Seizure Disorder Flashcards

1
Q

What are the drug causes of Seizures?

A

-antidepressants (bupropion, SNRI, TCA)
-antipsychotics
-amphetamines
-theophylline
-illicit substances
-tramadol/tapentadol
-withdrawal from alcohol, anticonvulsants, benzos, baclofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the seizure types?

A

-partial or focal seizures: abnormal electrical activity in one hemisphere
-generalized seizures: abnormal electrical activity in both hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe Simple Focal Onset Seizures

A

without dyscognitive features
-no loss of consciousness
-involuntary twitching or jerking in one extremity
-sweating, salivating, vomiting (autonomic symptoms)
-numbness, tingling, feeling of deja vu, visual disturbances, hallucinations, ringing/buzzing sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe Complex Focal Onset Seizures

A

with dyscognitive features
-loss of consciousness
-similar presentation to simple focal onset seizures, but may also not make sense while speaking, lip smacking, picking at clothes, staring off into space, extreme changes in behavior postictal state (post- seizure) common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe Absence Generalized Onset Seizures

A

-sudden interruption
-blank stare
-no aura (“warning”) or postictal state
-shorter than complex focal seizures (2-30 seconds)
-generally presents in children and adolescents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe Myoclonic Generalized Onset Seizures

A

-brief shock-like muscle contractions
-may be repetitive
-can be confined to small isolated muscle group or larger areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe Clonic Generalized Onset Seizures

A

-bilateral, symmetrical, rhythmic jerk movements
-longer than myoclonic seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe Tonic Generalized Onset Seizures

A

-stiffness in the limbs
-bilateral increased tone
-seconds to a minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe Tonic-Clonic Generalized Onset Seizures

A

-5 phase characterization: loss of consciousness, flexion, extension, tremor, clonic
-phase of tonic followed by clonic
-prodromal (“warning”) symptoms in some patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe Atonic Generalized Onset Seizures

A

-sudden loss in muscle tone
-very brief
-often in patients with intellectual impairment
-protective hardware
-hallmark of Lennox-Gastaut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Lennox-Gastuat Syndrome?

A

-severe, refractory seizure disorder
-commonly identified in childhood
-includes a variety of seizure types
-often requires combination medication therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the symptoms of postictal?

A

-confusion
-frustration
-weakness
-fatigue
-memory loss/confusion
-embarrassment
-headache
-nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is seizure type identified and diagnosed?

A

-history and clinical evaluation (pt may not be a reliable historian of details of their seizures)
-radiologic evaluation
-laboratory evaluation
-EEG (most useful DURING seizure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the consequences of not treating seizures?

A

-uncontrolled seizures may impact quality of life, lead to development of new seizure types, altered response to anticonvulsants
-prolonged seizure activity may lead to neurological damage and could be life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are factors associated with successful pharmacological therapy withdrawal?

A

if the patient…
-single seizure type
-age of onset of seizure was age 2-35
-has been seizure free for 2 years+
-normal neurological exam, EEG, and IQ
-complete seizure control within 1 year of initiating treatment
-taper dose over 6 months (no more than 25% per 2 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the relapse rate of seizures once withdrawn from pharmacotherapy?

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drugs are considered broad spectrum for seizures?

A

-lamotrigine
-levetiracetam
-topiramate
-valproic acid
-zonisamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the Black Box Warning of Lamotrigine?

A

serious skin rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the adverse effects of Lamotrigine?

A

ASEPTIC MENINGITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the drug interactions of Lamotrigine?

A

-oral contraceptives
-valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the advantages of Lamotrigine?

A

-multiple uses in seizure disorders (efficacy in focal onset and generalized)
-multiple dosage forms
-generally well tolerated
-use in bipolar disorder
-fewer cognitive effects in the elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the disadvantages of Lamotrigine?

A

-slow titration to avoid serious skin rash
-not for rapid control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the adverse effects of Levetiracetam?

A

mood changes
-irritability
-aggression/agitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the drug interactions of Levetiracetam?

A

minimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the monitoring parameters of Levetiracetam?

A

behavioral and renal function (dosing adjustment needed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the advantages of using Levetiracetam?

A

-well tolerated
-no significant drug interactions
-can be loaded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the disadvantages of Levetiracetam?

A

behavioral problems can limit therapy in some patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the adverse effects of Topiramate?

A

-word filling difficulty
-paresthesias
-psychomotor slowing
-nephrolithiasis
-oligohydrolysis
-metabolic acidosis
-weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the drug interactions of Topiramate?

A

phenytoin and valproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Topiramate place in therapy?

