Self assessment Qs Flashcards

0
Q
Whats the energy / fuel storage roles of:
CNS
Heart muscle
Skeletal muscle
Liver
Adipose tissue
A

CNS:
Energy from glucose (also ketone bodies under certain conditions).
No fuel storage: requires continuous supply of fuels and oxygen.

Heart Muscle:
Energy from glucose, lactate, fatty acids or ketone bodies.
No fuel storage: requires continuous supply of fuels and oxygen.

Skeletal Muscle:
Energy from glucose, fatty acids or ketone bodies.
Muscle protein can be used in emergency.
Can oxidise glucose to lactate under anaerobic conditions.
Stores glucose as glycogen and some triacylglycerol.

Liver:
Energy from fatty acids, amino acids or alcohol.
Can use galactose and fructose.
Makes glucose from lactate, glycerol and amino acids.
Makes ketone bodies, cholesterol and triacylglycerols.
Stores glucose as glycogen.

Adipose tissue:
Energy from glucose or fatty acids.
Stores fuel in the form of triacylglycerols.

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1
Q

How are fuel molecules oxidised during catabolism

A

electrons/protons transferred initially to carrier molecules, that become reduced.
Major carrier molecules (in reduced form): NADH, NADPH, FAD2H

Total conc of carrier molecules constant, so must cycle btw oxidative & reductive processes to maintain cell function.

Reactions that serve to reoxidise reduced carrier molecules:
Reduction of substrate (e.g.pyruvic acid - lactic acid)
Biosynthetic reactions involving reduction (e.g. FA & cholesterol synthesis)
Oxidative phosphorylation (ETC: drives ATP synthesis)

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2
Q

Compare & contrast the functions of glycolysis in:
Adipose tissue
Skeletal muscle
Red blood cells

A

Produce ATP (by SLP) in all 3 tissues:
Rbcs: only mechanism for ATP production
Skeletal: enables ATP production to occur in anaerobic conditions
Adipose: minor route for ATP production

Produces intermediates in rbcs & adipose tissue:
2,3-bisphosphoglycerate produced from 1,3-BPG in rbcs & important in regulating (decreasing) oxygen affinity of Hb
Glycerol phosphate produced from dihydroxyacetone phosphate in adipose tissue & used in esterification of FAs to produce triacylglyerols

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3
Q

List end products of glycolysis under aerobic & anaerobic conditions in red blood cells & skeletal muscle

A

RBCs:
Aerobic: lactate
Anaerobic: lactate

Skeletal:
Aerobic: pyruvate
Anaerobic: lactate

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4
Q

Describe the basis of re-feeding syndrome in Kwashiorkor

A

protein deficient child.
protein given: broken down & stored as lipids in the liver.
cannot be transported out of liver; insufficient proteins in blood to carry them = fatty liver.
Also, because of impaired liver function, aa’s cant be broken down effectively, = increased ammonia waste product (urea cycle disrupted)

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5
Q

Why does a child with Kwashiorkor have a fatty liver?

A

Protein deficient but enough energy store from carbs
Not able to synthesise hormones & haemoglobin
Break down peripheral skeletal muscle
No glucose: Metabolising fat in liver to produce ketones.
No proteins to transport in bloodstream, So accumulates in liver.

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6
Q

Explain how electron transport & ATP synthesis are coupled

A

Proton motive force:
Free energy from electron transport used to move protons from inside to outside of inner mitochondrial membrane.
Membrane impermeable to protons.
As electron transport continues, conc of protons outside inner membrane increases
PTC therefore transform chem. bond energy of electrons into electro-chemical gradient
Protons can normally only re-enter mitochondrial matrix via ATP SYNTHASE enzyme complex (Drives synthesis of ATP from ADP + Pi).
ET & ATP synthesis tightly coupled.
Mitochondrial conc of ATP important in regulating both processes.

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7
Q

Describe the key features of electron transport and explain how the proton motive force is produced

A

Electron transport: electrons transferred from NADH (and FAD2H) sequentially through series of multi-component complexes to molecular oxygen with the release of free energy.
free energy used to move protons from the inside to the outside of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
membrane itself impermeable to protons
as electron transport proceeds, proton conc on outside of inner membrane increases.
chemical bond energy of electrons transformed into electro-
chemical potential difference of protons.
= proton motive force

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8
Q

Describe the relationship between electron transport and ATP synthesis.

