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Sem 1 Finals Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of cellular housekeeping except

A. Protection from the environment
B. Communication
C. Movement
D. Apoptosis od senescent cells

A

APOPTOSIS OF SENESCENT CELLS

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2
Q

Glycoprotein that also acts as a cofactor in coagulation….

A

Phosphatidylserine

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3
Q
  1. Extracytoplasmic proteins associate with the membrane thru.
A

B. GlycosylphostadylInositol.

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4
Q
  1. Increased vascular permeability seen in wound healing is associated with
A

C. transcytosis

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5
Q
  1. Functions as a chemical and mechanical barrier:
A

A. Glycocalyx

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6
Q
  1. Which intermediate filament will be positive if you have infiltrating ductal carcinoma:
A

D. Cytokeratin

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7
Q
  1. Desmosomes are:
A

Anchoring junctions

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is incorrect of endoplasmic reticulum:
A
  • Organize into a tubular-like interconnections
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9
Q
  1. TRUE of cytoplasmic catabolism:
A

a. In heterophagy, lysosomes dissociate with endosome to facilitate degradation.

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10
Q 
19. Cell surface receptor except 
A.	GTP proteins
B.	Endogenous enzyme
C.	Ion channels
D.	Protein dissociation
A

PROTEIN DISSOCIATION

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11
Q
  1. Characterized as polypeptides that transverse the membrane seven times
A
  • G-protein coupled receptor
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12
Q
  1. Characterized as polypeptides that transverse the membrane seven times
A
  • G-protein coupled receptor
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13
Q
  1. It stimulates formation of granulation tissue
A
  • C. EGF (epidermal growth factor)
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14
Q
  1. Water hydrated-gel that permits compressive resistance and lubrication -
A

Hyaluronan

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15
Q
  1. Most abundant glycoprotein in the membrane -
A

Laminin

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16
Q
  1. Associated with Marfan Syndrome -
A

Defect in Elastin

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17
Q
  1. True of stem cell except,
A

D. Symmetric division

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18
Q
  1. Cell shrinkage, basophilia and nuclear fragmentation?
A

D. Karyorrhexis

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19
Q
  1. All the following examples of hypertrophy, except:
    A. Biceps enlargement due to exercise
    B. Endometrial thickening due to excess estrogen
    C. Left ventricle enlargement but to high blood pressure
    D. Right ventricle enlargement due to pulmonary fibrosis
    E. Uterine enlargement during pregnancy
A

E. Uterine enlargement during pregnancy

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of metaplasia?
    A. Atropine change in breast
    B. Barret’s esophagus
    C. Squamous change in smokers’ lungs
    D. Myositis ossificans
    E. Notochord loss and replacement with spinal cord
A

E. Notochord loss and replacement with spinal cord

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21
Q
  1. All of the following are true regarding ischemia except:
  • Which of the following will most likely result in liquefactive necrosis? Answer: Stroke
    33. True of apoptosis except:
    A. Integral part of embryogenesis
    B. Cell fragments with in tact cytoplasmic membrane
    C. Activated by FAS-FAS ligand binding
    D. Incites a brisk inflammatory response - inflammatory response is for necrosis
    E. Occurs in normal chuchu (I forgot)
    34. Wheals or evanescent ans, Urticaria
    35. Sequestration of cellular organelles into cytoplasmic autophagic vacuoles that fuse with lysosomes and digest the enclosed material. AUTOPHAGY
    36. Most common cause of fatty liver: Alcoholism
    37. What is the major storage form of Iron
    Answer: HEMOSIDERIN
    38. Which of the cellular adaptation responses has a risk for malignant transformation?
    A. Hypertrophy
    B. Hyperplasia
    C. Atrophy
    D. Metaplasia
    E. Cell death
    40. 55 year-old man has a blood pressure of 140/100 mmHg. If his hypertension remains untreated for several years, what cellular alteration will be seen in his myocardium?
    A. Atrophy
    B. Hyperplasia
    C. Metaplasia
    D. Hypertrophy
A

Aerobic Glycolysis continued function.

