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CNPS 532 - Exam 1 > Segments 1 to 5 > Flashcards

Segments 1 to 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What are four purposes for assessment?

A

Screening; diagnosis; treatment planning & goal identification; and outcome evaluation

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2
Q

True or false: Testing can only measure behaviours or outputs, not thoughts themselves.

A

True. (Domain of behaviour)

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3
Q

What are the two key components of standardization in testing?

A

Uniformity of procedure for administration and scoring (strict, replicable conditions); Establishing norm groups

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4
Q

Name 5 fundamental features of educations and psychological tests.

A
  1. Represents a domain of behaviour; 2. Standardization; 3. Objective measurement; 4. Reliability; 5. Validity
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5
Q

Define: Validity

A

Validity means usefulness (and accuracy) of determinations using the test scores – does the test actually measure what it says it measure?

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6
Q

Define: Reliability

A

Reliability means consistency or repeatability that is, that you will receive similar results on repeated tests.

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7
Q

True or False: Assessment in counselling refers primarily to using testing instruments to screen clients.

A

False. Testing is only a part of assessment – interviewing, observation, developing rapport are all parts as well .

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8
Q

Define: Norm-referenced assessments

A

Results are made by comparison to other individuals who are similar, and have like-characteristics

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9
Q

Define: Criterion-referenced assessments

A

Results are made by comparison to a predetermined score or level of performance

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10
Q

Explain the difference between individual and group tests.

A

Individual: the participant is tested individually with the person conducting the assessment, often requiring interaction between examinee and administrator. Group: participants are tested in a group, though scoring is usually for individuals, (unable to observe all examinees)

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11
Q

Define: Speed test

A

Looking at the number of single items that can be completed in a short time, which can determine processing speed, impulsivity, perfectionism.

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12
Q

Define: Power test

A

Include items with varying items of difficulty with no time limits.

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13
Q

Explain formative and summative evaluation.

A

Formative involves evaluating as you go, through the course of treatment to allow for midcourse adjustments.

Summative involves evaluating at the end, e.g. outcome evaluation, to determine whether goals have been met.

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14
Q

Explain maximum and typical performance tests.

A

Maximum performance tests want to motivate individuals to perform at their best, i.e. IQ or achievement assessment.

Typical want to understand how they perform typically under normal circumstances, i.e. personality inventories, career development

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15
Q

Explain environmental assessment.

A

Seeks to modify the environment to best meet the needs of the individual; non-pathological approach: assumes there are events in the environment that cause pathological behaviour, rather than assuming the problem is with the client

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16
Q

Why are tests protected? (The answer is not CAPITALISM.)

A

To ensure use by a qualified examiner; to ensure protection of test content; to protect communication of results

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17
Q

Explain Level A tests.

A

Level A: don’t require any specific training – self-administered after reading manual, self-scored, e.g. Holland’s Self-Directed Search, as well as a lot of internet-based tests

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18
Q

Explain Level B tests.

A

Level B: vast majority of tests used in clinical practice, requiring Master’s-level training in assessment & supervision (at least 10 times, to become truly qualified)

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19
Q

Explain Level C tests.

A

Level C: Usually require Ph. D-level training, e.g. Wechsler, Stanford-Binet, Rorschach; can also be administered by exception categories (depends on state license); often require specific training & courses for that test; or, if required as a condition of employment, i.e. in school settings, prisons, (still need to go through the training and supervision)

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20
Q

What are some testing conditions that may affect performance?

A

Suitability of testing room.
Lighting, workspace, comfortable seating, etc.
Type of response format.)
Stranger versus a familiar examiner.
General manner of examiner.
Presence or absence of examiner, or other students.

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21
Q

What three things can be done to minimize the effects when testing conditions are disrupted?

A
  1. Follow standardized procedures in detail.
  2. Record even minor instances of unusual conditions. (e.g. fire alarm)
  3. Take these conditions into consideration when interpreting the results.
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22
Q

How can examiners build rapport with children who are being tested?

A

Give shy, timid children time to warm up; present testing as a game; use brief testing periods; reassure the child that no one is expected to get them all correct.

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23
Q

Define psychological test.

A

A psychological test is a standardized and objective measure of a sample of behaviour.

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24
Q

True or false: Most tests derive a raw score, which is meaningless without a comparative group

A

True.

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25
Q

Which kind of assessment allows examinees to display a collection of exemplar works?

A

Portfolio assessment

26
Q

What are two concerns about the use of labels from assessment?

A

Tests may be used to mislabel an individual.

Labels may be used as an excuse for a remediable or nonexistent condition.

27
Q

What is the Yerkes–Dodson law, and how does it apply?

A

Dictates that performance increases with physiological or mental arousal, but only up to a point: when levels of arousal become too high, performance decreases.

28
Q

Why is coaching, or teaching to the test, problematic when trying to assess mastery?

A

Improves the test score without appreciably improving the mastery of the behavioural domain on which the test is based

29
Q

What is a validity scale?

A

Refers to items which help assessors measure reliability of responses, such as to detect dishonesty, malingering, or random answering patterns, (e.g. MMPI)

30
Q

What are the four steps of the counselling process which require assessment?

A
  1. Assess client problems.
  2. Conceptualize & define client problems.
  3. Select & implement effective treatments (formative evaluation)
  4. Evaluate counselling intervention effectiveness (outcome evaluation)
31
Q

Explain the differences between objective versus subjective assessments.