A

chemical bond energy of e- in NADH & FAD2H used to drive ATP synthesis in final stage of catabolism (oxidative phosphorylation). occurs in mitochondria
involves highly organised multi-component systems.
Two processes involved: electron transport & ATP synthesis.
p.m.f. created by electron transport, forces protons back
into the mitochondrial matrix thru ATP synthase complex, driving synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi.
Normally ET & ATP synthesis tightly coupled/controlled: one doesnt occur without the other.

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9
Q

Explain how coupling between ETC and ATP synthesis is altered during thermogenesis in brown adipose tissue mitochondria.

A

inner mitochondrial membrane of brown adipose tissue has, in addition to the ATP synthase complex, special proton conductance protein (thermogenin)
allows controlled re-entry of protons into the mitochondrial matrix without driving ATP synthesis
i.e. acts to uncouple ATP synthesis from ET.
This protein used to activate heat production (non-shivering thermogenesis) in cold environments.
In response to cold, norepinephrine released from the sympathetic NS. stimulates lipolysis, releasing FAs to provide fuel for oxidation in brown adipose tissue.
As a result of beta oxidation of FAs, NADH & FAD2H formed, driving ET and increasing p.m.f.
However, norepinephrine also activates thermogenin, allowing
protons to re-enter mitochondrial matrix without driving ATP synthesis. dissipates p.m.f as heat

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10
Q

Explain why cyanide is toxic to cells.

A

Cyanide blocks NADH & FAD2H oxidation
Inhibits respiratory chain at cytochrome oxidase/cytochrome aa3
prevents generation of p.m.f. and hence ATP synthesis.
Without ATP generation cell structure and function impaired
cell death rapidly ensues.

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11
Q

Explain The effects of pesticides on metabolism

A

Aromatic weak acids like 2-DNC (and 2,4-DNP) readily penetrate mitochondrial inner membrane & act as uncoupling agents
i.e. collapse p.m.f. and cause uncontrolled respiration
This consumes large amounts of:
metabolic fuels (esp FAs, derived from fats stored in adipose tissue - therefore absence of subcutaneous fat)
And
oxygen (would lead to hypoxia but prevented by increased pulmonary activity).

As much less ATP than normal made by OP under these conditions, energy lost as heat and body temp rises.
When attempts to combat this by increased sweating eventually
fail, the patient falls into a coma and dies.

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12
Q

Compare and contrast triacylglycerols and glycogen as energy storage materials in man.

A

Triacylglycerols and glycogen both energy storage molecules. Triacylglycerols:
major energy storage molecules (70kg man normally stores 10-15kg)
stored in highly specialised tissue (adipose)
more efficient from of energy
hydrophobic and stored in an anhydrous form
more reduced than glycogen & contain more stored energy per C-atom

Glycogen:
Less stored (70kg man stores 0.4 kg)
stored in tissues such as the liver and skeletal muscle, which have other important functions. 
Less efficient storage
polar and stored with water.
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13
Q

Describe, in outline, the processes involved in the utilisation of the triacylglycerols stored in adipose tissue by muscle cells.

A

During prolonged aerobic exercise, starvation, stress situations and lactation:
adipose tissue triacylglycerols hydrolysed by the enzyme (hormone-sensitive) lipase to release FAs and glycerol (lipolysis)
activated by adrenaline, glucagon, growth hormone, cortisol and thyroxine
inhibited by insulin.
FAs carried to tissues such as muscle via blood stream, bound non-
covalently to albumin.
albumin-bound FAs = non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) or free fatty acids (FFA).
glycerol not used by muscle cells but metabolised by liver cells.
Many tissues incl heart and skeletal muscle use the FAs as source of energy.
FAs oxidised to release energy = beta oxidation: occurs in mitochondria.
In order to be metabolised, FAs activated by linking to CoA in reaction
that requires ATP.
activated FAs transported into mitochondria via specialised transport process that uses carnitine.
rate of FA transport into mitochondrion determines rate of subsequent oxidation.
Once inside mitochondrion, oxidation of FAs occurs via sequence of reactions (beta oxidation pathway); oxidises the FA & removes a C2 unit (acetate).
shortened FA cycled thru reaction sequence repeatedly removing a C2 unit each turn of cycle until only two C atoms remain.

