Self-test Questions Flashcards
(167 cards)
1
Q
What type of aircraft maintenance training is centrally produced but delivered to students to be accomplished at their convenience?
A
Distance Learning.
2
Q
What type of training includes advanced and qualification training that develops in-depth expertise within a specialty, broadens knowledge of new specialties, introduces new technologies and systems, develops analytical skills, or increase understanding of the relationship between maintenance specialties?
A
Continuation Training.
3
Q
Other than three airframe and power plant courses, what is an example of an aircraft maintenance-related specialized course?
A
Aircraft Communications/Navigation Systems.
4
Q
For maintenance personnel, when must training documentation be maintained for MSgts and above.
A
When they perform maintenance on aircraft, missiles, or associated equipment.
5
Q
What type of maintenance tasks are normally included on the special certification roster?
A
Those that have a high potential for personnel injury or damage to equipment.
6
Q
What for, normally used to add someone to the special certification roster?
A
AF IMT 2426, Training Request and Completion Notification.
7
Q
What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task he or she was added to the special certification roster to perform?
A
Decertify the, and have them removed from the SCR for the task.
8
Q
Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time visibility of what?
A
The technical qualification, certification, and training status of weapons system and support professionals Air Force wide.
9
Q
TBA allows all officers, enlisted, and civilian personnel to access their training records and the records of personnel they supervise anywhere that has what?
A
Network access.
10
Q
What provides notification on TBA application problems, software release (problem corrections) projected downtime and training update information?
A
The “System Message” board.
11
Q
What determine the action TBA allows you to perform?
A
The Role or Roles, you have been assigned by a Role Manager.
12
Q
What is a copy of the TBA production application intended for user practice and orientation on the TBA application and not for operational unit training management activities?
A
TBA User Practice Environment (UPE).
13
Q
Maintenance orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maintenance qualification program?
A
Phase 1.
14
Q
What agency is required to develop a list of all mandatory TD, MTF, and advanced distributed learning courses that maintenance personnel must attend in order to work on a specific MDS?
A
Lea command.
15
Q
What course must MSgt or above attend, if available, when they will be supervising personnel on an MDS for which they have less than 1 year experience?
A
Aircraft familiarization course.
16
Q
What training consist of academic and practical hands-on training courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC courses?
A
Maintenance qualification training.
17
Q
What phase of training includes specialty training such as engine run, hot pit refuel, and bore scope training?
A
Phase 3, special Qualification Training (SQT).
18
Q
What does it mean someone is showing in MDS as AWACT without a due date for a particular training requirement?
A
That the initial training has not been performed or loaded.
19
Q
When an inventory of course materials is accomplished, what should also be completed in the CDC volumes before a trainee is allowed to begin work on the CDC course?
A
Any applicable pen-and-ink changes.
20
Q
If TBA is not used or available, which AF IMT should be used to show milestone such as date volume issued, completed, any delays, reviews of training progress, course exam ordered/passed or fail, and any other significant CDC training issues?
A
AF IMT 623a on-the-job Training Record Continuation sheet.
21
Q
When you are building a master training plan (MTP) for your flight/section, what should you do first?
A
Develop a master task list.
22
Q
What cutoff should be used to determine if a task should be a work center requirement?
A
If it is performed by 51 percent or more of personnel in the work center.
23
Q
With some exceptions, what do core tasks identify?
A
The minimum task certification that must be achieved by technicians to be upgraded to either 5 or 7 level.
24
Q
What type of training tasks–both core and non-core–require third-party certification?
A
Critical tasks.
25
Work that an organization is required to perform but not given the manpower authorizations to do it?
Unfounded mandate.
26
Positions deemed important by organizational leadership but have not been validated?
Out-of-hide position.
27
A quantities expression representing manpower requirements in response to varying levels of workload.
Manpower standard.
28
A funded or unfounded statement of manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission or program.
Manpower requirement.
29
What does the UMD provide a listing of?
Both funded and unfounded unit manpower requirements.
30
What does the UPMR provide a listing of?
Unit Authorizations (including gains and losses) by wokk center or FAC with the name and rank of actual person filling each position.
31
What is a manning assist used for?
To alleviate a short term manning problem caused by a temporary but unusually high work load.
32
Who is the approval authority to schedule maintenance personnel to work a shift longer than 12 hour Shift?
MXG/CC.