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22
Q
  1. Removal of small portion of the left lobe of the liver. Several weeks later, upon CT scan liver size is almost the same as its original size.
A
  • compensatory hyperplasia
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23
Q
  1. Which of the following situations result in liquefactive necrosis?
A

Answer: Stroke

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24
Q
  1. True of apoptosis except:
    A. Integral part of embryogenesis
    B. Cell fragments with in tact cytoplasmic membrane
    C. Activated by FAS-FAS ligand binding
    D. Incites a brisk inflammatory response - inflammatory response is for necrosis
    E. Occurs in normal chuchu (I forgot)
A

D. Incites a brisk inflammatory response - inflammatory response is for necrosis

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25
Q
  1. Wheals or evanescent
A

ans, Urticaria

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26
Q
  1. Sequestration of cellular organelles into cytoplasmic autophagic vacuoles that fuse with lysosomes and digest the enclosed material.
A

AUTOPHAGY

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27
Q
  1. Most common cause of fatty liver:
A

Alcoholism

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28
Q
  1. What is the major storage form of Iron
A

Answer: HEMOSIDERIN

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29
Q
  1. Which of the cellular adaptation responses has a risk for malignant transformation?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia
E. Cell death
A

D. Metaplasia

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30
Q
  1. 55 year-old man has a blood pressure of 140/100 mmHg. If his hypertension remains untreated for several years, what cellular alteration will be seen in his myocardium?
A. Atrophy 
B. Hyperplasia 
C. Metaplasia 
D. Hypertrophy 
E. Hydropic change
A

D. Hypertrophy

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31
Q 
1.      Causes of pain in acute appendicitis except:
A. Chemical mediators
B. Stretching of nerves
C. Movement of inflammatory cells
D. Stretching of pain receptors
A

C. Movement of inflammatory cells

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32
Q

Hallmark of Inflammation:

A

Increased vascular permeability

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33
Q

Granuloma in tuberculosis

A

Central caseous necrosis

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34
Q 
This type of immunoglobulin E cells contributes to allergic reaction and increase parasitic infection.
A. Mast cell
B. Basophil
C. Eosinophil
D. Monocyte
A

C. Eosinophil

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35
Q

Excessive collagen formation with hypertrophic scar:

A

Keloid

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36
Q

Factor that contributes to delayed wound healing in diabetics.

A

A. Metabolic

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37
Q 
23 y/o female taking corticosteroid therapy for autoimmune disorder develops an abscess on the upper outer arm. She underwent minor surgery to incise and drains the abscess but noticed that the wound did not heal after a month. What is most likely reduced? 
A.	Re-epithelization
B.	Fibroblast growth factor elaboration
C.	Collagen deposition
D.	Serine proteinase prodcution
A

C. Collagen deposition

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38
Q

A cesarean section is performed on a 20-yr old woman to deliver a term infant and lower abdominal incision is sutured. The suture is removed 1 week later. Which of the following statement best described the wound site at the time of suture removal?
A. Granulation tissue is still present
B. Collagen degradation exceeds synthesis
C. Wound strength is 80% in normal tissue
D. Type IV collagen predominates
E. No more strength will regain

A

A. Granulation tissue is still present

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39
Q

Collagen deficient in osteogenesis imperfecta —-

A

Type 1

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40
Q
  1. All are quiescent tissues except:
A

D. Hematopoietic tissues

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41
Q 
19.       Permanent tissues except: 
A. Skeletal muscle 
B. Parenchymal cells of Pancreas
C. Neurons
D. Cardiac muscle cells
A

B. Parenchymal cells of Pancreas

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42
Q 
20.       Labile tissues, except:
A. Lining epithelium of skin
B. Lining epithelium of exocrine pancreatic glands
C. Lining epithelium of uterus
D. Satellite cells
A

D. Satellite cells

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43
Q

Pathogenesis of pain in acute appendicitis is mediated by release of:

A

KININ

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44
Q
  1. Role of Serotonin in acute inflammatory process except:
A
  • Pain Mediator
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45
Q

Which complement is an anaphylatoxin?

A

C3a

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46
Q

Wound contractures is seen in:

A

B. Serious burn patients

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47
Q 
Which is not a type of effusion?
A. Hydrothorax
B. Hydroperitonium
C. Hydrosalpinx
D. Hydropericardium
A

C. Hydrosalpinx

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48
Q

TRANSUDATES ARE:

A

PROTEIN POOR FLUID

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49
Q 
29.  Increased hydrostatic pressure except:
A.	Congestive Heart Failure
B.	Venous Obstruction
C.	Ascites
D.	Lymphatic obstruction
A

D. Lymphatic obstruction

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50
Q
  1. What is not a function of endothelial cells?
    A. Inhibits thrombosis
    B. Inhibits platelets
    C. Secretes ADP
A

C. Secretes ADP

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51
Q
  1. A patient presents with unilateral pitting edema. Ultrasound shows Deep Venous Thrombosis. The primary cause of this edema would likely be?