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14
Q

List the products that can be synthesised from acetyl~CoA and explain why it cannot be converted to glucose in man.

A

Acetyl~CoA produced by catabolism of FAs, sugars, alcohol & certain aa’s
can be oxidised via stage 3 of catabolism.
also an important intermediate in lipid biosynthesis.
major site of lipid synthesis in the body = liver (some in adipose
tissue)
most lipids (not polyunsaturated FAs) can be synthesised.
Acetyl~CoA cannot be converted to pyruvate in man because enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase irreversible & no other mechanism for by-passing this enzyme.
Since it cannot be converted to pyruvate it cannot be converted to glucose.

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15
Q

Explain how:
some amino acids can be converted to glucose (glucogenic)
some can be converted to ketone bodies (ketogenic)
others can be converted to both glucose and ketone bodies (glucogenic and ketogenic).

A

Amino acids that produce acetyl~CoA (e.g. leucine, lysine) =ketogenic: acetyl~CoA can be used for the synthesis of ketone bodies.

Amino acids that give rise to the other products (glutamic, aspartic, serine) = glucogenic
can be used for glucose synthesis by gluconeogenesis.

Some of the larger amino acids (isoleucine, threonine, phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan) = both ketogenic and glucogenic
give rise both to acetyl~CoA and one of the other organic precursor molecules.

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16
Q

Describe in general terms how amino acids are degraded in the body and list the major products of their degradation.

A

Degraded to smaller molecules largely in the liver.
Each aa has its own pathway of catabolism
but the pathways share common features:
C-atoms are converted to intermediates of carbohydrate metabolism (glucogenic aa’s) or lipid metabolism (ketogenic aa’s)

N-atoms usually converted to urea for excretion in the urine
but some may be excreted directly as ammonia
and some may be converted to glutamine and used for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines.

first step in the various pathways usually involves removal of the –NH
2 group by transamination or deamination.

Products = urea, pyruvate, acetyl~CoA, alpha-ketoglutarate, oxaloacetate, succinate and fumarate.

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17
Q

Describe the processes that produce ammonia in the body.

A

Ammonia produced by:
deamination of aa’s
absorbed from gut where it is produced by bacterial action.

Several deaminase enzymes of varying specificity are found in the liver and kidney that react with aa’s to remove the NH2 grp as free NH3
(NH4+):

D-amino acid oxidases = low specificity enzymes that convert aa’s to keto acids and NH3

Glutaminase = high specificity enzyme that converts glutamine to glutamate + NH3

Glutamate dehydrogenase = high specificity enzyme that catalyses the reaction:
Glutamate + NAD+ + H2O -> apha-ketoglutarate +NH4+ + NADH + H+
important in aa metabolism by liver as involved in both disposal of
aa (glutamate alpha-ketoglutarate + NH4+ ) and synthesis of non-essential aa’s (alpha-ketoglutarate glutamate).

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18
Q

a 7-month old baby boy, developed normally until he was weaned at 6 months. Following the introduction of a high protein diet he had become irritable, lethargic and less alert and had begun to
vomit. He was admitted to hospital where he had episodes of screaming, listlessness and ataxia (uncontrolled limb movements) especially after a protein rich meal. His urine was persistently alkaline and contained a lower urea concentration than normal. His blood NH4+ and glutamine concentrations were increased but fell to normal when his protein intake was reduced. He was put on a special low-protein diet and his subsequent development was normal.
Explain the biochemical basis of this patient’s signs and symptoms.

A

signs and symptoms began when high protein diet was introduced and disappeared when protein intake was used:
suggest a defect in amino acidmetabolism.

The high blood NH4+ and glutamine and low urine urea concentration: suggest an inability to convert NH4+, produced from the catabolism of amino acids, to urea.

Thus, the problem is likely to be a partial defect in one of the enzymes of the urea cycle.
high blood ammonia associated with disturbances to CNS function (NH4+ interferes with energy metabolism in the CNS) and produced the symptoms of irritability, lethargy, screaming, listlessness and ataxia.

