Self Exam Mom Flashcards
What type of oven is low-temperature roasting is least likely to occur in:
convection ovens.
Wire brush a grill:
from the front towards the back.
Beef stew is done when the:
collagen is dissolved and the meat is tender.
Which statement is false?
a) Elastin breaks down during braising.
b) Overloading a brazier with stewing meat hinders browning.
c) You may cook vegetables in a beef stew separately.
d) You do not generally braise Irish lamb stew.
Elastin breaks down during braising.
You should cook shish kebabs by which method
grilling.
When you roast meats to rare doneness, beef differs from pork and veal in that:
generally, you do not serve veal and pork rare.
To allow for different cooking times and avoid steaming the meat on kebabs, you:
blanch firm vegetables for kebabs before skewering.
Stewing meat differs from braising meat
you cut stewing meat into smaller pieces.
You use less-tender cuts of meat for ground beef, but you can cook it by a dry heat
method because:
you cut elastin away and grinding breaks up the collagen.
The recommended temperature range for low-temperature Meat roasting is:
120°C to 140°C.
or
248 °F to 284° F
The best way to assess the doneness of a medium-rare beef roast is to:
measure the internal temperature with a meat thermometer.
When cooking a sirloin steak by dry heat, doneness refers to the:
desired degree of protein coagulation.
When browning meat, which is a deterrent to the browning process?
moisture
The best way to determine the doneness of a sirloin steak is to:
press to determine the degree of firmness.
You should season meat after grilling or broiling because:
seasoning draws moisture to the meat surface and hinders the browning process.
Which factor has the most significant influence on the required cooking time for a
pork leg roast?
thickness
Why do you loosely cover breaded products while holding them in a warming
cabinet?
Tightly wrapping or stacking breaded products causes the breading to become soggy
from steaming. This reduces the quality characteristics of the product.
Simmering or boiling pork back ribs as the first step in cooking:
increases flavour loss.
Which statement is false?
a) Stir-frying is basically a form of sautéing.
b) You add vegetables to a stir-fry all at once.
c) Stir-frying uses tender cuts of meat.
d) You do not usually cook stir-fry vegetables more than al dente.
You add vegetables to a stir-fry all at once.
Which of the following beef cuts does not require a moist heat method?
- short ribs
- rib steak
- stewing meat
- brisket
rib steak
To what does refreshing sweetbreads refer?
immersing poached thymus glands in an ice water bath
You usually prepare beef tongue by:
braising or simmering.
Why do different kinds of tripe come from the same animal?
beef cattle have four stomach chambers, three of which provide the different kinds of tripe.
The texture of properly cooked tripe is:
al dente.
You commonly prepare beef heart by which cooking method
braising
Remove a prime rib roast that you cook medium according to customer preference from a 170°C oven when the internal temperature is:
136 ° F
or
58°C
Identify the groups of customers whom the CFIA recommends should eat meat well done.
the very young, elderly or immuno-suppressed
Does eating medium pork presents health risks.
No , Trichinosis is no longer a concern because of
improvements in pork production and meat inspection.
What problem arises when you hold rare meat in a hot holding cabinet for any length of time and what temperature is necessary for the holding cabinet?
cooks meat at rare to a medium doneness. 60 C or 140 F is required
The class of chicken that commercial kitchens use most often is a:
fryer/broiler.
Which part of the chicken should you insert the thermometer
Thigh it takes the longest to cook
You should season deep-fried, breaded vegetables after breading and prior to frying. True or False
false
When you are cooking vegetables:
a) steaming shortens cooking time.
b) simmering shortens cooking time.
c) steaming reduces flavour loss.
d) both a and c.
d) both a and c
Which of the following fish is fatty?
a) halibut
b) cod
c) sole
d) salmon
d) salmon
A filleted round fish yields:
a) one fillet.
b) two fillets.
c) three fillets.
d) four fillets.
b) two fillets.
Cook Sole Paupiette by:
a) grilling.
b) baking.
c) poaching.
d) sautéing.
c) poaching
The term for enclosing fish in parchment and steaming it in its own moisture is:
a) paupiette.
b) en papillote.
c) Florentine.
d) Marinière.
b) en papillote
Which of the following best describes a difference between submersion poaching and
shallow poaching?
a) Shallow poaching involves a completely submerged product.
b) Shallow poaching uses a court bouillon.
c) Shallow poaching is ideal for lean fish.
d) Shallow poaching might use a cartouche.
d) Shallow poaching might use a cartouche.
Remove the beak from:
a) oysters.
b) mussels.
c) clams.
d) squid.
d) squid.
Which of the following is false?
a) Paupiettes are rolled fish fillets.
b) Hollandaise is an appropriate sauce for poached fish that you serve hot.
c) The term Florentine refers to spinach.
d) Grilling is the best choice for sole fillets.
d) Grilling is the best choice for sole fillets.
Which statement is false?
a) By standardizing a prep list the cook simply reviews and follows it.
b) Prepare a prep list at the end of a shift.
c) A timeline of activities is a modified prep list.
d) A prep list is a list of products that cooks need to prepare or tasks that they
must do.
b) Prepare a prep list at the end of a shift.
