do the antibodies actually do

A

combine with foreign enzymes or bacterial toxins or inactivate them so they cannot react with any other cell pr compound
bind to the surface of viruses and prevent them from entering a cell
coat bacteria so they can be more easily consumed by phagocytes
cause agglutination of foreign cells
dissolve organsism
turn soluble substances into insoluble substances so phagocytes can consume them more easily

428
Q

what is cell mediated immunity

A

aka cellular immunity
provides resistance to many things including : the intercellular phase of bacterial and viral infections, resistance to fungi and parasites, it is involved in rejection of transplant tissue and also important in fighting cancer cells
involves t cells(t lymphocytes)
occur in lymphoid tissue
different types of responses to different specific antigens
t cells will only become activated or sensitised in response to a particular antigen. after b cells or a macrophage encounter the antigen and brings it to a lymph node where the t cells are

429
Q

what is the process of cell mediated immunity

A

the sensitised t cells enlarge and divide, giving rise to a clone(group of identical t cells)
some cells remain in the lymphoid tissue as memory cells
memory cells will recognise the antigen if it ever presents again and initiate the immune response much faster
the other t cells that do not become memory cells continue to develop further into a possible three other types of t cells

430
Q

what are killer t cells

A

cytotoxic
migrate to site of infection to deal with antigen
attach to antigen and secrete a substance that will destroy it
it then goes off in search for more antigens to destroy

431
Q

what are helper t cells

A 
do play a role in antibody-mediated response as well
they secrete various substances that :
- cause lymphocytes at the infection site to become activated and intensify the response 
attract macrophages (to destroy by phagocytosis)
intensify the activity of phagocytes and macrophages
432
Q

what are suppresor t cells

A

these cells release a substance to inhibit b cells and t cells
this is needed when the injection has been dealt with as if the immune response was too excessive

433
Q

what is immunity

A

resistance to infections by micro-organism

434
Q

what is natural immunity

A

occurs without human interaction

435
Q

what is artificial immunity

A

occurs from giving people an antibody or antigen

436
Q

what is passive immunity

A

person is given antibodies

437
Q

what is active immunity

A

person is exposed to an antigen and the bodt makes its own antibodies

438
Q

what is natural passive immunity

A

antibodies enter the bloodstream across the placenta or in breast milk

439
Q

what is artificial passive immunity

A

antibodies are injected into the bloodstream

440
Q

what is active natural

A

ability to manufacture antibodies results from an attack of a disease

441
Q

what is artificial active

A

ability to manufacture antibodies results from being given an antigen by vaccination

442
Q

what are antibiotics

A

drugs that are used to fight infections or micro-organisms, particularly bacteria

443
Q

what are bactericidal antibiotics

A

kill bacteria by changing the structure of the cell wall or cell membrane. or by disrupting the actions of enzymes

444
Q

what are bacteriostatic antibiotics

A

stop bacteria from reproducing. usually by distrupting protein synthesis

445
Q

what are broad spectrum antibiotics

A

antibiotics effective on a wide range of bacteria

446
Q

what are narrow spectrum antibiotics

A

antibiotics effective only on specific bacteria

447
Q

what are super bugs

A

bacteria that have a resistance to an antibiotic

448
Q

what is multi bug resistant

A

when a type of bacteria is developing or has developed resistance to more than one antibiotic

449
Q

what is total drug resistance

A

no antibiotic is still effective against the infection

450
Q

what are antiviral drugs and why is it difficult to find drugs suitable for antivirals

A

drugs used for treating viral infections
they inhibit the development of the virus
it is available for HIV, herpes, hepatitis A and C, and influenza

it is difficult as viruses use the hosts cells to duplicate, therefore substances that can be used to disrupt the virus would also likely disrupt the hosts cells too

human biology year 12 (1 decks)

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