A. Increase Hydrostatic pressure
B. Increase Vascular pressure
C. Reduced Osmotic pressure
D. Sodium Retention

A

A. Increase Hydrostatic pressure

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52
Q 
32.  Hemosiderin Laden Macrophages are seen in the following conditions except:
A.	Acute Pulmonary Congestion
B.	Chronic Passive Hepatic Congestion
C.	Chronic Pulmonary Congestion
D.	Chronic Passive Splenic Congestion
A

A. Acute Pulmonary Congestion

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53
Q
  1. Important factor in platelet adherence and activation
A

vwf or GP1b

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54
Q
  1. GP1B DEFICIENCY
  • BERNARD SOULIER SYNDROME
  • GLANZMANN
  • THROMBASTHENIA,
  • GILBERT SYNDROME
A

BERNARD SOULIER SYNDROME

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55
Q 
35.   Most important coagulation factor
A.	Calcium
B.	Thrombin
C.	Fibrin
D.	Thromboplastin
A

B. Thrombin

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56
Q

In the laboratory, clotting is induced by adding

A
  • Calcium
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57
Q
  1. Virchow’s triad except:
A

Hyperpermeability

58
Q
  1. Mucosal bleeding associated with defects in primary hemostasis include all of the ff, except:
A

ecchymoses

59
Q
  1. Antemortem thrombi -
A

Lines of Zahn

60
Q
  1. A 20- year old male sustain fracture in the right tibia and femur and in left humerus from a motor vehicle accident. He was then admitted for surgery. He was stable upon admission. Two days later he became severely dyspneic. What complication is most likely the cause of his respiratory problem?
    a. Right hemothorax
    b. Pulmonary edema
    c. Fat embolism
    d. Pulmonary infarction
A

c. Fat embolism

61
Q
  1. A 30-yr old man is on scuba diving. 30 minutes after descent, he has equipment malfunction and rapidly returns to the boat surface. He soon experiences dyspnea, substernal chest pain, severe headache, and vertigo. 1 hour later, he develops severe myalgia and arthralgia. After 24 hrs, the symptoms abated. What do you think is the mechanism of the cause of the symptoms?
    a. DIC
    b. Venous thrombosis
    c. Tissue nitrogen emboli
    d. Fat arteriolar emboli
A

c. Tissue nitrogen emboli

62
Q
  1. Case: ff are the sx/sy: History or Nosebleed, increase menstrual cycle, petichae & purpura, decrease von willebrand.
A

Answer: Platelet adhesion deficiency

63
Q
  1. 70y/o, f, left femur trochanter fx, swelling below the knee, pain with movement - BONUS
A
  • Gangrenous necrosis of foot

- Pulmonary Emboli

64
Q
  1. A 40 y/o woman, a bank teller, observes swollen legs and feet after work. Laboratory tests for Liver and Kidney are normal… What is the possible cause for this?
A

Ans: Increase hydrostatic pressure

65
Q
  1. 86-year old man with recurrent UTI, presents with fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, mental obtundation, & reduced blood pressure. What type of shock is most likely?

Cardiogenic
Anaphylactic
Septic
Hypovolemic

A

SEPTIC

66
Q
  1. White infarct occurs in:
A

END ARTERIAL OCCLUSION

67
Q 
47.   Bed ridden patient experience, pleuritic pain and “”””””” pain, what causes this?
a . Hepatic Vein
B. Portal Vein
C. Pelvic Vein
D. Veins of the lower extremities
A

charot

68
Q

8yr old boy mentally retarded can do daily activity like dressing. On patient’s exam the patient has brachycephaly and oblique palpebral fissure

  1. Px abnormality?
A

B. Trisomy chromosome 21

69
Q

8yr old boy mentally retarded can do daily activity like dressing. On patient’s exam the patient has brachycephaly and oblique palpebral fissure

2. If you check the px heart. 
A. Heart located on the opposite side
B. Pectus carinum
C. Grade 3/4 systolic murmur
D. Normal, down syndrome dont have heart problem
A