What is active listening?
Active listening is a communication technique that requires listeners to understand,
interpret and evaluate what they hear.
What is a par stock?
It is a predetermined amount of product that you need to have in inventory at all
times. Par stocks are the minimum amount of product an establishment wants to have
on hand until it places the next food/product order.
How are beginning and ending inventories related?
The ending inventory for one period is the beginning inventory for the next period.
For example, the ending inventory on April 30 is the beginning inventory on May 1.
Most commercially sold beef and poultry is not graded. True or False
False
Canada Grade A chicken is a better choice than Canada Utility chicken when you:
a) require boneless, skinless chicken stir fry meat.
b) want to use chicken from young animals only.
c) need to cook chicken for cold chicken salad sandwiches.
d) roast whole chickens and want a more uniform product.
d) roast whole chickens and want a more uniform product.
The grade for fresh vegetables and fruits that are uniform in size and shape, clean, wholesome and possess a healthy-looking exterior is most likely: a) Canada A. b) Canada 1. c) Canada B. d) Canada 2. e) a or b f) b or c g) c or d
e) a or b
Which statement is true?
a) Cello pack product should have an airtight seal.
b) Vacuum-packed product has a pillowy appearance.
c) A case of 100 oz tomatoes usually contains eight cans.
d) 72/88 count apples are larger than 100/113 count apples.
d) 72/88 count apples are larger than 100/113 count apples.
The seasonality of product commercial kitchens use is least affected by:
a) global warming extending the length of growing seasons.
b) advances in the preservation of foods.
c) importing food products from other parts of the world.
d) producing vegetables in greenhouses.
a) global warming extending the length of growing seasons.
What is the purpose of listing ingredients on food labels? In what order must they be
arranged?
The list of ingredients helps to protect consumers from allergens and helps
substantiate product claims on a food label. Manufacturers label the ingredients in a
product in descending order of quantity or as a percentage of the pre-packaged food
product. This means that they list the most predominant ingredient first, then the
second predominant ingredient, and so on.
Why is ice-packed chicken inconvenient to receive and store?
Ice-packed chicken is inconvenient to receive because you need to weigh the product
without the ice to verify that the correct amount (net weight) appears on the invoice.
It is inconvenient to store because the melting ice may leak and cause a health and
safety hazard when you move it or hold it in cold storage.
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Animal products are a source of cholesterol.
b) Fruits and vegetables naturally contain trans fatty acids.
c) Proteins are present in foods from animal sources.
d) Amino acids make up proteins.
b) Fruits and vegetables naturally contain trans fatty acids.
Complete proteins:
a) contain all the essential amino acids that the body cannot manufacture itself.
b) supply the most energy to the body.
c) contain all the vitamins necessary for proper body function.
d) contain both saturated and unsaturated amino acids.
a) contain all the essential amino acids that the body cannot manufacture itself.
Although it is not a nutrient, _____________ is necessary for healthy body function.
a) fat
b) fibre
c) glucose
d) protein
b) fibre
Which of the following is true?
a) 1gram of calcium = 12 calories
b) 1 gram of fat = 9 calories
c) 1 gram of protein = 6 calories
d) 1 gram of carbohydrates = 3 calories
b) 1 gram of fat = 9 calories
Which of the following types of fat is solid at room temperature, predominant in
animal products and often associated with heart disease and other health problems?
a) monounsaturated
b) unsaturated
c) polyunsaturated
d) saturated
d) saturated
Which of the following contain complete proteins?
a) whole grains
b) dried beans
c) frozen meats
d) canned peas
c) frozen meats
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Vitamin C is a water soluble vitamin.
b) The body makes vitamin D when sunlight touches the skin.
c) Trace minerals include sodium, calcium and zinc.
d) Vitamin A deficiency may cause night blindness.
c) Trace minerals include sodium, calcium and zinc.
Starches and sugars both belong to the group of compounds called carbohydrates.
a) true
b) false
a) true
What does essential mean, in the context of fatty acids and amino acids?
Essential amino acids and fatty acids are products that the body needs, but that it
cannot produce. If you do not get these acids through diet, the bodily functions that
they support will deteriorate.
A pescatarian eats __________ and plant products.
a) fish
b) meat
c) poultry
d) eggs
a) fish
Which of the following does the Canada Food Guide not identify as a food group?
a) grain products
b) milk and alternatives
c) vegetables and fruit
d) meat and extras
d) meat and extras
Which of the following would you not consider parve?
a) fruit and fruit products
b) vegetable and vegetable products
c) fin fish and fin fish products
d) lamb and lamb products
d) lamb and lamb products
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Hindus commonly practice vegetarianism.
b) Kashrut does not allow the consumption of pork.
c) Natural foods may include genetically modified crops.
d) Producers should not add vitamins, minerals, or flavourings to natural foods
in Canada.
c) Natural foods may include genetically modified crops
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Certified organic farms are free of all synthetic chemicals.
b) Organic foods are much healthier and loaded with extra nutrients.
c) Organic farms often have more diverse soil microbe communities.
d) Organic food products usually cost less than regular products.
c) Organic farms often have more diverse soil microbe communities.