33
What is the definition of duty time for maintenance personnel?
Defined as when an individual reports for duty until their supervisor releases them.
34
Which maintenance personnel will not perform their duty related maintenance actions beyond a 12 hour continuos duty period?
Personnel required to handle, load, or perform maintenance on nuclear weapons, conventional munitions and/or egress explosives.
35
Why is shift rotation a key component of personnel utilization?
It allows each individual to develop personal experience and knowledge by exposing the, to shift specific duties.
36
Who should flight/section Chiefs coordinate work shift schedule changes with to ensure sufficient people will be available to support the mission?
The production superintendent or MX Operation Officer/ MX SUPT.
37
with the exception of MSL personnel, supply support personnel are normally listed on what UMD?
Maintenance Group's.
38
In addition to coordination maintenance and supply actions and managing supply transactions, what are work center supply personnel tasked with doing?
managing the production of assets in the repair cycle and resolving supply support problems.
39
Why do MSL personnel periodically visit and inspect all maintenance work centers?
To identify and recommend corrective action on procedures or compliance problems associated with supply support.
40
What is the purpose of a readiness spares package?
To provide a prepackaged set of supplies and spare parts required to support planned wartime or contingency for a specified period of time pending resupply.
41
In a general sense, what are the two primary types of readiness spares packages?
Mobility readiness spares packages and in-place readiness spare packages.
42
What is the definition of peacetime operating stock (POS) as it pertains to readiness spares packages?
It is the normal day-to-day assets routinely available in the supply system to support a weapon system.
43
Temporary high priority mission support kit (THPMSK) are primarily used to provide support for what type of operations.
To support contingency operations for a period at time less than 90 days.
44
What is the primary reason for conducting an annual review of all permanent readiness spares packaging?
To ensure that units are supported with the right size RSP to accomplish its wartime tasking.
45
What is the purpose of a bench stock?
To provide maintenance with quick access items needed on a day-to-day basis.
46
If shop stock is stored near or adjacent to bench stock items, should they be mixed together?
NO.
47
In addition to clearly identifying items as "Work Order Residue", how should you also label them?
With noun, national stock number or part number, unit of issue, and shelf life, if applicable.
48
Basically, what is the definition of shelf life items?
Any reason that has a specified amount of time before they must be turned in as unserviceable or inspected and remarked-provided they are still serviceable.
49
What AF IMT must all requesters use when requesting the local manufacture of a specific item?
AF IMT 2005, Issue/Turn in Request.
50
What AF IMT must be used when requesting local manufacture of equipment related items?
AF IMT 601, Equipment Action Request.
51
Who must approve all locally manufactured, developed, or modified tolls and equipment, not specifically authorized in technical data?
MXG/CC or their designated representative.
52
What is a basic definition of hazardous materials (HAZMAT)?
Any substance that is toxic or flammable - be it gas, liquid or solid - which may cause injury to personnel or damage to the Environment.
53
What is the primary reference that should be used for HAZMAT spill prevention and response?
Local HAZMAT response plan.
54
What information must be listed on a basic, non commercial, label for a HAZMAT container?
Product name, warning or symbol, and handling procedures.
55
What IMT should be used to document all safety related information about a specific worker?
AF IMT 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.
56
What is used to document items that have been drained and purged?
AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag, or other locally produced documentation.
57
What block of supply training covers general supply indoctrination subject?
Block I.
58
What block of supply training must an individual complete to perform duties as a primary or alternate equipment custodian?
Block III
59
What form must be used when items on an equipment account are loaned outside the custodian's span of control?
AF form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
60
What two forms could be used to process a voluntary payment in lieu of a Report of Survey?
DD Form 1131 (Cash Collection Voucher), or DD Form 362 (Statement of Charge/Cash Collection Voucher).
61
Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets are coded with what ERRC codes?
XD or XF
62
Why was the Precious Metals Recovery Program established?
To promote the economic recovery of precious metals form excess and surplus materials.
63
What agency is the collection point for expendables (XB3) items coded under the PMRP?
Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
64
What is the primary purpose of Precious Metals Indicator Codes (PMICs)?
To identify items that were obtained through supply, that contain precious metals.
65
Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters?
XD or XF
66
What is the first character of the urgency justification code (UJC)?
Urgent of need (UND) designator.
67
Which supply management document can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where it's coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all your priority back-ordered parts?