C. Grade 3/4 systolic murmur

70
Q

8yr old boy mentally retarded can do daily activity like dressing. On patient’s exam the patient has brachycephaly and oblique palpebral fissure

3. Which of the following diseases is he most likely to develop by age 20 years?
A. Acute leukemia
B. Acute myocardial infarction
C. Aortic dissection
D. Chronic renal failure
A

A. Acute leukemia

71
Q

8yr old boy mentally retarded can do daily activity like dressing. On patient’s exam the patient has brachycephaly and oblique palpebral fissure

4. What abnormality will you see in this patient?
A. Brushfield spots
B. Lisch nodules
C. Keyser-fleischer rings
D. Cafe au lait spots
A

A. Brushfield spots

72
Q

8yr old boy mentally retarded can do daily activity like dressing. On patient’s exam the patient has brachycephaly and oblique palpebral fissure

5.the abnormality that caused the disease is caused by?
A.trinucleotide repeats
B.single nucleotide polymorphism
C.maternal nondisjunction
D.ring chromosome formation
A

C.maternal nondisjunction

73
Q

8yr old boy mentally retarded can do daily activity like dressing. On patient’s exam the patient has brachycephaly and oblique palpebral fissure

  1. Virtually with this abnormality all patients by age 40 will have?
    A.cirrhosis
    B.alzheimer
    C.Bilateral neuromas
A

B.alzheimer

74
Q

Patient has retinal pallor with prominent macula.

7. What finding do you expect to see in the eye?
A.	Florid growth of new blood vessel
B.	Dislocated lens
C.	Cataract
D.	Cherry red spot on the macula
8. What led to this finding?
A.	Accumulation of GM2 ganglioside
B.	Accumulation of copper in blood
C.	Loss of Fibrillin-1
A

D. Cherry red spot on the macula

75
Q

Patient has retinal pallor with prominent macula.
[What finding do you expect to see in the eye? Cherry red spot on the macula]

  1. What led to this finding?
    A. Accumulation of GM2 ganglioside
    B. Accumulation of copper in blood
    C. Loss of Fibrillin-1
A

A. Accumulation of GM2 ganglioside

76
Q

A nine year old child has had poor wound healing since infancy even with minor wounds. Upon examination, she has hyperextensible joints, stretchy and fragile skin.

  1. What is associated with this disorder?

Rocker bottom feet
Lisch nodules
Diaphragmatic abscess
Epicanthic folds

A

Diaphragmatic abscess

77
Q

A nine year old child has had poor wound healing since infancy even with minor wounds. Upon examination, she has hyperextensible joints, stretchy and fragile skin.

  1. What is deficient?
    Fibrillin 1
    Collagen deficiency
    Sphingomyelinase
A

Collagen deficiency

78
Q

A nine year old child has had poor wound healing since infancy even with minor wounds. Upon examination, she has hyperextensible joints, stretchy and fragile skin.

  1. What other factors can the patient experience? (Patient with Ehlers-Danlos)
    A. Neck rigidity
    B. Drastic increase in heart rate when standing up
    C. Situs tranversalis…
    D. FSPS
A

C. Situs tranversalis…

79
Q

16 A 15-year-old girl has developed multiple nodules on her skin over the past 10 years. On physical examination, there are 20 scattered, 0.3-cm to 1-cm, firm nodules on the patient’s trunk and extremities. There are 12 light brown macules averaging 2 to 5 cm in diameter on the skin of the trunk. Slit-lamp examination shows pigmented nodules in the iris. A sibling and a parent are similarly affected. Genetic analysis shows a loss-of-function mutation.

Which of the following inheritance patterns is most likely to be present in this family?

A

Autosomal dominant

80
Q

16 A 15-year-old girl has developed multiple nodules on her skin over the past 10 years. On physical examination, there are 20 scattered, 0.3-cm to 1-cm, firm nodules on the patient’s trunk and extremities. There are 12 light brown macules averaging 2 to 5 cm in diameter on the skin of the trunk. Slit-lamp examination shows pigmented nodules in the iris. A sibling and a parent are similarly affected. Genetic analysis shows a loss-of-function mutation.

What is the cause of this finding?

