Self Assessment Questions for Exam 2 Flashcards
Part of properly assessing Mallampati includes:
A. The patient seated upright with head extended.
B. The patient opening their mouth and phonating.
C. No phonation.
D. the tongue in a neutral position.
C. No phonation.
What is the LEAST LIKELY cause of dental injury during anesthesia?
A. Biting down on an endotracheal tube.
B. Use of a laryngoscope blade.
C. Oropharyngeal airway placement.
D. Aggressive mask ventilation.
D. Aggressive mask ventilation.
Prognathic ability is a measurement of: (Select 2).
A. The extension of the upper incisors beyond the lower incisors.
B. The ability of the lower incisors to bite the upper lip.
C. The extension of the lower incisors beyond the upper incisors.
D. The ability of the upper incisors to bite the lower lip.
B. The ability of the lower incisors to bite the upper lip.
C. The extension of the lower incisors beyond the upper incisors.
What information regarding the patient’s anesthetic history would indicate potential airway concerns? (Select 2).
A. Report of a Mallampati II score.
B. Report of cut lips or broken teeth.
C. Report of excessive sore throat.
D. Report of oxygen saturation at 95% on room air.
B. Report of cut lips or broken teeth.
C. Report of excessive sore throat.
Which airway assessment finding is more predictive of difficult intubation than a high BMI?
A. Neck carcinoma
B. Cervical traction
C. Receding mandible
D. Neck size of 45 cm
D. Neck size of 45 cm
In patients with carcinoid tumors, how early should octreotide be administered to prevent crisis during surgery:
A. 8 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
A 34-year-old patient diagnosed with acute pancreatitis is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The patient has the following laboratory values:
WBC 18,000
Platelets 150,000
AST 376
BUN 22
What is the patient’s risk of mortality?
A. 40%
B. 20%
C. <5%
D. 100%
B. 20%
For patients with a history of esophageal diverticula, what are the anesthetic concerns? (Select 2).
A. Increased risk of aspiration.
B. Elevate the head of bed during induction.
C. Insert nasogastric tube post-induction.
D. Apply cricoid pressure during induction.
A. Increased risk of aspiration.
B. Elevate the head of bed during induction.
An adenocarcinoma esophageal tumor is located:
A. at the mid-esophagus.
B. at the pyloric sphincter.
C. at the distal esophagus.
D. at the proximal esophagus.
C. at the distal esophagus
Which medication will induce remission in patients with Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s disease?
A. Ciproflaxacin
B. Glucocorticoids
C. 5-Acetylsalicylic acid
D. Octreotide
C. 5-Acetylsalicylic acid
5-ASA is the mainstay therapy for mild to moderate inflammatory bowel disease. It is effective in inducing remission in both UC and Crohn’s. -Stoelting’s
A diagnosis of Grave’s disease is consistent with:
A. decreased T4.
B. weight loss.
C. Elevated TSH.
D. somnolence.
B. weight loss.
Preoperative findings of Duchenne muscular dystrophy include:
A. gastrointestinal hypermotility.
B. kyphoscoliosis.
C. decreased serum creatinine kinase.
D. sinus bradycardia.
B. kyphoscoliosis.
Signs and symptoms of scleroderma include: (Select 2).
A. decreased pulmonary compliance.
B. small bowel hypomotility.
C. diarrhea.
D. diffuse pitting edema.
A. decreased pulmonary compliance.
B. small bowel hypomotility.
Which anesthetic plan is ideal for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus?
A. Avoid the use of volatile anesthetics.
B. Prepare patient for possible post-operative ventilator.
C. Administer metoclopramide
D. Order pre-operative CBC and ECG.
D. Order pre-operative CBC and ECG.
All of the anesthetic considerations are indicated in a patient with hyperparathyroidism EXCEPT:
A. pre-operative ECG.
B. Avoid the use of midazolam pre-operatively.
C. intravenous fluid administration.
D. administration of 40 mg of rocuronim.
D. administration of 40 mg of rocuronim.
Hypercalcemia = muscle weakness