Priority Monitor Report (D18).
68
Which supply management document helps to ensure an orderly and continuous flow of reparable items through the various maintenance activities and to ensure the DFIM delinquency rate is held to a minimum?
Repair Cycle Asset management List (D23).
69
Which supply management documents provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement?
Due-out Validation List (M30).
70
What are some of the various types of security containers the government uses to store classified assets?
File Cabinets, vaults, and safes to store and secure AF classified assets.
71
What form is used to show who has responsibility for handling classified material while it is in a sealed container for transit?
AF Form 12 (Accountable Container Receipt).
72
Who is responsible for ensuring a secure area is provided for transient aircraft on an installation?
Installation Commander.
73
What type of security Forces support is normally provided for a fighter aircraft with a security priority "C" designator?
Security Response team and a motorized patrol.
74
What should an installation or activity commander do if top secret equipment is installed on aircraft without priority "A" designator?
Park the aircraft in a restricted area designed for priority "A" assets keep the Aircraft under continuous surveillance, or use an intrusion detection system which assures positive entry control.
75
For supply assets required functional checking, units are required to identify which assets require this special handling, In addition to the repair section's organization and section code, what minimum details should be listed?
As a minimum, this list must identify the parts by national stock number (NSN), repair shop delivery destination code, and frequency of functional check.
76
Once a unit's listing of supply assets requiring functional checking, calibration, and flight programming has been approved, how often must the list be updated and validated?
Every 6 months.
77
If an asset is removed from service for bench checking and it is found that it can't be repaired locally, how should he item be processed?
Not Repairable This Station (NRTS).
78
What do expedite supply requests represent?
An urgent need for an asset from supply in order to prevent a work stoppage or other mission degradation situation.
79
Expedite customer issue requests have a UND code of "A" or "B". What supply priority response is normally assigned to these requests?
01 thru 04.
80
Within how many minutes should supply deliver a part that has issued with a priority of "1"?
30 Min.
81
What is the highest priority of expedite request that is used to order parts required for the repair of mission essential equipment?
MICAP request.
82
Who should you contact if you need to request modification of a backorder, including changing the UJC or required delivery date (RDD)?
Customer Service at LRS or your local Supply Support Section.
83
When a supply point is being established, who is responsible for providing the necessary space and facilities to store the assets?
Requesting Organization.
84
When a supply point reconciliation is complete, who does the supply point monitor provide the results to?
LRS Supply Point Manager.
85
what document should be submitted to initially stock and replenish supply point assets?
AF IMT 2005 (Issue Turn-In request).
86
Why are TNB storage location established?
To store issued parts awaiting installation and parts removed to facilitate other maintenance.
87
How are TNB's arranged?
By tail number, serial number, or identification number.
88
What should be done with parts that are removed from TNB but not immediately installed?
Must be returned on the same duty day the item was removed.
89
What are the two options you have available when you receive a defective part from supply?
Deficiency Report (DR) and the Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR).
90
In supply terminology, what does Credit mean when dealing with deficient assets ordered from supply?
An exchange or obligated cost credit provided to the customer upon reporting of deficient assets.
91
What is a support point as it relates to the DR process?
Any Activity that assists the Action Point.
92
Essentially, what is the Originator in the DR process responsible for?
Discovering the deficiency, identifying its impact, and initiating a report.
93
What does the Originating Point use to submit and track DR's?
Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JRDS).
94
Which level in the DR processing chain is the designated focal point for receipt and processing of DR's?
Screening Point.
95
When should an SDR be submitted instead of a DR?
when the sole purpose is to obtain a replacement item or credit.
96
If it has been more than 146 days since you submitted an SDR and you still have no indication of it being resolved, whom should you contact?
Your MAJCOM.
97
what is the goal of the current AF TO modernization effort?
To provide use friendly, technically accurate, and up-to-date digital technical data at the point of use.
98
What are the three levels of TO distribution activities that provide basic TO system support to base-level AF organizations?
Group: Lead TODO, Squadron TODO, and Section TODA.
99
what section are MXG TODO's normally assigned to?
QA.
100
What form should be used to establish a TODO account?
AFTO IMT 43.
101
For what purpose are checklists developed?
To provide abbreviated step-by-step procedures for operation and maintenance of systems and equipment in the sequence deemed most practical.
102
What MXG agency is responsible for performing an initial evaluation of a TCTO to determine its applicability?