Chickens that farmers allow to roam and forage freely and do not fence in are:
a) organic chickens.
b) free-run chickens.
c) grass fed chickens.
d) free-range chickens.
d) free-range chickens
Which of the following would a person with celiac sprue avoid?
a) cheese omelette with fried potatoes
b) poached salmon with hollandaise sauce
c) sautéed chicken and vegetables on rice
d) tuna salad sandwich on whole wheat bread
d) tuna salad sandwich on whole wheat bread
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Food labels must list the most abundant ingredient in a processed product
first.
b) Food labels do not necessarily list additives, vitamins and minerals in their
order of abundance.
c) A food label includes the product name, net quantity and manufacturer’s
information.
d) Organic product must contain 100% organic ingredients in order to be
certified organic.
d) Organic product must contain 100% organic ingredients in order to be
certified organic.
Which of the following would likely be the most suitable for a diabetic diet?
a) waffles with whipped cream and strawberries
b) pancakes and real maple syrup
c) poached eggs on whole wheat toast
d) coffee and an apple fritter
c) poached eggs on whole wheat toast
Why might farm-raised salmon have a better flesh colour than their wild counterparts?
Feeds meet the nutritional requirements of the fish and some feed formulations
augment flesh colour. Producers of farm-raised Atlantic salmon may use feeds that
help ensure the development of a bright orange flesh colour.
The class of chicken that commercial kitchens use most often is a:
a) fryer/broiler.
b) roaster.
c) capon.
d) fowl.
a) fryer/broiler.
When you grill bone-in chicken pieces, the grill temperature is:
a) cooler than when you grill a medium rare steak.
b) hotter than when you grill a rare steak.
c) the same as when you cook a blue rare steak.
d) not a major consideration.
a) cooler than when you grill a medium rare steak.
You can use boneless turkey breasts in adaptations of recipes that call for:
a) lamb.
b) beef.
c) veal.
d) duck.
c) veal
Which poultry cut can you cook by sautéing?
a) chicken cut into halves
b) chicken cut into quarters
c) whole turkey legs
d) boneless chicken breasts
d) boneless chicken breasts
Which statement is false?
a) In foodservice operations, you usually cook stuffing for turkey separately.
b) You hold cooked stuffing for service at a temperature above 60°C.
c) A stuffed turkey requires additional cooking time.
d) You should reheat cooked stuffing to an internal temperature of 60°C.
d) You should reheat cooked stuffing to an internal temperature of 60°C
Which method most likely applies to Cornish chickens?
a) Cut the product into an eight-piece cut and prepare for cacciatore.
b) Debone the product and cut into a dice for Chicken à la King.
c) Debone, stuff, bake and serve a half chicken.
d) Debone the breast for cordon bleu and the legs for stuffing.
c) Debone, stuff, bake and serve a half chicken.
Which bone do you leave attached to a chicken suprême?
a) drumette
b) femur
c) wishbone
d) keel bone
a) drumette
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Bake cordon bleu if frying does not cook it sufficiently.
b) You often use bread stuffing in boneless turkey leg roasts.
c) Use the oyster meat from Cornish chickens to prepare paillards.
d) Braised chicken dishes generally do not use fowl.
c) Use the oyster meat from Cornish chickens to prepare paillards.
Cooked flesh that readily falls off the bone indicates a properly cooked turkey.
a) true
b) false
b) false It is an indication of over-cooked turkey.
When you compare fish to meat in terms of cooking methods, the major difference is the: a) water content. b) fat content. c) amount of protein. d) amount of connective tissue.
d) amount of connective tissue
Which of the following is true?
a) Determining doneness by textural firming is a reliable method for most
seafood cookery.
b) You can hold cooked fish hot in warming cabinets for extended periods of
time without any loss of quality.
c) You often serve English-style fish and chips with malt vinegar on the side.
d) Salmon is an excellent fish for battering and deep-frying.
c) You often serve English-style fish and chips with malt vinegar on the side.
Cioppino is:
a) a fish stew.
b) crusty bread.
c) a style of baked oyster.
d) deep-fried clams.
a) a fish stew.
Which ingredient has anti-bacterial properties?
a) nori
b) sushi-zu
c) mirin
d) wasabi
d) wasabi
The most accurate indicator of doneness of fish is firmness.
a) true
b) false
b) false Temperature is the most accurate indicator of doneness.
Fond de gibier and fond de veau brun:
a) are stocks you make from roasted bones.
b) use the blanch and refresh method.
c) are the same product.
d) are stocks you simmer for three hours.
a) are stocks you make from roasted bones.
Cook fish fumet for:
a) at least six hours.
b) three to five hours.
c) two to three hours.
d) less than one hour.
d) less than one hour.
Which of the following has the shortest simmering time?
a) white chicken stock
b) brown veal stock
c) white beef stock
d) white pork stock
e) brown lamb stock
a) white chicken stock
You may make fond blanc from:
a) pork bones.
b) veal bones.
c) chicken bones.
d) beef bones.