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19
Q

Explain how tissues obtain the lipids they need from lipoproteins.

A

Triacylglycerols obtained from chylomicrons and VLDLs by the extracellular enzyme lipoprotein lipase present in the capillary bed of the tissue.
This hydrolyses triacylglycerols to FAs and glycerol.
FAs taken up by tissues and re-esterified to triacylglycerols using glycerol phosphate, derived from glucose metabolism.

Cholesterol is obtained from LDLs by receptor mediated endocytosis. The LDL particles bind to LDL receptors on the surface of target cells. The receptor with its bound LDL is taken into the cell by endocytosis. The endosome is attacked by lysosomal enzymes releasing free cholesterol in the cell and destroying the receptor protein.
The cholesterol is converted to cholesterol esters for storage.
When the cell has enough cholesterol, cholesterol inhibits the synthesis of new LDL receptors and the uptake of cholesterol is reduced.

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20
Q

Explain why individuals with a defect in the enzyme lecithin-cholesterol
acyltransferase produce unstable lipoproteins of abnormal structure. What are the clinical consequences of this defect?

A

All mature lipoproteins found in normal human plasma are spherical particles that consist of a surface coat and a hydrophobic core. Lipoproteins particles are only stable if they maintain their spherical This is dependent on the ratio of core to surface lipids.
As the lipid from the hydrophobic core is removed and taken up by tissues the lipoprotein particles become unstable as the ratio of surface to core ipids increases.
Stability can be restored if some of the surface lipid is converted to core lipid.
This is achieved by the enzyme LCAT; important in formation of lipoprotein particles and in maintaining their structure.
The enzyme converts cholesterol (a surface lipid) to cholesterol ester (a core lipid) using fatty acid derived from lecithin (phophatidylcholine).
Deficiency of the enzyme = unstable lipoproteins of abnormal structure and a general failure in the lipid transport processes.
Lipid deposits occur in many tissues and atherosclerosis is a problem

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21
Q

Outline the pathways by which tissues obtain the cholesterol they need.

A

Direct synthesis from acetyl CoA within tissues.

Obtain cholesterol synthesised in the liver via LDLs.

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22
Q

List 3 signs or symptoms of a very high blood cholesterol

A

Corneal arcus
Xanthelasma and/or Tendon xanthoma
Accelerated development of atherosclerotic diseases

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23
Q

What classes of lipoprotein are present in the serum from a fasting blood sample taken from a normal individual?

A

LDL, VLDL & HDL (Not chylomicrons).

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24
Q

What is hyperlipoproteinaemia?

A

Any condition in which, after a 12 hour fast, the plasma cholesterol and/or plasma triglyceride is raised.

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25
Q

A 32 year old male came to see you in a general practice surgery. He was concerned that his father had died at the age of 50 from a heart attack and he wanted his blood cholesterol checked. You arrange for a fasting blood sample to be taken and sent to the Clinical
Chemistry Lab for analysis.
The laboratory reports the following results:
total serum cholesterol = 12 mM (reference range =

A

Blood glucose to check for fasting sample and/or diabetes.

Type IIa or familial hypercholesterolaemia.

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26
Q

explain the relationship between NADPH and glutathione (in managing ROS)

A

There is a recycling system between NADPH and glutathione.
NADPH reduces oxidised glutathione to its reduced form, via GSH reductase.
The reduced glutathione is then available to be oxidised by reactive oxygen species, thus removing ROS.

27
Q

Name the antioxidant vitamins

A
vitamin C (ascorbic acid) (water soluble)
vitamin E ( -tocopherol) (lipid soluble)
vitamin A (retinol)
28
Q

Define ‘oxidative stress’

A

occurs when the production of ROS is excessive or antioxidant
levels are low in a cell, and the balance is shifted in favour of ROS.
Usually, cells have sufficient antioxidant power to cope with the normal production of ROS.

29
Q

Outline the metabolic responses to starvation and describe how they
are controlled.

A

Should fasting proceed beyond 10hr the changes associated with starvation begin to occur.
Insulin levels continue to fall
glucagon, growth hormone and cortisol levels increase.
Muscle proteolysis increases to provide aa’s for gluconeogenesis.
Gluconeogenesis increases to maintain blood glucose for the CNS.
Lipolysis continues to increase to provide fatty acids for tissues.
Ketogenesis in the liver produces ketone bodies that can be used by the CNS and other tissues.
As ketogenesis increases so rate of gluconeogenesis decreases but it remains active and the kidney contributes to gluconeogenesis.