QA.
103
Who is responsible for attending TCTO planning meetings and should thoroughly review the TCTO before the meeting so clarification requests can be made?
The flight or section performing the TCTO.
104
What form should be used to submit a TO change?
AFTO IMT 22.
105
what is a preliminary TO?
An unpublished TO that is used to support review of a new TO during the development process.
106
What are the two main types of TO changes?
Corrections and Improvements.
107
When should a follow-up be made after submitting an AFTO IMT 22 for an Emergency TO change request?
48 hours after submission.
108
What AF IMT should be submitted to have a TO correction or improvement be considered under the IDEA program?
AFTO IMT 1000.
109
Why should on-scene commanders use extreme caution when waiving compliance with TO guidance during an emergency situation?
Because they could jeopardizing the safety of personnel and equipment.
110
Why may temporarily waive specific compliance until operational capability permits or safety of personnel is assured for force engaged in actual combat operations or supporting EWO alert tasking, and for systems or components engaged in contingency operations?
AOR Commander.
111
How long does TO waiver remain in effect?
Until the OPR cancels it in writing, the publication is completely rewritten, or the waiver expires (the expiration date must be specified in the documentation granting the waiver).
112
A CANN action becomes necessary when a condition exists that prevents successful mission accomplishment. However, what should be verified before executing the CANN action?
That the asset cannot be obtained through supply in an acceptable amount of time.
113
When a CA authorize CANN actions before documentation is initiated?
In high priority circumstances, when a required part cannot be delivered in an acceptable amount of time. (i.e Redball maintenance).
114
What should be checked prior to accomplishing a CANN made for a time change item?
The CA must ensure that enough time is left on the part being CANNED to justify the CANN action.
115
Which CANN program requires increased coordination and cooperation between flight line aircraft inspection section, and supporting organizations?
Concurrent CANN/Inspection.
116
Which CANN program has the advantage of having fewer CANN aircraft per year, an increase in MC rate, and an increase in aircraft availability.
Consolidated CANN Program.
117
What type of wheels must be installed on all rolling equipment (including maxi-type toolboxes) used in an open fuel tank repair area?
Antistatic, NON-metal wheels.
118
In addition to having enough signs stating "Caution, (or Danger) High Radiation Area" that can be seen from all accessible areas, what else is required to identify an area where a radiographic inspection is taking place?
A red rotating/Flashing strobe-type light and rope barrier.
119
To ensure the job is performed safely, what is one of the first things that should be done before an aircraft is jacked?
Read/Follow all applicable cautions, warnings, notes in applicable TO.
120
Red Ball maintenance normally occurs as an aircraft is attempting to leave for a mission but can also occur during what time frame?
Up to 2 hours prior to launch all the way thru to the time the aircrew releases the aircraft to maintenance following the mission.
121
During a red ball maintenance operation, what must be re-accomplished if the aircraft status changes?
An exceptional release or conditional release.
122
To alleviate safety hazards, what should be used during Red Ball maintenance while aircraft engines are running?
A safety observer.
123
How can impoundment be defined?
The isolation or control of access to an aircraft or equipment item and applicable historical records so an intensified investigation can be accomplished.
124
What rank must an individual have before serving as an Impoundment Official?
MSgt or above ( or civilian equivalent).
125
What agency acts as the OPR for MXG impoundment procedures?
QA.
126
Who is responsible for selecting a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determining the cause of a problem that resulted in an aircraft or equipment impoundment?
The Impoundment official.
127
What is a main objective of the tool and equipment management program?
To minimize or eliminate FOD to aircraft, engines, missiles, and equipment.
128
Which TO provides guidance for the periodic inspection of hand tools?
TO 32-1-101.
129
What does an MIL provide a list of?
All content in a particular CTK.
130
What is the AF standard system for issuing tools and equipment used to perform maintenance?
Tool Accountability System (TAS).
131
Who is required to coordinate on all locally manufactured weapons related tools and equipment?
Wing Weapons Manager.
132
The EID used to mark tools has nine digits. What are the first four characters collectively called?
World Wide Identification (WWID) code.
133
What is the definition of dispatchable equipment?
Items that can be checked out from a support section, tool room, or work center to perform on/off equipment maintenance within or outside the work center.
134
What should be done if a lost tool or item is deemed an inaccessible item that poses no FOD threat and is left in place?