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
The French term for meat glaze is:
a) glace de poisson.
b) glace de boeuf.
c) glace de potrine.
d) glace de viande.
e) glace de volaille.
d) glace de viande
If you cut large bones into smaller pieces when you prepare stock, it will:
a) reduce cooking time.
b) enhance colour.
c) improve flavour extraction.
d) reduce the need for seasoning.
c) improve flavour extraction.
Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Veal bones are more vascular than beef bones.
b) Veal bones contain more collagen than beef bones.
c) Refrigerated, high-quality veal stock should be quite liquid.
d) Simmer veal stocks for about six hours.
c) Refrigerated, high-quality veal stock should be quite liquid.
When you prepare fish stock, cut the mirepoix:
a) finely.
b) coarsely.
c) julienne.
d) baton.
a) finely.
Why does the mise en place for brown beef stock include vegetable oil? NOTES
a) You cut beef bones for white stock in larger pieces.
b) You blanch and refresh beef bones for brown stock.
c) You roast beef bones for brown stock.
d) You simmer beef bones for white stock.
c) You roast beef bones for brown stock.
White pork stock is most appropriate for:
a) cream of cauliflower soup.
b) Irish stew.
c) beef vegetable soup.
d) split pea soup.
d) split pea soup
The texture of refrigerated glace de viande is:
a) liquid.
b) semi-liquid.
c) firm and rubbery.
d) hard and solid.
c) firm and rubbery.
The cooked vegetables left over from a brown vegetable stock are an excellent base
for making a remouillage.
a) true
b) false
b) false No flavours or nutrients remain in the vegetables.
Why do you simmer a court bouillon for 20 to 30 minutes before you add raw
seafood?
You cook the vegetables and aromatics first to allow their flavours to infuse into the
cooking liquid.
Why would you produce brown vegetable stock when bones are readily available?
Vegetarianism is a growing trend in today’s society and some customers may have
religious beliefs that prohibit them from eating pork.
How do white chicken stock preparation procedures differ from white beef stock preparation procedures? a, b, and c need 3 answers
a) Chicken bones are more perishable than beef bones. You must use frozen
chicken bones as soon as you defrost them.
b) You often rinse chicken bones in cold water before use in order to remove some
of the blood and impurities that tend to cloud the stock (unless you are making
brown stock).
c) Chicken bones require less simmering time (usually three to four hours) than beef
bones. Stewing hens and turkey carcasses should simmer for up to four hours.
A consommé to which you add small cubed vegetables is consommé ____________.
brunoise
The British adapted an Indian soup called ___________________.
mulligatawny
How do consommé Celestine and consommé royale differ?
You garnish consommé Celestine with a julienne of crepe, while you garnish
consommé royale with a cooked egg custard that you cut into neat, uniform shapes.
You generally name a consommé according to its:
a) country of origin.
b) puréed ingredients.
c) kind and type of garnish.
d) method of clarification.
c) kind and type of garnish.
You usually simmer fresh vegetables in Scotch broth for a short time because:
a) you should not overcook the vegetables.
b) you use a clearmeat for clarification.
c) the stock becomes cloudy if they simmer too long.
d) the onions are already caramelized.
a) you should not overcook the vegetables
An appropriate garnish for a jellied consommé is:
a) a lemon wedge.
b) crumbled bacon.
c) diced raw turnip.
d) puréed peas.
a) a lemon wedge.
When you prepare a consommé:
a) stir it constantly.
b) do not stir it at all.
c) stir it occasionally during the entire cooking process.
d) stir it occasionally until the raft starts to form.
d) stir it occasionally until the raft starts to form.
The name of a consommé to which you add finely cut strips of vegetables is consommé: a) legume. b) brunoise. c) Celestine. d) julienne.
d) julienne.
Which item is part of mulligatawny soup?
a) liver dumplings
b) Bombay duck
c) diced chicken
d) orange sections
c) diced chicken
A pappadam is an appropriate garnish for:
a) mulligatawny soup.
b) borscht.
c) French onion soup.
d) shrimp bisque.
a) mulligatawny soup.
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Béchamel-based sauces may break when you simmer them.
b) Béchamel-based sauces easily scorch when you simmer them.
c) Reduction is important when you make Mornay sauce.
d) You finish Mornay sauce by monter au beurre.
c) Reduction is important when you make Mornay sauce.
Another name for hunter sauce is:
a) béarnaise sauce.
b) bordelaise sauce.
c) chasseur sauce.
d) champignon sauce.
c) chasseur sauce
You make chasseur sauce with:
a) red wine and mushrooms.
b) mushrooms and tomato.
c) tomato and olives.
d) olives and white wine.
b) mushrooms and tomato.
Which of the following is a smooth, rich sauce that you garnish with bone marrow?
a) Béarnaise sauce
b) Choron sauce
c) Bordelaise sauce
d) chasseur sauce
c) Bordelaise sauce
Choron sauce should be:
a) pink.
b) yellow.
c) white.
d) brown.
a) pink
A gastrique contains:
a) caramelized sugar and vinegar.
b) vinegar and wine.
c) wine and fruit puree.
d) fruit puree and sugar.
a) caramelized sugar and vinegar.
