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BIO 225 > seeley_s_anp_20140910063945 > Flashcards

seeley_s_anp_20140910063945 Flashcards

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1
Q

Test 1

Receptors for odorants are

A

Olfactory hairs

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2
Q

Test 1

What must be true in order to detect an odor?

A

A. The odorant must dissolve in mucus of the nasal cavityB. The dissolved odorant binds to receptors on olfactory hairsC. A G protein is activated when an odorant binds to its receptor which opens sodium and calciumgatesD. All of the choices are true

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3
Q

Test 1

What ion channels are opened to produce an action potential in olfactory neurons?

A

Calcium and sodium

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4
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT true of olfactory neurons?

A

They are located just inside the nasal cavity

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5
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT one of the seven primary odors?

A

Salty

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6
Q

Test 1

What is the function of basal cells in the olfactory epithelium?

A

Regenerate the olfactory epithelium and neurons

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7
Q

Test 1

Odors can produce strong emotional reactions and memories because the olfactory cortex is part ofthe

A

Limbic system

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8
Q

Test 1

Taste buds are located on structures called

A

Papillae

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9
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a specialized epithelial cell found in taste buds?

A

A. Chorda tympaniB. Taste cellsC. Basal cellsD. Supporting cells10.

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10
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a primary taste?

A

A. UmamiB. SweetC. SourD. PeppermintyE. Bitter

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11
Q

Test 1

Which primary odor serves to protect from poisons?

A

Bitter

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12
Q

Test 1

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry taste impulses to the brain?

A

Hypoglossal nerve

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13
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the correct sequence in the taste neural pathway?

A

Medulla oblongata, thalamus, parietal lobe

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14
Q

Test 1

Which accessory structure of the eyes protect the eyes by preventing perspiration from getting into theeyes?

A

Eyebrows

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15
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a function of the eyelids?

A

A. A barrier to microorganismsB. Protects the eyes from foreign objectsC. Lubricates the eyesD. Regulate the amount of light entering the eyes

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16
Q

Test 1

The blockage of a ciliary gland of the eyelashes is called a/an

A

Sty

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17
Q

Test 1

What membrane covers the inside of the eyelid and the anterior white surface of the eye?

A

Conjunctiva

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18
Q

Test 1

What structure produces tears?

A

Lacrimal apparatus

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19
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a component of tears?

A

A. WaterB. SaltC. LysozymeD. Sebum

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20
Q

Test 1

What is the function of lysozyme in the eyes?

A

Killing bacteria

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21
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT an extrinsic eye muscle?

A

A. Superior rectus muscleB. Orbicularis oculi muscleC. Inferior oblique muscleD. Lateral rectus muscle

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22
Q

Test 1

The clinical test for normal eye movement is the

A

H test

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23
Q

Test 1

Which muscle causes the eye to abduct?

A

Lateral rectus

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24
Q

Test 1

Which cranial nerve serves four of the six extrinsic eye muscles?

A

Oculomotor

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25
Q

Test 1

Which eye layer and its components is matched correctly?

A

Nervous layer - retina

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26
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sclera?

A

Absorbs light

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27
Q

Test 1

The most anterior portion of the sclera is the

A

Cornea

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28
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the cornea?

A

Vascular

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29
Q

Test 1

What structure is responsible for most of the refraction of light entering the eye?

A

Cornea

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30
Q

Test 1

What is the function of the choroid of the eye?

A

Absorbs light

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31
Q

Test 1

What structures are attached to the lens to change its shape to focus light?

A

Suspensory ligaments

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32
Q

Test 1

What is the function of the iris?

A

Control the size of the pupil

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33
Q

Test 1

The area of the retina that contains the highest amount of photoreceptors is the

A

Fovea centralis

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34
Q

Test 1

What area of the retina contains the least amount of photoreceptors?

A

Optic disc

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35
Q

Test 1

What is found in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye?

