Semester 1 Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of these statements best explains why chemistry is reliable? (4 points)

A

It gives the same result when an experiment is repeated.

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2
Q

Which of the following questions can be answered by science? (4 points)

A

Are physical and chemical changes a part of nature?

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3
Q

Which of the following is a unit of volume in the metric system? (4 points)

A

Liter

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4
Q

The density of a gas is 1.25 grams/liter. Which of the following is correct to convert the density of the gas to ounce/milliliter? [1 gram = 0.04 ounce, 1 liter = 1,000 milliliter] (4 points)

A

Multiply 1.25 by 0.04 and divide the result obtained by 1,000

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5
Q

Which of the following types of energy does an object have because of its motion? (4 points)

A

Kinetic energy

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6
Q

Which of the following shows examples of things that convert electrical energy to thermal energy? (4 points)

A

Toaster and room heater

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7
Q

The atoms and molecules in a liquid are in constant motion. As temperature decreases, what is true of the particles in the liquid? (4 points)

A

The rate of particle movement decreases.

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8
Q

The following properties are either physical or chemical. Which one is different from the rest based on those two categories? (4 points)
Density
Flammability
Heat of combustion
Reactivity

A

Density

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9
Q

Which of the following could result from a substance that undergoes a physical change? (4 points)

A

It undergoes phase change.

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10
Q

Compare the type of change that occurs when an iron bar rusts and when a substance freezes. Use complete sentences to justify the type of change that occurs. (8 points)

A

An iron bar rusting is a chemical change, as opposed to the physical change of a substance freezing. A chemical change is defined by the substances’ composition being changed; it cannot be separated back to its original state, without chemical separation. However, a physical change can. Once iron rusts, it cannot go back to typical iron, denoting it a chemical change (its composition has also now changed); however, the substance frozen can go back to its original state ( no molecular composition has changed).

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11
Q

Which of the following is a property of a mixture? (4 points)

A

Components that are mixed can be in different states of matter.

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12
Q

A hair gel is a mixture. Which of the following is true about hair gel? (4 points)

A

A physical separation is enough to separate its mixed components.

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13
Q

A student compares the boiling point of substances having different intermolecular forces. Which dependent variable did the student most likely use? (4 points)
Compounds made of either ions, atoms, or molecules
Type of source used to heat up the substances
Type of container used for the substances
Correct
Boiling points of various substances

A

Boiling points of various substances

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14
Q

Emma used an equal arm balance to weigh a 1.134 g sample of calcium carbonate. Which of these measurements made by Emma is the most accurate? (4 points)

A

1.1 g

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15
Q

Which of these is a characteristic of pseudoscience but not a characteristic of science? (4 points)
Its results are inconsistent over experiments.
Its reliability is confirmed by many scientists.
It is a vast body of knowledge.
It follows scientific method.

A

Its results are inconsistent over experiments.

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16
Q

Which of the following is most likely to make scientific knowledge stronger? (4 points)

A

Evaluating it with experimentation and argument

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17
Q

Which of the following provides evidence to support Rutherford’s model of the atomic nucleus? (4 points)

A

Gold foil experiment

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18
Q

(particles closer to 1 will have a greater chance of being present in the nucleus of an atom)
Which particle is most likely present in the nucleus of the atom? (4 points)
P- 1
Q- .00054
R- .99

A

P& R

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19
Q

The table shows the number of charged subatomic particles in an ion.
Positive- 12
Negative-10
A positively charged substance is brought near the ion. What will most likely happen and why? (4 points)

A

The ion will repel the substance because it has lost two electrons.

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20
Q

What is the highest point of a wave called? (4 points)

A

Crest

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21
Q

A football player experiences acute pain in his knee. Which of the following methods can a doctor use to diagnose the reason for the pain? (4 points)

A

Use x‒ray radiation to see if there are any fractured bones.

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22
Q

What term is used to describe a particle representing a quantum energy? (4 points)

A

Photon

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23
Q

An electron moved from a lower energy level to a higher energy level. What most likely happened during the transition? (4 points)

A

A fixed amount of energy was absorbed.