You would be least likely to use a gastrique in:
a) Creole sauce.
b) duck a l’orange.
c) Provençale sauce.
d) sauce vin blanc.
d) sauce vin blanc
Which of the following is an herb native to southern Asia that resembles a small,
shiny lemon leaf and has a pungent fragrance?
a) curry leaf
b) lemon grass
c) tamarind
d) galangal
a) curry leaf
To make sauce choron, add ___________ to béarnaise sauce.
a) tomato concassée
b) glace de viande
c) tomato puree/paste
d) whipped cream
c) tomato puree/paste
Use glace de viande to flavour:
a) sauce foyot.
b) sauce choron.
c) beurre noisette.
d) beurre fondue.
a) sauce foyot.
What is another name for maître d’hôtel butter?
a) herb butter
b) garlic butter
c) parsley butter
d) Montpelier butter
c) parsley butter
What is the length of a château potato?
a) 1.75 cm
b) 5 cm
c) 3.5 cm
d) 4.75 cm
b) 5 cm
What does a fondante potato look like in comparison to a château?
a) lozenge rather than barrel shape
b) shorter than a château
c) half the size of a château
d) flat on the bottom
a) lozenge rather than barrel shape
What is the best choice of potato for duchesse potato?
a) Yukon gold
b) Bintje
c) russet
d) red
c) russet
How do you shape a classic duchesse potato?
a) hand shape it into a ball
b) with a piping bag fitted with a star tube
c) with a portion scoop
d) hand shape it into a cylinder
b) with a piping bag fitted with a star tube
Lyonnaise potatoes contain caramelized onions.
a) true
b) false
a) true
What are sliced potatoes with gruyère cheese?
a) Jackson potatoes
b) au gratin potatoes
c) pavé potatoes
d) gratin dauphinoise potatoes
d) gratin dauphinoise potatoes
You braise Boulangère potatoes.
a) true
b) false
a) true
Sweating onions and flavourings in fat is the initial step when you cook:
a) steamed rice.
b) rice pilaf.
c) scented rice.
d) wild rice.
b) rice pilaf
Use saffron threads to flavour risotto:
a) primavera.
b) funghi.
c) Milanese.
d) parmigiana.
c) Milanese
Basmati rice ___________ in volume when you cook it.
a) stays the same
b) doubles
c) triples
d) quadruples
c) triples
Which type of rice do you add to converted rice in order to help it clump for timbales? a) basmati b) wild c) jasmine d) Arborio
c) jasmine
Which type of rice does not cook into individual grains?
a) converted
b) Thai fragrant
c) wild
d) basmati
b) Thai fragrant
Which of the following is false?
a) Semolina is pale yellow.
b) Semolina derives from a variety of hard wheat.
c) Semolina has a very low protein content.
d) Semolina produces high-quality pasta.
c) Semolina has a very low protein content.
The best choice of noodle for minestrone soup is:
a) manicotti.
b) orzo.
c) fusilli.
d) penne.
b) orzo.
The pasta method of cooking requires:
a) equal amounts of pasta to water by weight.
b) one part pasta to two parts water by weight.
c) one part pasta to four parts water by weight.
d) one part pasta to eight parts water by weight.
d) one part pasta to eight parts water by weight
What adjustment do you need in order to make to a lasagne recipe if you substitute
oven-ready lasagne noodles for regular dried (cooked al dente) lasagne noodles?
a) Add about 50% more salt to the sauce.
b) Add more liquid to make a somewhat thinner sauce.
c) Use a shorter baking period.
d) Add more eggs to the filling.
b) Add more liquid to make a somewhat thinner sauce.
Which of the following combinations is most likely not part of pesto sauce?
a) olive oil and pine nuts
b) pine nuts and parmesan cheese
c) parmesan cheese and walnuts
d) walnuts and tomato
d) walnuts and tomato
Which of the following preparations do you garnish with vegetables?
a) fettuccini Alfredo
b) linguini primavera
c) spaghetti carbonara
d) ravioli with pesto
b) linguini primavera
Which dish do you make with fine rice noodles that you fry with garlic, onions, chile
peppers, napa cabbage and crisp onion flakes?
a) mie goreng
b) kake udon
c) Singapore-style noodles
d) spaghetti carbonara
a) mie goreng
Describe the following pastas and some of their uses.
a) rotini
b) farfalle
c) conchiglie
a) Small- to medium-size spirals that you use for cold salads, baked macaroni with
cheese and various kinds of hearty sauces.
b) Bowtie pasta that is popular in cold salads. Use with lighter sauces.
c) Pasta shells that you may serve large versions with seafood sauces and small
versions in soups.
To maintain the best quality of vegetables during meal service, use:
a) stagger cooking.
b) bulk cooking.
c) mass cooking.
d) small batch cooking.
e) both a and d.
e) both a and d.