30
Q

Briefly explain how the metabolism of alcohol can cause damage
to the liver.

A

The intermediate metabolite of alcohol metabolism, acetaldehyde, is toxic to liver cells.
The increased availability of acetyl-CoA affects liver metabolism.
The conversion of alcohol to acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase also produces NADH.
The decreased NAD+/NADH ratio favours the formation of triacylglycerols which accumulate in the liver cells, leading to ‘fatty liver’.

31
Q

List four key components of control systems

A

Communication, control centre, receptor, effector.

32
Q

Describe the key features of the endocrine system.

A

consists of a number of tissues that synthesise chemical signals (hormones).
These signals are protein molecules, steroids or aa derivatives.
Hormones are released into the bloodstream and are carried to target tissues.
Some hormones (steroid and thyroid) are lipophilic and require specialised transport proteins
all others are hydrophilic.
Hormones interact with receptors on or in target tissues to produce a response.
Hormones that interact with cell surface receptors produce their
response by altering the intracellular concentration of intracellular signal molecules (2nd messengers).
Following interaction with target tissues hormonal signals are then subjected to chemical change and loss of biological activity.

33
Q

Describe how hormone secretion may be controlled and explain why this is necessary.

A

Generally speaking, the effect that a hormone has on its target tissue depends on its concentration in the blood stream.
determined largely by its rate of secretion
although the extent of binding to transport proteins and rate of inactivation can play a role.
Thus, the rate of hormone secretion must be controlled to ensure that the desired physiological effect of the hormone on its target tissue(s) is achieved.

The rate of secretion of a hormone is usually controlled by feedback inhibition. This may
involve:
the hormone itself feeding back on the endocrine tissue and reducing the secretion of
more hormone.
a physiological action of the hormone resulting from its interaction with its target tissue
feeding back on the endocrine tissue.

34
Q

Outline the mechanism of control of appetite.

A

Ghrelin: stimulates primary neurone (stimulating appetite); NPY, AgRP
PYY: inhibits primary neurone (stimulating appetite); NPY, AgRP

Leptin/insulin: stimulates primary neurone (inhibiting appetite); POMC

POMC/ NOY, AgRP stimulate secondary neurone

35
Q

Explain why epigenetics is different to genetic mutation.

A

Genetic mutation involves changes in the nucleotide sequence (changes in the DNA sequence)

epigenetics involves methylation of DNA and changes in histone
structure that affect gene transcription

36
Q

Explain why hyperglycaemia occurs in untreated type 1 diabetes.

A

Type 1 diabetes is characterised by insulin deficiency due to destruction of the pancreatic beta-cells.

The lack of insulin causes hyperglycaemia by the following mechanisms:
reduced uptake of glucose by adipose tissue and skeletal muscle.

reduced storage of glucose by liver and skeletal muscle (reduced glycogenesis, increased glycogenolysis).

increased production of glucose by liver (increased gluconeogenesis, decreased glycolysis).

37
Q

Outline the major ultrastructural features of the beta-cell that relate to the synthesis, storage and secretion of insulin.

A

Many mitochondria – active proteins synthesis, storage and secretion all require energy.

Extensive RER – active synthesis of protein for export.

Extensive Golgi – active formation of hormone storage vesicles.

Many storage vesicles – storage of large amounts of hormone ready for secretion.

Many microtubules & microfilaments – active secretory tissue (exocytosis).

38
Q

Explain why insulin and C-peptide are secreted from the beta cell in equimolar amounts.

A

Insulin is synthesised as the precursor molecular proinsulin.
This molecule contains the A and B chains of insulin joined together by a connecting peptide.
The conversion of proinsulin to insulin occurs in the storage vesicles and involves proteolysis.
products = insulin, C-peptide and 4 basic amino acids produced in equimolar amounts.
Since these are produced in the storage vesicles they are secreted together during exocytosis.

39
Q

Describe the metabolic basis of insulin’s action in lowering the blood glucose concentration.