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24
Q

Describe an electron cloud. Then, name and explain a particular atomic model that used the concept of the electron cloud. (8 points)

A

An electron cloud is an empty space around a nucleus, by which electrons orbit. This method of tracking the location of electrons, is, however, unreliable, as once placing the electron, it has already moved. Encompassing this concept of locating electrons, is the quantum model- this explains the notion that every atom may be described by four quantum numbers

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25
Q

A substance is a good conductor of electricity. Which of the following best explains the probable position of the substance in the periodic table? (4 points)

A

It is between groups 1 to 12 because it is a metal.

26
Q

It is between groups 1 to 12 because it is a metal.

A

Group 14

27
Q

Describe the properties of alkali metals. Based on their electronic arrangement, explain whether they exist alone in nature. (8 points)

A

The alkali metals are the most reactive in the periodic table- so reactive even water or gas could cause combustion. Due their highly reactive nature, they rarely exist on their own in nature.

28
Q

Which of the following properties decrease from left to right across a row in the periodic table? (4 points)

A

Atomic radii

29
Q

Which of the following correctly compares the radii of Na and Na+? (4 points)

A

Na has a larger radius than Na+ because Na+ has lost its outermost energy shell.

30
Q

Which of the following explains how Marie and Pierre Curie tried to influence the use of their discovery? (4 points)

A

They supported the use of radioactive elements for medical diagnostic purposes.

31
Q

Which of the following is true for a reliable scientific source? (4 points)

A

It cites valid data.

32
Q

Carbon is located in the fourth tall column of the periodic table. How many valence electrons does the element carbon have? (4 points)

A

4

33
Q

The electron configuration of an element is shown below.

1s22s22p63s23p6

Name the group this element belongs to in the periodic table and explain your answer.

Based on the electron configuration, write one chemical property of this element. (8 points)

A

The most important electrons are located in an atom’s outermost, or valence shell ( thus, valence electrons). In the element above there are 8 valence electrons ( located in the outermost shells), in subshell 3s there are 2 and in subshell 3p there are 6. In totality, the atom has 18 electrons. As it has a full valence shell, this is a noble gas- second to the notion of it’s full valence shell, the element is unreactive as no other elements may bond with it.

34
Q

What is the charge on an atom after it gains an electron during the formation of a bond? (4 points)

A

One negative charge

35
Q

(03.02 MC)

Define electronegativity.

A neutral atom has high electronegativity.

Describe what happens to this atom during ionic bond formation. (8 points)

A

Electronegativity describes the ability of an atom to attract other elements. If an atom has a high electronegativity, during ionic bonding said will take the electrons of an element with a weaker electronegativity.

36
Q

Which phrase best describes a covalent bond? (4 points)

A

Sharing of electrons

37
Q

What best describes the bonding in a water molecule? (4 points)

A

An oxygen atom shares an electron pair with each H atom.

38
Q

What best explains the formula unit for a compound made from fluorine and hydrogen? (4 points)

A

HF, because both fluorine and hydrogen are capable of forming only one covalent bond.

39
Q

What does the second word in the name of a binary ionic compound represent? (4 points)

A

The negative ion

40
Q

What is the name of a compound having the formula CaCl2? (4 points)

A

Calcium chloride

41
Q

Which of the following explains the VSEPR geometry of a carbon tetrachloride molecule? (4 points)

A

It is tetrahedral because there are four bonded pairs around carbon.

42
Q

Which of the following are dipole-dipole interactions that occur only between molecules containing N-H, O-H or F-H bonds? (4 points)

A

Hydrogen bonding

43
Q

Which statement is true about carbon? (4 points)

A

It shares its valence electrons.

44
Q

Describe the properties of carbon that makes it possible for millions of carbon compounds to occur naturally. (8 points)

A

Most primarily, carbon has the ability to form a multitude of covalent bonds, effectively permitting the atoms ability to create millions of compounds.