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Peel vegetables thinly in order to prevent loss of moisture.
b) Pre-cook onion rings before battering and deep-frying.
c) Cook vegetables you will blanch to a lesser degree than vegetables that are
par-cooked.
d) Plant acids will improve the colour and appearance of green beans.
c) Cook vegetables you will blanch to a lesser degree than vegetables that are
par-cooked.
Which of the following liquids do you not use for cooking braised red cabbage?
a) milk
b) lemon juice
c) red wine
d) vinegar
a) milk
Which ingredient does not help to retain the red/purple colouration in braised red cabbage? a) apples b) bacon fat c) red wine d) lemon juice
b) bacon fat
A bouquetière of vegetables:
a) is traditionally served with chateaubriand.
b) is an aromatic for braised red cabbage.
c) must use more than six different vegetables.
d) should be uniform in colour.
a) is traditionally served with chateaubriand.
Tournéd rutabaga is the best choice for:
a) ratatouille.
b) bouquetière.
c) filling or stuffing.
d) deep-frying.
b) bouquetière.
Why do thin slices of deep fried yams brown quickly?
Yams are naturally high in sugar, which caramelizes and browns quickly.
A barquette is a crisp cheese disk.
a) true
b) false
b) false A barquette is a boat-shaped tart shell.
Bruschetta and crostini are the same.
a) true
b) false
a) true
Fish that you cure with salt and sugar describes:
a) ceviche.
b) mignonette.
c) gravalax.
d) sashimi.
c) gravalax.
The term sushi refers to raw fish.
a) true
b) false
b) false The term sushi refers to the vinegared rice.
Name two (2) types of unsmoked ham.
a)
b)
a) prosciutto
b) Serrano
You serve mignonette with:
a) amuse-bouches.
b) escabeche.
c) ceviche.
d) oysters.
d) oysters.
Tomatillos are a common ingredient in:
a) tapenade.
b) salsa.
c) steam buns.
d) frittata.
b) salsa.
The traditional herb you use to prepare gravalax is:
a) basil.
b) chives.
c) dill.
d) parsley.
c) dill.
You slice gravalax on a ____________ degree angle.
45
Traditional canapés have a _____________ or ______________ base.
bread or cracker
Name the four (4) traditional components of a canapé. a) b) c) d)
a) base
b) spread
c) body or filling
d) garnish.
The name for small buckwheat pancakes is _________________.
blini
Name the three (3) functions of a spread.
a)
b)
c)
a) to provide flavour
b) to act as a filling
c) to provide a moisture barrier
A suitable base for a shrimp salad canapé is a:
a) crostini.
b) soup spoon.
c) cucumber basket.
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above
You shape a slice of salami in a cone to make a __________________.
coronet
To enhance the appearance of canapés and inhibit drying, you may coat them with
________________________.
aspic
Sushi-zu is:
a) mirin.
b) sweetened rice vinegar.
c) nori -wrapped sushi.
d) sashimi you make with previously frozen fish.
b) sweetened rice vinegar
What is the first step in preparing the rice for sushi?
Wash the rice thoroughly under cold running water.
Dry seaweed sheets are:
a) neta.
b) maki.
c) nori.
d) mirin.
c) nori.
When you place nori on a bamboo mat, which side is up?
the dull side
A blanched shrimp may top which kind of sushi?
a) nigiri
b) maki
c) sushi-zu
d) wasabi
a) nigiri
Which sushi ingredient has anti-bacterial properties?
wasabi
A common garnish for sashimi is __________________.
daikon
The portion size for à la carte appetizers is:
a) 85-95 g.
b) 100-120 g.
c) 130-150 g.
d) 155-170 g.
b) 100-120 g.
Salpicon is:
a) a Greek dish of spinach, mint and feta wrapped in phyllo.
b) a Spanish appetizer that you serve with drinks.
c) a filling for tarts of fine dice or julienne bound with a sauce.
d) a dough-wrapped filling that you deep-fry.
c) a filling for tarts of fine dice or julienne bound with a sauce.
Shish kebab refers specifically to:
a) beef.
b) chicken.
c) pork.
d) lamb.
d) lamb.
You marinate meat for kebabs __________________ and _____________________.
flavour and tenderize
Other than bread and crackers, what can you use as bases for canapés?
a)
b)
c)
a) spoons
b) shot glasses
c) slices or containers of vegetables
Which of the following is not a suitable garnish for a canapé?
a) caviar with duck confit
b) fig jam with chevre tart
c) pickled onion with veal cheek
d) candied nut with brie
a) caviar with duck confit
You add finely grated cheese to ________________ to make gougères.
choux paste
A mixture of ginger, scallions, garlic, soy sauce, sake, rice vinegar and mirin best describes: a) teriyaki sauce. b) tzatziki sauce. c) hoisin sauce. d) sweet and sour sauce.
a) teriyaki sauce.