A

Aqueous humor

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36
Q

Test 1

A build-up of aqueous humor will increase intraocular pressure and cause

A

Glaucoma

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37
Q

Test 1

What is found in the vitreous chamber of the eye?

A

Vitreous humor

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38
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a function of vitreous humor?

A

A. Holds the lens and retina in placeB. Maintains the shape of the eyeC. Refracts lightD. All of the choices are correct***

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39
Q

Test 1

The part of the electromagnetic spectrum that can be detected by the human eye is

A

Visible light

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40
Q

Test 1

The process of bending light rays is called

A

Refraction

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41
Q

Test 1

Causing light rays to converge at a point is called

A

Focusing

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42
Q

Test 1

Which is the proper order of the focusing system of the eye?

A

Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

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43
Q

Test 1

Fine adjustments to the refraction of light for focusing is performed by the

A

Lens

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44
Q

Test 1

Increasing the curvature of the lens will _____ the refraction.

A

Increase

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45
Q

Test 1

What is the distance that differentiates between far vision and near vision?

A

20 feet

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46
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT part of the process used to focus light on the retina for near vision?

A

A. Pupil constrictionB. AccommodationC. Reflection***D. Convergence

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47
Q

Test 1

The normal resting condition of the lens for far vision is called

A

Emmetrop

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48
Q

Test 1

rocess of adjusting the thickness of the lens for near vision is called

A

Accommodation

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49
Q

Test 1

The point at which the lens can not adjust to close objects is called the

A

Near point of vision

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50
Q

Test 1

Depth of focus increases by

A

Constricting the pupil

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51
Q

Test 1

The rotation of the eyes medially to view a close object is called

A

Convergence

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52
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT part of the neural layer of the retina?

A

Pigment cells

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53
Q

Test 1

Which photoreceptors are responsible for low-light and noncolor vision?

A

Rods

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54
Q

Test 1

What is the first event that results in vision in rods?

A

Light causes retinal to change shape

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55
Q

Test 1

The adjustment of the eyes when going from a lighted area to a dark area is called

A

Dark adaptation

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56
Q

Test 1

What conditions are needed for cones to work properly?

A

Bright light

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57
Q

Test 1

What visual pigment is found combined with opsin in cones?

A

Iodopsin

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58
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a type of cone?

A

A. BlueB. Yellow ***C. RedD. Green

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59
Q

Test 1

What area of the retina has an abundance of cones and no rods?

A

Fovea centralis

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60
Q

Test 1

Visual acuity is enhanced with cones because

A

One cone synapses with one bipolar cell which synapses with one ganglion cell

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61
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT an interneuron of the retina?

A

Ganglion cells

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62
Q

Test 1

What is the role of interneurons in the inner retina?

A

Help distinguish boundary differences between objects

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63
Q

Test 1

Which axons from the retina cross in the optic chiasm?

A

Nasal fields

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64
Q

Test 1

The optic radiations on the right side contain images from the

A

Nasal field of the right eye and temporal field of the left eye

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65
Q

Test 1

The ability to perceive depth and judge distance is due to

A

Binocular vision

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66
Q

Test 1

A lesion in the optic chiasm would result in loss of vision from the

A

Temporal fields of both eyes

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67
Q

Test 1

Which eye disorder results in clear vision of close objects and blurry vision of distant objects?

A

Myopia

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68
Q

Test 1

The result of myopia is an image focused

A

In front of the retina

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69
Q

Test 1

Myopia can be corrected with a

A

Concave lens

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70
Q

Test 1

Which eye disorder results in clear vision of distant objects and blurry vision of near objects?