A

Insulin lowers the blood glucose concentration by:
stimulating glucose uptake into muscle and adipose tissue
stimulating storage of glucose as glycogen in muscle and liver
stimulating glucose oxidation in liver.
stimulating lipogenesis and esterification in liver and adipose tissue.
inhibiting gluconeogenesis in liver.

40
Q

List the factors that affect insulin secretion and explain their physiological significance.

A

Nutrients such as glucose, fatty acids and amino acids all stimulate insulin secretion when their blood concentration exceeds the fasting values.
The released insulin interacts with its target tissues (liver, muscle and adipose tissue) to stimulate the uptake, utilisation or storage
of the nutrients.
This lowers their blood concentration towards the fasting values and the stimulation of insulin secretion stops.
The catecholamines adrenaline and noradrenaline inhibit insulin secretion.
This enables the catecholamines released during stress to raise the blood glucose concentration and for the concentration to be maintained while the stress is dealt with.
If insulin secretion was not inhibited the increase in blood glucose caused by the catecholamines would stimulate insulin secretion and the blood glucose concentration would fall prematurely.

Gut hormones stimulate insulin secretion as part of the response to the ingestion and digestion of a meal.
This means that as the products of digestion are absorbed there is
already insulin in the circulation that can ensure that the nutrients are rapidly taken up by tissues avoiding major increases in their blood concentration.

41
Q

Explain why cortisol, a glucocorticoid, can have mineralocorticoid and
androgen-like effects when present in high concentrations.

A

The actions of cortisol on target tissues are mediated by binding to receptors in the cytoplasm/nucleus.
All steroid hormone receptors have similar basic structure with hormone and DNA binding domains.
The hormone binding domains of the mineralocorticoid and
androgen receptors have over 60% sequence homology with the hormone-binding domain of the glucocorticoid receptor.
Thus, cortisol can bind to these receptors to a limited extent causing their partial activation

42
Q

Explain why high circulating levels of ACTH can lead to increased
pigmentation in certain areas of the body.

A

Pigment (melanin) production by melanocytes is activated by the hormones MSH (Melanocyte stimulating hormone).

ACTH is a 39 amino acid, single chain polypeptide hormone released
from the anterior pituitary.
The initial biosynthetic precursor is a 241 amino acid protein called
pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC).

Post-translational processing of POMC at different sites produces a range of biologically active peptides including ACTH and MSH.

The MSH sequence of 13 amino acids is contained within the ACTH sequence in POMC giving ACTH some MSH-like activity when present in excess.

The clinical consequences of over-secretion of ACTH therefore include increased pigmentation due to partial MSH activity.

43
Q

Describe the functions and actions of adrenaline (epinephrine) in humans.

A

Adrenaline is released as part of the fright, flight or fight response
secreted in response to stress situations
has effects on cardiovascular system (increased cardiac output, increased blood supply to muscle), central nervous system (increased mental alertness), carbohydrate metabolism (increased glycogenolysis) and lipid metabolism (increased lipolysis).

The major target tissues for its action are
liver, skeletal muscle, heart muscle and the central nervous system.

44
Q

What is the main function of the parathyroid glands?

A

produce parathyroid hormone which plays a critical role in maintaining
normal blood calcium levels.

45
Q

Which main chemical messenger(s) is/are involved in the control of serum calcium (Ca 2+) levels in humans?

A

Parathyroid hormone

calcitriol

46
Q

What is the effect on serum calcium of each of the chemical messengers which control it?

A

Parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium

Calcitriol increases serum calcium

47
Q

If the calcium ion (Ca 2+) concentration in the extracellular fluid suddenly falls below normal, which hormone is secreted?

A

Parathyroid hormone

48
Q

In long term (chronic) hypocalcaemia which chemical messenger(s) is /are active?

A

Vitamin D/calcitriol

49
Q

What other effects does parathyroid hormone initiate in response to low calcium ions in extra cellular fluid?

A

Mobilization of calcium from bone
Enhancing absorption of calcium from the small intestine
Suppression of calcium loss in urine (renal effect)

50
Q

Explain how regulation of parathyroid hormone secretion occurs

A

Simple regulatory system.
Calcium sensors on secretory cells respond to changes in
calcium levels.
Low calcium stimulates PARATHYROID HORMONE secretion
high calcium inhibits PARATHYROID HORMONE secretion

51
Q

What is stimulated by parathyroid hormone to reabsorb bone mineral, liberating calcium into blood?