List three (3) benefits of setting up an action station.
a)
b)
c)
a) the guests receive fresh food
b) it entertains the guests
c) you can establish a theme
For a reception, hot appetizers should be approximately:
a) 40-50 g.
b) 50-75 g.
c) 60-80 g.
d) 75-90 g.
b) 50-75 g
The best ingredient to use for moisture retention in a brined product is:
a) granulated sugar.
b) honey.
c) brown sugar.
d) salt petre.
b) honey.
To inhibit bacterial growth, use:
a) sodium nitrite.
b) sodium nitrate.
c) phosphates.
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above.
You can accelerate the brining process by:
a) heating the brine.
b) increasing the sugar content.
c) injecting brine into the muscle.
d) increasing the salt content.
c) injecting brine into the muscle.
Pickling vinegars have an acetic acid concentration of:
a) 4% to 6%.
b) 2.6% to 4%.
c) 6.2% to 8%.
d) 5% to 6%.
a) 4% to 6%.
The pH value for a pickled product should be in the range of:
a) 6 to 7.1.
b) 2.6 to 4.
c) 7 to 8.
d) 3 to 5.
b) 2.6 to 4.
To enhance the crunch of a dill pickle:
a) use distilled vinegar.
b) use hard water.
c) add alum.
d) add fresh dill.
c) add alum.
To achieve low-temperature pasteurization of a pickle, you must process it:
a) in boiling water for 10 minutes or more.
b) in boiling water for 5 minutes.
c) at 60°C for 30 minutes.
d) at 68°C for 30 minutes.
a) in boiling water for 10 minutes or more.
The salt concentration of a brine for meat ranges from:
a) 2.6% to 5.2%.
b) 2% to 3%.
c) 3% to 5%.
d) 5.3% to 8%.
c) 3% to 5%.
Old-fashioned style hams are dry-cured.
a) true
b) false
b) false They are wet cured.
You always make gravalax with more salt than sugar.
a) true
b) false
b) false The sugar and salt quantities vary by recipe.
Marinades always have an acidic ingredient.
a) true
b) false
b) false They can be as basic as oil with herbs.
The unique characteristics of a cheese are created during ___________.
conditioning
Camembert is an example of a/an _____________ ripened cheese.
surface
The white bloomy rind on a brie grows from _________________.
penicillium camemberti.
Firm cheeses are all:
a) surface ripened.
b) interior ripened.
c) not ripened.
d) inoculated.
b) interior ripened.
Cheese has the best flavour when:
a) you warm it to room temperature.
b) you serve it straight from the fridge.
c) you bake it.
d) you cut it with a wire.
a) you warm it to room temperature.
List the Canadian Dairy Information Centre's six (6) categories of cheese. a) b) c) d) e) f)
a) fresh
b) soft
c) semi-soft
d) firm
e) hard
f) veined
A micromanager most likely struggles with which organizational skill?
a) meeting agendas
b) delegating
c) scheduling
d) communicating
b) delegating
Which of the following is not an operational organizational skill?
a) the ability to actively listen and communicate
b) a logical thought process on how to structure and complete activities
c) the ability to prioritize and implement time management plans
d) the knowledge and aptitude to make strategic decisions
d) the knowledge and aptitude to make strategic decisions
How do active listening and hearing differ?
a) Active listening involves your ears.
b) Hearing involves interpretation and engaging in thought.
c) Active listeners evaluate and contemplate what they hear.
d) Hearing includes gesturing and facial expressions.
c) Active listeners evaluate and contemplate what they hear.
Which of the following is an example of a relative standard?
a) pass/fail
b) yes/no
c) right/wrong
d) excellent/good
d) excellent/good
Management uses five (5) principle assets to accomplish goals in commercial
kitchens. Which is arguably the most important?
a) money
b) time
c) things
d) information
e) people
e) people
Which of the following statements is not a required provision of maternity leave? The
employee must:
a) have worked for 12 consecutive months with the employer to be eligible for
leave.
b) must take at least six weeks of her leave after the actual date of delivery
unless there is medical approval to resume work earlier.
c) apply to the employer in writing, at least four months prior to the day she
intends to commence leave.
d) be reinstated into her former position or provided with comparable work at no less than the same wages and benefits she received before the leave.
c) apply to the employer in writing, at least four months prior to the day she
intends to commence leave.
The objective of work simplification is to achieve maximum:
a) effort.
b) production.
c) production with minimal effort.
d) production with maximum effort.
c) production with minimal effort.
Identify characteristics that you can use in setting quality standards for food items produced in a commercial kitchen. a) b) c) d) e)
a) visual appeal
b) portion size
c) textures and consistencies
d) taste
e) temperature
Identify five (5) items that should be in an employee orientation information package. a) b) c) d) e)
Any five (5) of the following are correct.
a) a job description for the employee’s position along with evaluation
information
b) a short history of the company
c) the vision and mission statements of your company
d) any awards or noteworthy achievements of your company
e) company policies and procedures such as parking policy, scheduling
vacations, sick leave, overtime, smoking, safety and security procedures
f) universal performance standards for the organization such as arriving on time
and working until the end of the shift and being free of intoxicants during
work hours
g) a collective agreement or contract of employment if applicable
h) an employee handbook, if one is available
A static menu is one that offers the same dishes every day.
a) true
b) false
a) true
Table d’hôte literally means the guest’s table in English.
a) true
b) false
b) false Table d’hôte literally means the host’s table in English.