A

Hyperopia

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71
Q

Test 1

The result of hyperopia is an image focused

A

Behind the retina

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72
Q

Test 1

Hyperopia can be corrected with

A

Convex lens

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73
Q

Test 1

The effect of aging on the accommodation ability of the lens is called

A

Presbyopia

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74
Q

Test 1

Astigmatism is caused by

A

Irregular cornea or lens

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75
Q

Test 1

Strabismus may be caused by

A

Weak eye muscles

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76
Q

Test 1

The decreased ability to function in dim light is called

A

Nyctalopia

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77
Q

Test 1

An excessive buildup of aqueous humor that increases intraocular pressure is

A

Glaucoma

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78
Q

Test 1

The clouding of the lens as a result of protein buildup is called

A

Cataracts

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79
Q

Test 1

The loss of visual acuity in older persons is called

A

Macular degeneration

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80
Q

Test 1

What structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear?

A

Tympanic membrane

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81
Q

Test 1

What is the function of the auricle of the ear?

A

Collects and directs sound waves

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82
Q

Test 1

What structure transmits collected sound waves to the tympanic membrane?

A

External acoustic meatus

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83
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT an auditory ossicle?

A

A. IncusB. Cochlea **C. StapesD. Malleus

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84
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT an opening into/out of the middle ear?

A

Vestibule

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85
Q

Test 1

What is the function of the auditory tube?

A

Equalizes pressure on tympanic membrane in the middle ear

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86
Q

Test 1

Which auditory ossicle is connected to the inner ear at the oval window?

A

Stapes

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87
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT part of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear?

A

A. Chorda tympani **B. VestibuleC. CochleaD. Semicircular canals

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88
Q

Test 1

What fluid fills the membranous labyrinth?

A

Endolymph

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89
Q

Test 1

What is found in the space between the bony and membranous labyrinths?

A

Perilymph

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90
Q

Test 1

Which part of the inner ear is involved with sound?

A

Cochlea

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91
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a division of the cochlea?

A

Scala basili

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92
Q

Test 1

What is the actual organ of hearing?

A

Organ of Corti or spiral organ

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93
Q

Test 1

Which cochlear chamber is connected to the oval window into the middle ear?

A

Scala vestibuli

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94
Q

Test 1

What is found between the vestibular membrane and the basilar membrane of the cochlea?

A

Cochlear duct

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95
Q

Test 1

The specialized cell extensions of hair cells that will stimulate neurons for hearing are called

A

Stereocilia

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96
Q

Test 1

The longest stereocilia of the outer hair cells are embedded in the

A

Tectorial membrane

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97
Q

Test 1

Which event occurs first when the stereocilia bend toward the longest stereocilium?

A

The gating spring in the tip link between stereocilia to stretch

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98
Q

Test 1

What ion causes depolarization of hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti?

A

Potassium

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99
Q

Test 1

What neurotransmitter is used by hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti?

A

Glutamate

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100
Q

Test 1

The resonance quality or overtones of a sound is called

A

Timbre

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101
Q

Test 1

What occurs to sound waves as they are transmitted by the auditory ossicles?

A

Amplifies the sound

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102
Q

Test 1

Sounds with a higher pitch will maximally distort the basilar membrane

A

Nearest the oval window

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103
Q

Test 1

What is the function of the round window?

A

Stops the sound waves from reflecting back toward the cochlear canal

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104
Q

Test 1

Which of the following would be the correct sequence in the propagation of sound waves through theear?

A

tympanic membrane; 1. tympanic; 2. incus; 3. auricle; 4. perilymph of scala vestibuli; 5. externalacoustic meatus; 6. malleus; 7. round window; 8. endolymph of cochlear canal; 9. stapes; 10. basilarmembrane; 11. stereocilia of spiral organ; 12. perilymph of scala tympani; 13. oval windowA. 3, 5, 1, 2, 6, 9, 7, 4, 8, 11, 10, 12, 13(((B. 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 9, 13, 4, 8, 10, 11, 12, 7)))C. 5, 1, 9, 3, 2, 6, 12, 7, 13, 11, 10, 8, 4D. None of the choices are correct

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105
Q

Test 1

What cranial nerve carries the impulses for hearing to the auditory cortex?

A

Vestibulocochlear

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106
Q

Test 1

Which brain structure is NOT involved in neuronal pathways for hearing?