A
  1. Involves Cytoplasmic Protein
81
Q

16 A 15-year-old girl has developed multiple nodules on her skin over the past 10 years. On physical examination, there are 20 scattered, 0.3-cm to 1-cm, firm nodules on the patient’s trunk and extremities. There are 12 light brown macules averaging 2 to 5 cm in diameter on the skin of the trunk. Slit-lamp examination shows pigmented nodules in the iris. A sibling and a parent are similarly affected. Genetic analysis shows a loss-of-function mutation.

This is due to what deficiency?

A
  1. Lack of: Tumor Suppresor
82
Q
  1. Multiple nodule in the back for past 10 years
    A. Acute Eosinophilic Leukemia
    B. Synovial Sarcoma
    C. Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor
    D. Inflammatory Neurofibrosis
A

D. Inflammatory Neurofibrosis

83
Q 
20. Not included in chromosome 22 q.11
A.	Follor Tetralogy
B.	Cleft Palate
C.	Thymic Aplasia
D.	Hypocalcemia
E.	NOTA
A

E. NOTA

84
Q

21 Other name of 22q11.2

A

Digeorge

85
Q 
23. The gene that encodes for the protein that is deficient in Neurofibromatosis-1 is encoded in
	A. Chromosome 21
	B. Chromosome 18
	C. Chromosome 13
	D. Chromosome 17
A

D. Chromosome 17

86
Q
  1. In general, can a patient with Turner syndrome bear children and why?
    a. No, because their ovaries are underdeveloped.
    b. Yes
    c. No, because these patients only have male genitalia.
A

a. No, because their ovaries are underdeveloped.

87
Q 
25. Patients with Alcaptonuria have:
A.
B. Hyperextensible joints
C.
D. Black urine
A

D. Black urine

88
Q
  1. A 30 y/o man presents with hemoptysis and hematuria. Kidney biopsy reveals inflammation in the glomeruli. A chest radiograph reveals focal pulmonary infiltrates. Which one of the following is likely to be found on the immunofluorescence study.A. Electron dense humps on the epithelial side of the basement membrane.
    B. Linear IgG deposits on alveolar and glomerular basement membranes
    C. Mesangial deposition of IgA
    D. Spike and dome deposits of IgG on the glomerular basement membrane.
A

B. Linear IgG deposits on alveolar and glomerular basement membranes

89
Q
  1. A 34 Year old Nigerian Man consults the physician due to several months of weight loss, night sweats, sputum production, and coughing. A PPD skin test is made and the result is positive. What can you conclude to the result?
    a. B and T cell systems are functional
    b. The neutrophilic phagocyte system is functional
    c. Cell mediated immune response has occurred
    d. Humoral immune response has occurred
    e. B cell system is functional
A

b. The neutrophilic phagocyte system is functional

90
Q
  1. A 35 year old gardener presents to the urgent care clinic with a pruritic skin rash on his right arm. Physical examination reveals a linear reaction with vesiculation. Which one of the following cells would be found earliest in this patient’s skin lesion?
A.	Mast cells
B.	Eosinophils
C.	Neutrophils
D.	Macrophages
E.	T-lymphocytes
A

C. Neutrophils

91
Q 
36. A 9-year old boy develops sore throat. A throat culture shows Group A hemolytic streptococcus. He received Antibiotic treatment. However, 17 days later, He develop dark-colored urine. Urinalysis shows 3+ Blood. A kidney biopsy was done and immunoflourescence stain shows granular deposition of IgG and complement around glomerular capillaries. Which mechanism explains this.
	A.Type I
	B.Type II
	C.Type III
	D.Type IV
A

B.Type II

92
Q
  1. 60 yr old patient experienced progressive tightening and hardening of the skin of the arm and face. ANA panel suggests (+) antitropoisomerase and (-) anticentromeric antibody. If left untreated it would progress to:
A

C. Progress to fatal systemic fibrosis

93
Q
  1. 60 year old homeless alcoholic, with fever and cough, rapid pulse, labored breathing and diffuse rales, endotracheal mucopurulent discharge positive with gram positive cocci, high titers of IgM specific to polysaccharide in the capsule of the bacteria.
    a. Antibody mediated cytotoxicity
    b. Cytotoxic T cell mediated
    c. Complement mediated opsonization
    d. Lymphokine-activated
    e. Natural killer cell
A

c. Complement mediated opsonization

94
Q
  1. Fever, edema, arthralgia and rash. Which shows same mechanism?
A
  • Arthus reaction
95
Q
  1. Parasitic; schistosomiasis (nile delta)
A
  • Serum Sickness
96
Q
  1. (non verbatim) 25 yr old female. her antibody react on cell surface, example of this kind of hypersensitivity?
A