A

may be considered for comorbid conditions such as migraines (efficacy seen) or obesity (due to SE of weight loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the adverse effects of Valproic Acid?

A

-GI upset
-thrombocytopenia
-hepatotoxicity
-hyperammonemia
-pancreatitis
-alopecia
-PCOS
-weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the drug interactions of Valproic Acid?

A

-lamotrigine
-carbapenems
-aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the monitoring parameters of Valproic Acid?

A

CBC, LFT, levels 50-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Valproic Acid place in therapy?

A

may be useful in comorbidities such as migraines and bipolar disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the adverse effects of Zonisamide?

A

-impaired concentration
-paresthesias
-nephrolithiasis
-oligohydrosis
-metabolic acidosis
-agitation/irritability
-skin rash (SJS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the disadvantages of Zonisamide?

A

-cognitive impairment with rapid dose increase
-sulfa allergy cross reaction and renal stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the Black Box Warning of Valproic Acid?

A

hepatoxicity, mitochondrial disease, fetal risk, pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the adverse effects of Carbamazepine?

A

-diplopia
-dizziness
-unsteadiness
-lethargy
-nystagmus
-ataxia
-nausea
-leukopenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia
-HYPOnatremia
-skin rash (SJS or TEN)
-decreased vitamin D and bone density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the drug interactions of Carbamazepine?

A

-CYP3A4 substrate
-CYP3A4 major inducer (autoinducer, induces its own metabolism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the monitoring parameters of Carbamazepine?

A

-HLA-B *1502 allele
-renal
-CMP
-BMP
-levels (4-12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What drug may worsen absence seizures?

A

carbamazepine

42
Q

What is the advantage of Carbamazepine?

A

minimal cognitive impairment

43
Q

What are the disadvantages of Carbamazepine?

A

-may worsen absence seizures
-may precipitate tonic clonic seizures in pt with other generalized seizures
-do not use in pregnancy, teratogenicity
-rash risk with fast titration

44
Q

What is the Black Box Warning of Carbamazepine?

A

rash, aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis

45
Q

What are the adverse effects of Oxcarbazepine?

A

-HYPOnatremia (SIADH)
-skin rash (SJS/TEN)
-dizziness
-diplopia
-nystagmus
-nausea
-ataxia/gait
-drowsiness
-tremor
-decreased bone density

46
Q

Is hyponatremia (SIAHD) more common with Carbamazepine or Oxcarbazepine?

A

oxcarbazepine

47
Q

What are the disadvantages of Oxcarbazepine?

A

-hyponatremia is more common
-can be used if no response to carbamazepine but if pt had rash with CBZ there is a 30% chance that they will experience rash with oxcarbazepine

48
Q

What is the indication of Eslicarbazepine?

A

typically reserved for failure of other agents

49
Q

What are the side effects of Eslicarbazepine?

A

-HYPOnatremia
-rash

50
Q

What are the advantages of Eslicarbazepine?

A

-once daily dosing (prodrug)
-lower risk of hyponatremia (SIADH)

51
Q

What are the adverse effects of Phenytoin?

A

-gingival hyperplasia
-hirsutism, acne
-neuropathy
-agranulocytosis
-skin thickening, coarsening of facial features (look older)
-purple glove syndrome
-CNS effects
-cognitive dysfunction
-bone health

52
Q

What are the drug interactions of Phenytoin?

A

-CYP2C9 substrate and inducer
-CYP2C19 substrate and inducer

53
Q

What is the Black Box Warning of Phenytoin?

A

cardiovascular risk with rapid infusion

54
Q

What are the disadvantages of Phenytoin?

A

-narrow therapeutic window (levels 10-20)
-zero-order: increase in dose leads to increased proportional drug levels

55
Q

What are the adverse effects of Phenobarbital?

A

-respiratory depression
-liver dysfunction
-paradoxical hyperactivity (more agitation/irritability)
-cognitive effects

56
Q

What are the drug interactions of Phenobarbital?

A

CYP2C9 substrate and major inducer

57
Q

What are the monitoring parameters of Phenobarbital?

A

-LFT
-CBC
-behavior
-renal
-levels (10-40)

58
Q

Primidone is a prodrug that is activated to be ________.

A

phenobarbital

59
Q

What are the adverse effects of Lacosamide?

A

-CNS/GI effects
-ECG PR prolongation
-liver enzyme elevation

60
Q

What are the drug interactions of Lacosamide?

A

very minimal

61
Q

What are the monitoring parameters of Lacosamide?

A

-ECG
-renal
-hepatic

62
Q

What are the disadvantages of Lacosamide?

