Self Assessment Questions for Exam IV (Erickson) Flashcards
Which drug class prolongs the life in patients with a history of coronary artery disease?
A. Nitrates
B. Statins
C. CCB
D. Beta Blockers
D. Beta Blockers
The MOST significant predictor of stent thrombosis is the discontinuation of:
A. Statins
B. Aspirin
C. P2Y12 inhibitors
C. P2Y12 Inhibitors
Which diagnostic data correlates with the presentation of unstable angina? (SELECT 2)
A. 12 lead ECG without ST-segment elevation
B. 12 lead ECG with ST-segment elevation
C. Negative Troponins
D. Positive Troponins
A. 12 lead ECG without ST-segment elevation
C. Negative Troponins
A benefit of aortic valve replacement in patients with aortic stenosis is:
A. Decrease CO
B. Decrease SV
C. Increase EF
D. Increase Ventricular Hypertrophy
C. Increase EF
A patient presents to pre-op with a history of active chest pain, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus type 2 for the removal of a left-hand cyst. The BEST plan the RRNA can anticipate is:
A. Perform regional block
B. The surgery being canceled
C. Administering nitroglycerin drip
D. Consult endocrinologist
B. The surgery being canceled
An anesthetic goal for mitral regurgitation is:
A. Reducing the stroke volume.
B. Increasing the heart rate.
C. Maintaining slightly higher blood pressure.
D. Increasing the regurgitant fraction.
B. Increasing the heart rate
The pulmonic valve is auscultated at the:
A. 2nd ICS, RSB.
B. 5th ICS, RSB.
C. 5th ICS, LSB.
D. 2nd ICS, LSB.
D. 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border
In mitral stenosis, decreased stroke volume is related to:
A. Decreased right atrial pressure.
B. Pulmonary hypotension.
C. Bradycardia.
D. Atrial fibrillation.
D. Atrial Fibrillation
The onset of acute heart failure will include: (SELECT 2)
A. Increased cardiac index.
B. Increased stroke volume.
C. Decreased cardiac output.
D. Decreased blood pressure.
C. Decreased cardiac output.
D. Decreased blood pressure.
Which drug class is reserved for patients with tachydysrhythmias with a history of hypertension?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Angiotensin receptor blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers
B. Beta-blockers
The MOST COMMON physiologic causes of secondary hypertension in children are: (SELECT 2)
A. Obstructive sleep apnea.
B. Coarctation of the aorta.
C. Thyroid dysfunction.
D. Renal parenchymal disease.
B. Coarctation of the aorta.
D. Renal parenchymal disease.
Heart failure is MOST OFTEN a result of: (Select 2)
A. Systemic hypertension.
B. Reactive airway disease.
C. Ischemic heart disease.
D. Decreased SNS output.
A. Systemic hypertension.
C. Ischemic heart disease.
Isolated diastolic hypertension consists of: (SELECT 2) *
A. Diastolic blood pressure > 80 mm Hg.
B. Systolic blood pressure > 130 mm Hg.
C. Diastolic blood pressure < 80 mm Hg.
D. Systolic blood pressure < 130 mm Hg.
A. Diastolic blood pressure > 80 mm Hg.
D. Systolic blood pressure < 130 mm Hg.
In systolic heart failure with low cardiac output, increased cardiac output depends on what physiologic change?
A. Decreased stroke volume
B. Increased systemic vascular resistance
C. Decreased cardiac index
D. Increased heart rate
D. Increased heart rate
In which classification of heart failure will a patient have a moderately severe structural cardiovascular disease with limited activity due to clinical symptoms of heart failure?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
C. Class C
In a pregnancy-induced hypertensive crisis, which medication is considered the first-line?
A. Labetalol
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Hydralazine
A. Labetalol
Select the stimuli that may induce an asthma attack. (SELECT 2).
A. BMI greater than 35
B. Aspirin
C. Grocery shopping
D. Cardiovascular exercise
B. Aspirin
D. Cardiovascular exercise
For a patient with a softball-sized anterior mediastinal mass, what is the MOST APPROPRIATE positioning for induction? (SELECT 2).
A. Supine with the head of the bed flat.
B. Avoiding the sniffing position.
C. Sitting upright.
D. Ramping the head of the bed.
C. Sitting upright.
D. Ramping the head of the bed.
Which statement is TRUE regarding obstructive sleep apnea?
A. Upper airway collapse occurs due to increased dilating forces.
B. Recurrent upper airway collapse that occurs during sleep.
C. It is sleep-induced lower airway obstruction.
D. It involves the collapse of the lower airways during sleep.
B. Recurrent upper airway collapse that occurs during sleep.
Benefits of lung volume reduction surgery include: (SELECT 2).
A. Improved nasopharyngeal airflow.
B. Improved alveolar gas exchange.
C. Increases in the degree of hyperinflation.
D. Increased elastic recoil.
B. Improved alveolar gas exchange.
D. Increased elastic recoil.
In severe asthma, what arterial blood gas result is expected?
A. PaO2 65 mm Hg on room air.
B. PaCO2 35 mm Hg on room air.
C. PaCO2 25 mm Hg on room air.
D. PaO2 45 mm Hg on room air.
D. PaO2 45 mm Hg on room air.
In ARDS, which treatment choice is considered controversial?
A. Beta 2 agonists.
B. Conservative IV fluid administration.
C. Neuromuscular blockers.
D. Corticosteroids.
D. Corticosteroids.
What is the BEST time frame for smoking cessation to achieve the maximum benefit?
A. 6 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 2 weeks
D. 8 weeks
D. 8 weeks
6 weeks is the minimum, but 8 weeks for the best result.
What type of substance contributes to the formation of a hydrothorax?
A. Lipids
B. Serous liquid
C. Blood
D. Pus
B. Serous liquid
What is the APPROPRIATE time frame for aspiration pneumonitis that can be seen on CXR?
A. Immediately after the event.
B. 6 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
Restrictive lung disease is characterized by: (Select 2).
A. A decrease in all lung volumes.
B. Increased lung compliance.
C. Preservation of expiratory flow rates.
D. Increased clearance of lung secretions.
A. A decrease in all lung volumes.
C. Preservation of expiratory flow rates.