A

Objective tests: leave no doubt as to the correctness of a given answer – correct answers are pre-determined and require no judgement on the part of the examiner.

Subjective tests: require the examiner to make a judgement on the quality of the response in scoring an item.

32
Q

What are some examples of intelligence tests?

A

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV); Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale (SBIS-5)

33
Q

What do achievement tests measure?

A

Measure the knowledge students have acquired through instruction; may be either norm- or criterion-referenced

34
Q

What do affective assessments measure?

A

All noncognitive features of an individual including temperament, clinical disposition, personality, attitudes, values and interests. E.g. MMPI-II, Strong Interest Inventory

35
Q

What are projective techniques?

A

Assessments based on psychoanalytic theory which present the client with ambiguous stimuli, allowing the client to “project” thoughts and feelings on to the stimulus, e.g. Rorschach Inkblot Test

36
Q

What is performance assessments?

A

Also called authentic or alternative assessments, minimize verbal task demands and require examinees to manipulate materials without the use of language (e.g. demonstrating ability by fixing a car, rather than writing a test about cars.)

37
Q

What is the drawback of performance assessment?

A

Human judgments are required to determine the acceptability of the performance, therefore can impact interscorer reliability.

38
Q

When did Darwin publish On The Origin of Species?

A

1859

39
Q

What four fields did assessment begin to explore in the 20th century?

A

Intellectual assessment
Achievement assessment
Vocational/career assessment
Clinical/personality assessment

40
Q

When was the Binet-Simon Scale constructed (in France)?

A

1905

41
Q

What concept was first introduced in the Binet-Simon Scale’s 1908 revision?

A 
Mental age (versus chronological age) calculated to a ratio intelligence quotient 
(MA / CA x 100)
42
Q

What is Spearman’s concept of general intelligence?

A

Proposed intelligence is displayed in two dimensions: one that helps an individual solve general tasks (g) and another that helps individuals solve specific tasks (s).

43
Q

Which intelligence test was first designed to measure different facets of intelligence through different subtests which add up to the overall intelligence quotient?

A

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)

44
Q

___________ is the applied area of psychology and counselling concerned with the measurement of nonintellectual affective characteristics.

A

Personality assessment

45
Q

What four purposes do ethical standards serve?

A
  • Educate members about sound ethical behaviour
  • Provide accountability
  • Improve professional practice
  • Educate and protect, the public about the standards of behaviour they can expect from professionals
46
Q

What are Kitchener’s Five Moral Principles?

A

Autonomy, Fidelity, Beneficence, Non-Maleficence and Justice

47
Q

The legitimacy of informed consent rests upon three essential facets; what are they?

A

capacity (to the right one holds to consent), comprehension ( the consenter understands the implications of consent), and voluntariness ( the assessment involves no coercion or duress)

48
Q

Define test sophistication.

A

When clients are advantaged by having access to experiences or information about how to perform better on a test

49
Q

Name and define the three types of bias that have implications for assessment in diverse populations.

A

Content bias (test material being more familiar to one group than another)

Internal structure bias (scores may be reliable for one group but not reliable for another, or more reliable for one group than another)

Predictive bias (test systematically overpredicts or underpredicts a group’s performance)

50
Q

What is “acquiescence,” as related to performance on tests?

A

With true-false or yes-no response formats, if one is unsure of an answer, the tendency fto answer true or yes more frequently than not

51
Q

Explain response bias, as related to performance on tests?

A

When the response to one item influences the response to the next item. For example, a client who has just answered true on three consecutive items may be likely to answer true on the next item even though the client might otherwise have answered false.

52
Q

Explain social desirability, as related to performance on tests?

A

The attempt to present in a more positive or favourable light

53
Q

Explain reactive effects, as related to performance on tests?

A

The observation that some clients alter their perspectives or response patterns during an assessment or interview; they actually change because of the assessment process.

54
Q

What are two common types of developmental equivalents?

A

Age equivalents and grade equivalents

55
Q

Explain age equivalent.

A

The examinee’s raw score is the average performance for a particular age group. E.g., if the average raw score for 11-year-old children (11 years, 0 months) on a particular test is 15 items correct out of a 30-item test, then any examinee obtaining a score of 15 would receive an age-equivalent score of 11-0 (11 years, 0 months). -expressed in years and months with a hyphen between the year and the month (i.e., 11 years, 2 months is 11-2)

56
Q

Explain grade equivalent

A

obtained by computing the average (mean or median) raw score on a test obtained by examinees in a specified grade, (expressed in grades and tenths with a decimal between the two numbers )

57
Q

Explain interpolation and extrapolation.

A

Interpolation means guessing within the bounds of what is known; make sense because some empirical results do exist upon which to base a conclusion

Extrapolation means guessing outside the bounds of what is known

58
Q

True or False: Age equivalents represent interval data, and standardized scores represent ordinal data.

A

False! Other way around.

59
Q

Explain a z-score, including mean, standard deviation, and formula.

A

A z-score has a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1; indicates how many standard deviations above or below the mean a given score falls;
Examinee’s raw score (X) minus raw score group mean (Mx) divided by standard deviation (SD)
(X - Mx) / SD

60
Q

Explain a T-score, including mean, standard deviation, and formula.

A

Transformation of a z-score to make it positive; commonly reported in behavioural, personality, and clinical inventories.

T = 10 (z) + 50

CNPS 532 - Exam 1 (1 decks)

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