A

Basal nuclei

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107
Q

Test 1

Static balance is associated with the

A

Vestibule

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108
Q

Test 1

What structures are involved with static balance?

A

Both the utricle and saccule

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109
Q

Test 1

The structure of the macula includes

A

A. StereociliaB. KinociliumC. Otoliths in the otolithic membraneD. All of the choices are correct ****

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110
Q

Test 1

What ion produces depolarization in the stereocilia of the macula?

A

Potassium

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111
Q

Test 1

Where are the ear stones found?

A

Macula

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112
Q

Test 1

What structure is associated with dynamic balance?

A

Ampulla of the semicircular canals

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113
Q

Test 1

How does the crista ampullaris respond to rotational movements?

A

Endolymph bends the cupula that bends the stereocilia

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114
Q

Test 1

Which of the following nervous system parts is NOT involved with balance?

A

A. Medulla oblongataB. Auditory cortex **C. CerebellumD. Eyes

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115
Q

Test 1

The most common visual problem of older persons that requires medical treatment is

A

Cataracts

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116
Q

Test 1

Olfaction occurs in response to odorants entering the oral cavity.

A

F

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117
Q

Test 1

The olfactory epithelium along with the olfactory neurons are replaced about every two month

A

T

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118
Q

Test 1

Olfaction is a very adaptive sense.

A

T

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119
Q

Test 1

Taste hairs are specialized microvilli of taste cells found in taste buds.

A

T

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120
Q

Test 1

Depolarization of taste hairs requires that the tastants be dissolved in saliva and enter the tastepores.

A

T

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121
Q

Test 1

Taste is not related at all to smell.

A

F

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122
Q

Test 1

The meibomian glands of the eyelashes produce sebum that keeps tears from flowing over the edge ofthe eyelids.

A

T

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123
Q

Test 1

Pinkeye is also known as acute contagious conjunctivitis.

A

T

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124
Q

Test 1

Excess tears flow through lacrimal canaliculi into the oral cavity.

A

F

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125
Q

Test 1

A high amount of water in the cornea allows it to better transmit light.

A

F

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126
Q

Test 1

The sphincter pupillae muscles respond to sympathetic stimulation, while the dilator pupillae respondto parasympathetic stimulation.

A

F

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127
Q

Test 1

The color of the iris is due to genetic determined amounts of melanin.

A

T

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128
Q

Test 1

Another name for the optic disc is the blind spot.

A

T

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129
Q

Test 1

The lens is a biconcave disk that is avascular and transparent.

A

F

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130
Q

Test 1

If a lens is convex and thickest in the middle, light rays will converge.

A

T

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131
Q

Test 1

The image projected onto the retina is inverted.

A

T

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132
Q

Test 1

The lens should be relatively flat and thin for near vision.

A

F

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133
Q

Test 1

When the ciliary muscle contracts, the lens will become more rounded.

A

T

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134
Q

Test 1

The near point of vision gradually shortens as we get older.

A

F

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135
Q

Test 1

The light rays pass through the retina to reach the photoreceptors deep in the retina while the actionpotential travels toward the surface of the retina.

A

T

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136
Q

Test 1

The rods and cones face the vitreous chamber of the eye.

A

F

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137
Q

Test 1

The majority of the retina contains more rods and cones.

A

T

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138
Q

Test 1

The temporal part of the left visual field is projected onto the nasal portion of the retina of the lefteye.

A

T

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139
Q

Test 1

The middle ear is a fluid-filled cavity containing the auditory ossicles.

A

F

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140
Q

Test 1

The specialized cells of the organ of Corti involved in hearing are called hair cells.

A

T

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141
Q

Test 1

The outer hair cells of the organ of Corti are most involved with hearing.

A

F

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142
Q

Test 1

Static balance is concerned with the position of the head relative to gravity and linear acceleration anddeceleration.

A

T

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143
Q

Test 1

Moving the head backward to look up into the sky would cause the stereocilia of the macula to bendtoward the kinocilium and change the position of the otoliths in the otolithic membrane.