Thrombocytopenia

97
Q
    • 35 year old woman
      • weakness and difficulty breathing upon exertion
      • doesn’t seem to fit right anymore
      • chest x-ray negative for pulmonary edema
      • thickening of the skin around the fingers and cyanosis of the skin upon cold exposure
      • positive of anti-ribonucleoprotein antibodies
A

ANS. CREST SYNDROME

98
Q 
48. After a high-dose chemotherapy and irradiation, a 40-year-old woman with aml in remission receives a bone marrow transplant from her HLA-matched brother. One week after the graft, the patient develops a fever and a maculopapular rash over her UE and back. She also complains of abdominal pain and lbm. Lab exam is remarkable for elevation of alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
A. Radiation toxicity
B. Hyperacute graft rejection
C. Gvhd
D. Blast crisis
E. Bacterial infection from the graft
A

C. Gvhd

99
Q 
49. A 25 yr old woman undergoes bone marrow transplant for acute leukemia. There is 5/6 HLA match. Three weeks after, she has bone marrow engraftment and her Hgb and WBC count are returning to normal. However she develops a scaling skin rash over her trunk and upper extremities. This is a result of what complication?
A. Contact dermatitis
B. Reduced number of megakaryocytes
C. Abrasions secondary to trauma in ICU
D. Keratinitis apoptosis
E. Dry gangrenous gangrene
A

D. Keratinitis apoptosis

100
Q 
50. A 55 year old develops end stage renal disease from long term diabetes mellitus. He received a cadaveric kidney transplant. A month later he exhibits increase malaise and decreased urine output. Lab studies show he has increased serum urea nitrogen and creatinine. The allograft was biopsied and seen microscopically was destruction by cells which recognize graft cells exhibiting class 1 HLA antigens. What cell is most likely to mediate the response?
	A. Plasma cells
	B. Natural killer
	C. CD4 lymphocytes
	D. CD8 lymphocytes
	E. Macrophages
A

D. CD8 lymphocytes

101
Q
  1. Not a subtype of Tcell:
A

Plasma Cell

102
Q

53.Professional antigen presenting cells EXCEPT:

A

CD4+ Cells

103
Q
  1. A rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder where hematopoietic cells are unable to diminish or proliferate.
    A. Bruton Agammaglobulinemia
    B. Wiskott–Aldrich Syndrome
A

B. Wiskott–Aldrich Syndrome

104
Q
  1. A 30-year-old man has experienced increasing muscular weakness over the past 5 months. This weakness is most pronounced in muscles that are used extensively, such as the levator palpebrae of the eyelids, causing him difficulty with vision by the end of the day. A CT scan of his chest shows mass in mediastinum.
    A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction against muscle antigens
    B. Immune complex deposition in muscle capillaries
    C. Antibody-mediated dysfunction of neuromuscular junction
    D. Lysis of muscle cells by CD8+ lymphocytes
    E. Secretion of cytokines by activated macrophages
A

C. Antibody-mediated dysfunction of neuromuscular junction

105
Q 
56. What type of hypersensitivity is this?
A.	Type 1
B.	Type 2
C.	Type 3
D.	Type 4
A

B. Type 2

106
Q 
57. Which of the following is likely to be present in the patient : 
A. Calcium secreting lung tumor
B. Thyroid nodule
C. Lymphoma
D. Thymoma
A

D. Thymoma

107
Q
  1. Kaposi’s virus =
A

human herpesvirus 8/ HHV8

108
Q
  1. What is the type of hypersensitivity of SLE -
A

TYPE 3

109
Q

Neutrophil that has engulfed the antibody-coated nucleus of another neutrophil?

A

LE cell

110
Q
  1. Chronic rejection:
A

A. Directed towards vasculature of transplanted organ

111
Q

Jose is a 1-year old boy that has had multiple bacterial infections. His B-cells are defective.
70. What is the condition that is most likely mentioned above?

A

ANSWER: Bruton agammaglobulinemia

112
Q

Jose is a 1-year old boy that has had multiple bacterial infections. His B-cells are defective.
70. What is the condition that is most likely mentioned above?