All information concerning the tool will be maintained in the Aircraft historical file until item/tool is recovered.
135
Who is required to comply with FOD program prevention directives?
All personnel (military, civilian, contractors) working in. on, around, or traveling through taxiways, runways, flight lines and maintenance areas.
136
Who is assigned as the Wing FOD prevention program manager?
WG/CC.
137
Who is responsible for chairing the FOD prevention committee meeting in the absence of the WG/CV?
MXG/CC.
138
How often are FOD prevention committee meeting held if a unit's FD rate is not meeting the Lead Command-established standard?
Monthly.
139
As it pertains to the DOP program, what is the definition of a dropped object?
Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item lost from an aircraft during aircrew operations, unless intentionally jettisoned.
140
What units are required to develop an effective Dropped Object Prevention Program?
All wing, group, squadrons and any other unit which operate aircraft.
141
Who is required to investigate dropped object involving transient aircraft?
Local Wing DOP program monitor.
142
What is the definition of a maintenance recovery as it pertains to MRT's?
The repair and successful launch of an aircraft that has been unexpectedly grounded at a location other than the aircrafts home station.
143
What is considered normal duty time for an MRT during maintenance recovery operations?
12 hours of work and 12 hours of rest.
144
What AFI provides valuable guidance on executing a successful maintenance recovery operation?
AFI 21-101.
145
What does the MSEP provide an objective sampling of?
The quality of equipment, the proficiency of maintenance personnel, and the compliance of lead command and unit MSEP focus area, programs, and process.
146
Who serves as the primary technical advisory agency in the maintenance organization, assisting maintenance supervision at all levels to resolve quality problems?
QA.
147
Who is responsible for developing and monitoring the MSEP program using a Lead Command-approved QA database that provides supervisors access to MSEP data?
QA OIC/SUPT.
148
How much time, at minimum, must personnel have in their unit before being selected as a QA inspector?
6 Months.
149
An MSET team is required to have only one permanent member. Where does the remainder of the team come from?
Other MAJCOM agencies and field units.
150
If an MSET issues an overall rating, what are the ratings that a unit may receive?
```
Outstanding
Excellent
Satisfactory
Marginal
Unsatisfactory
```
151
how are individual evaluations normally rated by am MSET?
Pass/Fail.
152
How much is a unit MSET rating decreased for each TDV, DSV, or UCR received?
0.5 percentage points.
153
When units develop their MSEP and conduct local inspections, what is used to ensure their, Programs, maintenance technician proficiency, equipment condition, and other focus areas are in compliance.
AF, MAJCOM, local directives.
154
QA rates personnel evaluations based on what type of standard?
Acceptable quality level.
155
A UCR indicates an unsafe or unsatisfactory condition, other than a DSV, and is chargeable to whom?
Work Center Supervisor.
156
What is the goal of the RIP program?
to identify and correct deficiencies before they affect combat capabilities.
157
How does the PIM emphasize and promote product improvement to ensure maintenance personnel are familiar with the PIP?
By circulating flyers/newsletters, visiting Commander's calls, presenting the program of maintenance orientation briefings, and making routine visits to maintenance areas.
158
Who does the PIM coordinate with to ensure proper exhibit control and handling?
With the ALC and LRS.
159
What is the major role that PIMs performs when processing AFTO IMT 22's?
Proper evaluation is performed and the forms are properly filled out IAW TO 00-5-1.
160
If SMR code changes are approved, who does the PIM coordinate repair evaluation meetings with?
Affected agencies.
161
When it comes to R&M deficiencies, what causes does the PIM determine?
Unit factors or local conditions versus those beyond the units control.
162
What does aircraft con figuration management provide unit managers the capability to do?
Determine the actual versus approved configurations of an aircraft.
163
What section within the MXG has overall responsibility for managing the ACM database for the wing?
MOF and PS&D.
164
What is a formal modification proposal?
A recommendation to change the operation, use, or appearance of AF aircraft and equipment.
165
Whether temporary, permanent, or safety, what is the lowest approval level needed to make a modification to an aircraft or piece of equipment?
MAJCOM.
166
How often must temporary modifications be re-approved with HQ USAF/A4M?
Annually.
167
In addition to the system program manager maintaining system engineering integrity, what agency is responsible for fleet-wide interoperability and commonality of the system?
Lead Command.