A

AV conduction abnormalities so contraindicated in pt with heart block

63
Q

What are the adverse effects of Gabapentin?

A

-dizziness
-drowsiness
-GI effects
-peripheral edema
-weight gain

64
Q

What are the drug interactions of Gabapentin?

A

very minimal

65
Q

What are the disadvantages of Gabapentin?

A

-frequent dosing
-risk of withdrawal

66
Q

What are the indications of Gabapentin?

A

considered second line for focal onset seizures but consider if comorbid neuropathic pain

67
Q

What are the adverse effects of Pregabalin?

A

-peripheral edema
-weight gain
-CNS effects

68
Q

What are the advantages of Pregabalin?

A

-longer acting than gabapentin
-multiple other uses

69
Q

What is the Black Box Warning of Perampanel?

A

serious psychiatric and behavioral reactions

70
Q

What are the adverse effects of Perampanel?

A

-paranoia
-euphoria
-aggression

71
Q

What are the adverse effects of Tiagabine?

A

-impaired concentration
-weakness
-CNS effects
-GI effects

72
Q

What are the disadvantages of Tiagabine?

A

-caution in absence seizures
-can worsen some seizures if refractory

73
Q

What is the Black Box Warning of Vigabatrin?

A

permanent vision loss

74
Q

What are the adverse effects of Vigabatrin?

A

-blindness
-weight gain/edema
-GI effects
-CNS effects

75
Q

What is the use of Vigabatrin?

A

infantile spasms

76
Q

What is the monitoring parameters of Vigabatrin?

A

eyes, has a REM program (SHARE)

77
Q

What is the Black Box Warning of Clobazam?

A

risk of concomitant benzo + opioid use, abuse/misuse/addiction, dependance, withdrawal

78
Q

What are the adverse effects of Clobazam?

A

-behavioral changes
-amnesia
-CNS effects

79
Q

What are the drug interactions of Clobazam?

A

LOTS OF INTERACTIONS
-CYP2C19 substrate
-CYP3A4 substrate
-CYP2D6 substrate
-CYP3A4 inducer

80
Q

What is the Black Box Warning of Clonazepam?

A

risk of concomitant benzo + opioid use, abuse/misuse/addiction, dependance, withdrawal

81
Q

What are the contraindications of Clonazepam?

A

severe hepatic impairment

82
Q

What is the Black Box Warning of Felbamate?

A

aplastic anemia, hepatic failure

83
Q

What are the adverse effects of Felbamate?

A

-GI upset
-anorexia/weight loss
-CNS effects

84
Q

What are the drug interactions of Felbamate?

A

CYP3A4 substrate/inducer/inhibitor

85
Q

What are the monitoring parameters of Felbamate?

A

-LFT
-CBC
-hepatic

86
Q

What drug is ONLY indicated for absence seizures?

A

ethosuximide

87
Q

What drugs should be avoided in absence seizures?

A

-carbamazepine
-phenytoin
-vigabatrin

88
Q

What drugs are frequently used for Atonic seizures?

A

these are not the only ones used
-clobazam
-felbamate
-rufinamide

89
Q

What are the adverse effects of Rufinamide?

A

-shortens QTc
-rash
-CNS effects
-GI effects

89
Q

What are the drug interactions of Rufinamide?

A

prone to interactions
-CYP2E1 inhibitor
-CYP3A4 inducer

89
Q

What are the advantages of Rufinamide?

A

minimal effect on cognition

89
Q

What anticonvulsants are highly protein bound?

A

carbamazepine, phenytoin, valproic acid

90
Q

What are some considerations when prescribing the elderly anticonvulsants?

A

-reduced organ function (reduced clearance, metabolism, and hypoalbuminemia= caution using highly protein bound medications, phenytoin, valproate)
-sensitive to neurocognitive effects
-additional medications (interactions)

91
Q

What drugs may cause sperm abnormalities in males?

A

carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, and valproic acid

92
Q

What anticonvulsant may cause testosterone levels to increase?

A

levetiracetam

93
Q

What anticonvulsant may cause testosterone levels to decrease?

A

valproic acid

94
Q

How does estrogen effect seizures?

A

proconvulsant effects

95
Q

How does progesterone effect seizures?

A

anticonvulsant effect

96
Q

What are Catamenial Seizures?

A

seizures before/during menses or during ovulation

97
Q

How can Catamenial Seizures be treated?

A

-intermittent dose increase of benzos
-consider acetazolamide or cyclic natural progesterone

98
Q

What anticonvulsants are NOT safe for pregnancy?

A

-valproic acid
-topiramate
-carbamazepine
-phenytoin
-phenobarbital