  1. Low levels of?
    A. IgE
    B. IgG
    C. IgA
A

B. IgG

113
Q
  1. Nelson a 55 year old man complaining of yellow to
    white plaque in his tongue that cant be scraped off
    and a bluish to red oval shaped patches. His test
    CD4 count is below 34. This person is at risk:
A

if CD4 is below 500

114
Q
  1. Exposed on the surface of HIV envelope facilitating its entry into the host cell—
A

GP120

115
Q
  1. Brown to red patches in Nelson’s body are associated with:
A

Kaposis sarcoma

116
Q 
1.	These are disorganize but benign masses comprised of cell indigenous to the involve site
A. Hamartoma
B. Choriostoma
C. Hematoma
D. Choriostoma
A

A. Hamartoma

117
Q
  1. Benign tumor except:
A

seminoma

118
Q
  1. Principal of oil:
A

benzene

119
Q
  1. Factor that may cause cancer?
    A. Age
    B. Sex
    C. Lifestyle
A

A. Age

120
Q 
Tgf alpha tumor
A. Astrocytoma
B. Leukemia
C.  Chorioma
D. Breast cancer
A

A. Astrocytoma

121
Q
  1. Proto-oncogene signal transduction-
A

kras

122
Q
  1. Malignant tumor-
A

infiltrating

123
Q
  1. point mutation of family of genes of most common type of procto-oncogenes of abnormality of human tumors?
    A.ras
    B.erb
    C.myc
A

A.ras

124
Q 
4.	hallmark of malignancy
A. Differentiation
B. Sarcoma
C. Anaplasia
D. Metaplasia
A

C. Anaplasia

125
Q
  1. APC as an inhibitor of mitogenic signalling pathway can cause cancer of:
    a. Stomach
    b. Bladder
    c. Large Intestine
    d. Uterus
A

c. Large Intestine

126
Q
  1. What cell adhesion molecule plays an important role in contact-mediated growth of epithelial cells. It also binds and sequesters B-cantenin:
    a. TGF-beta
    b. E-cadherins
    c. Cdkn2a
    d. Pten
A

b. E-cadherins

127
Q
  1. Cell adhesion molecule that plays an important role in contact-mediated growth inhibition of epithelial cells
A

E-Cadherin

128
Q
  1. In apoptosis, the following are true:
    a. Can be initiated by intrinsic and extrinsic pathway
    b. ..
    c. both
A

c. both

129
Q
  1. origin of cell tumor
    ● proctogene
    ● Oncogene
    ● Paraneoplasia
A

● Paraneoplasia

130
Q
  1. medullary ca
    ● CEA
    ● BRC1
    ● calcitonin
A

● calcitonin

131
Q
  1. Which of the following doesn’t have effect on anti-tumor suppression mechanism
    a. Cytotoxic T-cell
    b. Natural killer cell
    c. Helper T-cell
    d. Macrophages
A

c. Helper T-cell

132
Q
  1. The following are GI local defense except:
A

EPIDERMAL BARRIER

133
Q
  1. resistant to inactivation by acid, bile, pancreatic enzyme:
A

norovirus

134
Q 
3.	5 yr. old girl, HIV positive, above 500 CD4, undetectable levels of HIV-1 RNA, no anogenital injury. What is the most likely mode of transmission?
A.	Inhalational
B.	Fecal-oral
C.	Transplacental
D.	Sexual abuse
A

C. Transplacental

135
Q
  1. the ff virus spread to CNS via peripheral nerves except:
A

varicella cmv polio rabies

136
Q
  1. A 10 year old child has a reddish brown patchy rash on her face, arm, has ulcerations:
A

Rubeola

137
Q 
6.	It forms a large pink to purple intranuclear inclusion surrounded by a clear halo
A.	CMV
B.	Herpes virus
C.	Smallpox virus
D.	Rabies virus
A

B. Herpes virus

138
Q
  1. Virus that cause cell proliferation and transformation resulting in cancer:
A

EBV

139
Q
  1. A 10 year old complained of rashes over the trunk and developed vesicles. They eventually ruptured and crusted. What condition will likely develop after decades? -
A

shingles

140
Q
  1. 25y/o female with lesion in the labia minora…..shows what changes in the lesion? -
A

multinuclear cells containing pink to purple inclusions

141
Q
  1. Owl’s eye inclusion
A
  • CMV

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