Menu terminology should include phrases and descriptions such as assorted, various,
special, secret and our own.
a) true
b) false
b) false These terms do not describe a menu item specifically or accurately.
List the four (4) main factors around which patron considerations revolve. a) b) c) d)
a) physiological needs
b) psychological needs
c) social needs
d) cultural dietary restrictions
Menus usually list foods in the order that the customer eats them. Give an example of
a menu that would not necessarily follow these guidelines.
static menus in quick service restaurants or institutions
How might you extend the production capacity of a kitchen that is limited by cooking
and preparation equipment?
a) Use convenience and value added product.
b) Increase the number of food deliveries per week.
c) Hire more service staff.
d) Increase the storage space.
a) Use convenience and value added product.
Which of the following menu development statements is false?
a) Repeating and rerunning food items with similar tastes and textures is a good way to create variety.
b) Your menu should include items with various textures and consistencies.
c) You usually want to provide hot and cold items on a menu.
d) Your menu should include a range of cuts and preparations.
a) Repeating and rerunning food items with similar tastes and textures is a good way to create variety.
Which of the following statements regarding the recording of an inventory is false?
a) You improve the efficiency of a physical inventory when you arrange
products in an orderly and consistent fashion.
b) It generally helps with inventory controls when you store similar products together.
c) If you record an inventory directly onto a computer spreadsheet, you save time later.
d) You must write physical inventories down on paper.
d) You must write physical inventories down on paper.
You are extending the value of the inventory from March 31. During the month of March, you purchased beef rib-eye on three occasions. Which invoice(s) do you use to determine the current market price?
a) March 10
b) March 10 and 15
c) March 24
d) March 15 and 24
e) March 10, 15 and 24
c) March 24
You are extending the value of your inventory from March 31. During the month of March, you purchased frozen shrimp on three occasions. Which invoice(s) do you use to determine the average market price?
a) March 10
b) March 10 and 15
c) March 24
d) March 15 and 24
e) March 10, 15 and 24
e) March 10, 15 and 24
Which of the following statements is true?
a) The beginning inventory is also the ending inventory for the same time
period.
b) The time period between inventories is always daily or weekly.
c) The ending inventory for a period becomes the opening inventory for the next period.
d) Opening inventory, ending inventory and purchases are the base for standard food cost.
c) The ending inventory for a period becomes the opening inventory for the next period.
Which formula do you use to calculate contribution margin?
a) $ Food Cost $ Average Inventory × 100
b) $ Selling Price − $ Variable Costs × 100
c) $ Selling Price − $ Food Cost
d) $ Food Cost $ Revenue × 100
c) $ Selling Price − $ Food Cost
Which of the following statements is true for a National Occupational Analysis (NOA)?
a) The NOA forms the basis for the Alberta Apprenticeship training program.
b) The NOA is developed by HRSDC staff from their perceptions of the trade.
c) The NOA is developed by staff from the host jurisdiction.
d) The NOA is the sole document used to develop a Red Seal exam.
d) The NOA is the sole document used to develop a Red Seal exam.
Which of the following statements accurately reflects the steps required to produce a Red Seal exam?
a) The host jurisdiction holds a workshop to develop the Red Seal exam plan, industry practitioners develop questions for the exam and then the NOA is developed from the exam plan.
b) The host jurisdiction holds a workshop to develop the Red Seal exam plan, the NOA is developed from the exam plan and then industry practitioners develop questions for the exam.
c) HRSDC convenes a workshop of industry practitioners to develop an NOA, the host jurisdiction collects and reviews all comments related to the draft NOA, and then HRSDC publishes the completed NOA.
d) HRSDC convenes a workshop of industry practitioners to develop an NOA, HRSDC collects and reviews all comments related to the draft NOA, and then HRSDC develops an exam plan.
d) HRSDC convenes a workshop of industry practitioners to develop an NOA, HRSDC collects and reviews all comments related to the draft NOA, and then HRSDC develops an exam plan
Which statement is true?
a) The NOA for a specific trade should be studied to prepare for a provincial
apprenticeship exam in that trade.
b) In an NOA, a Task is bigger in scope than a Block.
c) Industry practitioners are people that own businesses in a trade.
d) Industry practitioners are people that work hands on in a trade.
d) Industry practitioners are people that work hands on in a trade
What are the three types of questions used on Red Seal exams?
a) recall, application and critical thinking
b) recall, calculation and critical thinking
c) knowledge, calculation and critical thinking
d) knowledge, calculation and short answer
a) recall, application and critical thinking
Why is it important to obtain a Red Seal endorsement?
a) The Red Seal is the industry-accepted standard for excellence in a trade.
b) Employers will not hire Alberta journeymen without the endorsement.
c) It is required to become a certified journeyperson in Alberta.
d) A Red Seal endorsement is required to be able to work in another
jurisdiction.
a) The Red Seal is the industry-accepted standard for excellence in a trade.