45
Q

Which statement is true about the total mass of the reactants during a chemical change? (4 points)

A

It is equal to the total mass of the products.

46
Q

(04.01 LC)

Look at the chemical equation:

2H2S + 3O2 → 2H2O + 2SO2

How many atoms of hydrogen (H) are present on each side of the equation? (4 points)

A

4

47
Q

Which of the following equations is balanced? (4 points)

A

2Fe2O3 + 3C → 4Fe + 3CO2

48
Q

Which of the following statements is true for a decomposition reaction? (4 points)

A

Multiple products are formed.

49
Q

Correct
6.
(04.02 MC)

Two chemical reactions are shown:
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

Which statement is true? (4 points)

A

A is a synthesis reaction, and B is a decomposition reaction.

50
Q

Which of the following steps can be used to identify a single replacement reaction? (4 points)

A

Check if one element replaces another element in a compound.

51
Q

Which property of an element determines its position in the activity series? (4 points)

A

Reactivity

52
Q

Which statement is correct about the reaction that occurs between calcium chloride and sodium carbonate? (4 points)

A

It is a double replacement reaction because calcium chloride and sodium carbonate exchange their non-metallic parts.

53
Q

Part 1: Name the type of chemical reaction that occurs when magnesium chloride solution (MgCl2) reacts with sodium carbonate solution (Na2CO3).

Part 2: Explain why aluminum (Al) would react with copper chloride (CuCl2) but not with magnesium chloride (MgCl2).

A

A. However I am not certain what reaction this is, I know it cannot be a single replacement reaction as that occurs only between an element and a compound; this could, yet, be a double replacement reaction, as that occurs between two compounds, which magnesium chloride and sodium carbonate are.

B. Aluminum is able to react with copper, as aluminum has a higher reactivity than copper does- however, magnesium has a higher reactivity than aluminum, implying a reaction will not occur.

54
Q

Which of the following is true for combustion reactions? (4 points)

A

Energy is released.

55
Q

Which of the following occurs when a large nucleus is split apart? (4 points)

A

Fission

56
Q

Which of the following statements is true about nuclear fusion? (4 points)

A

It occurs in the sun.

57
Q

A student listed the characteristics of chemical and nuclear reactions.
x- Changes the identity of the element
y- Does not change the identity of the element
Which of these statements best explains the identity of Reaction X? (4 points)

A

It is a nuclear reaction because the identity of elements changes when there is a change in the number of protons and neutrons.

58
Q

(04.06 HC)

The reactants of two chemical equations are listed.

Equation 1: AgNO3 + Zn
Equation 2: AgNO3 + MgCl2

Based on the type of reaction, which reaction can be used to extract silver metal from silver nitrate solution? (4 points)

A

Equation 1, because Zn being more reactive, replaces Ag from AgNO3

59
Q

Which of the following fundamental forces is the weakest? (4 points)

A

Gravity

60
Q
  1. (04.07 HC)

The table shows the amount of radioactive element remaining in a sample over a period of time.

Radioactive Decay Rate
Amount of Radioactive Sample
(grams) Time
(years)
45.0 0
31.8 11
22.5 22
15.9 33
11.3 44

Part 1: What is the half-life of the element? Explain how you determined this.
Part 2: How long would it take 308 g of the sample to decay to 4.8125 grams? Show your work or explain your answer. (8 points)

A

A. The half-life of a radioactive element, is the amount of time it takes for it to decay to half its initial total. At 22 years, the element is 22.5- half of 45, its starting value. This means the half-life of this element is 22 years.

B.
1 half-life- 308/2= 154
1 half-life- 154/ 2= 77
1 half-life- 77/2= 38.5
1 half-life- 38.5/2= 19.25
1 half-life- 19.25/2= 9.625
1 half-life- 9.625/2= 4.8125
As I know that one half-life is 22 years, I must multiply every half-life cycle it took 308 to reach 4.8125, by 22: 22*6= 132. It will take the substance 132 years to decay to 4.8125.