A

Osteoclasts

52
Q

Where else in the body does increased parathyroid hormone act to produce a rapid increase in serum calcium levels?

A

Kidney

53
Q

Which of the following is the active form of vitamin D, following activation by the kidney?
A. Cholecalciferol
B. 25-hydroxyvitamin D2
C. Ergocalciferol
D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol)

A

D

54
Q

How and where is vitamin D formed/ absorbed?

A

Formed in the skin via UV light

or absorbed in the gut from the diet

55
Q

Where and why is vitamin D converted to 25-hydroxyvitamin D?

A

Liver

Longer half life

56
Q

What is the half life of 25-hydroxyvitamin D

A

2 weeks

57
Q

What is the half life of calcitriol?

A

A few hours

58
Q

Which of the following regarding calcitriol is correct?
A. It is effective in inhibiting the parathyroid gland to secrete parathyroid hormone
B. It is effective in enhancing GI absorption of calcium
C. Its use can result in hypocalcaemia
D. All of the above

A

B

59
Q

What role does calcitonin have in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

A

Sometimes called the third hormone and is thought to lower serum calcium levels in other mammals.
It does not seem to have much of a role in humans.
Higher levels in pregnancy may protect bone from excessive resorption.
The role of calcitonin is controversial in humans.

60
Q

Outline the metabolic and hormonal changes that occur during the
running of a marathon.

A

carbohydrate stores in the body insufficient to provide enough energy to complete the distance
muscle cells have to oxidise fatty acids
The metabolic changes are more gradual and involve several tissues.

major features of the metabolic response:
muscles work aerobically (supply of oxygen increased by cardiovascular response) and can use all types of fuel molecules (not just glucose).
the origin and type of fuel changes as exercise proceeds.
control of these changes is largely hormonal (insulin falls progressively, adrenaline, glucagon, cortisol and growth hormone increase at different times)
with some input from the nervous system (noradrenaline).

Fuel molecules used during a marathon:
major fuel during the initial phase = muscle glycogen (last ~60min when metabolised aerobically)
As the marathon proceeds there is increased utilisation of circulating blood glucose by muscles.
The blood glucose concentration stays relatively constant however, as
the glucose removed by muscles is replaced by glucose released from the liver.
This glucose comes from the liver’s limited glycogen stores (~75%) and from gluconeogenesis (~25%).
There are limited substrates available for liver gluconeogenesis and eventually the blood glucose level may fall - exhaustion!
Because of the aerobic conditions that the muscle cells are working under they able to use fatty acids as a source of energy and this utilisation increases with time.

61
Q

Outline the metabolic and hormonal changes that occur during the
running of a 100m race.

A

metabolic response is rapid and is largely confined to muscle
which work anaerobically.
controlled by the nervous system (noradrenaline) with some input endocrine systems (adrenaline).

The metabolic response includes:
muscle ATP and C~P are used initially (~5sec).
muscle glycogen is rapidly mobilised to provide glucose-6-P (~5sec).
G-6-P is metabolised via glycolysis to provide ATP from ADP by SLP.
glycolysis is carried out under anaerobic conditions as oxygen supply to muscle is inadequate for aerobic metabolism.
dramatic increase in rate of anaerobic glycolysis produces lactate
and H+
build up of H+ produces fatigue.

62
Q

Outline the metabolic response to pregnancy.

A

foetus supplied with the range nutrients it requires.
these nutrients are supplied at the appropriate rate for each stage of
development.
this is achieved with minimal disturbances to maternal nutrient
homeostasis.
the foetus is buffered from any major disturbances in maternal nutrient
supply.
reducing the maternal utilisation of glucose by switching tissues to fatty acids.
delaying the maternal disposal of nutrients after meals.
releasing fatty acids from the stores built up during the first half of
pregnancy.

63
Q

What condition normally stimulates the secretion of

PARATHYROID HORMONE?

A

Parathyroid adenoma

64
Q

What condition normally inhibits the secretion of PARATHYROID
HORMONE?

A

Thyroidectomy