A

T

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144
Q

Test 1

Age-related hearing loss is called presbyopia.

A

F

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145
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood which helps to maintain homeostasis?

A

A. Transport of hormones and enzymesB. Regulate pHC. Synthesis of Vitamin DD. Clot formation

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146
Q

Test 1

Blood is composed of

A

Formed elements and plasma

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147
Q

Test 1

Formed elements make up _____________of the blood.

A

45%

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148
Q

Test 1

The most abundant substance in blood is

A

Water

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149
Q

Test 1

What protein is foundinthe plasma?

A

Albumin

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150
Q

Test 1

Antibodies are a class of this type of blood protein.

A

Globulin

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151
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT an example of a formed element

A

A.PlasmaB. Red blood cellC. Platelet D. White bloodcell

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152
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the most numerous formed element

A

Red blood cell

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153
Q

Test 1

Which formed element is involved with immunity?

A

Leukocyte

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154
Q

Test 1

Which formed element transports oxygen and carbondioxide?

A

Erythrocyte

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155
Q

Test 1

Which formed element is a cell fragment?

A

Thrombocyte

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156
Q

Test 1

The process of blood cell production is called

A

Hematopoiesis

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157
Q

Test 1

In adults blood cell formationoccurs in the

A

Red bone marrow

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158
Q

Test 1

The stem cells of all formed elements is the

A

Hemocytoblast

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159
Q

Test 1

The development of each blood cell line is regulated by

A

Growthfactors

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160
Q

Test 1

Growthfactors for regeneration of red bone marrow are used to counter the effects of

A

Chemotherapy incancer treatmen

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161
Q

Test 1

A myeloblast differentiates into

A

A. Neutrophils B.Eosinophils C. Basophils D.All of the above are correct

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162
Q

Test 1

Red blood cells are

A

Biconcave

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163
Q

Test 1

Red blood cells live for approximately

A

120days

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164
Q

Test 1

One-third of the volume of the red blood cell is composed of what red pigmented protein?

A

Hemoglobin

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165
Q

Test 1

Hemoglobin is composed of

A

Both four polypeptides and four heme groups

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166
Q

Test 1

The heme group inred bloodcells contain this metal.

A

Iron

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167
Q

Test 1

Hemoglobin combines with __________and appears bright red in color.

A

Oxygen

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168
Q

Test 1

Red blood cells transport carbon dioxide boundtothe

A

Amino groups of the globin molecule

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169
Q

Test 1

What percent of the oxygen is transported in the bodybyred blood cells?

A

98.5%

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170
Q

Test 1

What percent of the carbondioxide is transported in the bodybyred bloodcells?

A

23%

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171
Q

Test 1

In the red blood cells, carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid which dissociates into hydrogen and bicarbonate ions. What enzyme is responsible for this reaction

A

Carbonic anhydrase

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172
Q

Test 1

This cell is the product of erythropoiesis and is released into the blood as an immature red blood cell

A

Reticulocyte

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173
Q

Test 1

Proerythroblasts differentiate into

A

Red blood cells

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174
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT required for normal red blood cell production bythe bone marrow?

A

A. Iron B. Folate C. Vitamin B12 D.All of the above are needed for normal red blood cell production

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175
Q

Test 1

In response to low oxygen levels in the blood, the kidneys will release this glycoprotein

A

Erythropoietin

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176
Q

Test 1

Old,abnormal or damaged red blood cells are removed from the bloodbymacrophages of which of the following organs?

A

Liver and spleen

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177
Q

Test 1

Old heme molecules are removed from the body in the form of

A

Bile pigments in the feces

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178
Q

Test 1

This formed element has a nucleus.

A

Leukocyte

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179
Q

Test 1

Leukocytes lack

A

A. A nucleus B. Organelles C. Cytoplasm D.Hemoglobin

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180
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT an example of a white bloodcell?

A

A. Lymphocyte B.Thrombocyte C.Neutrophil D.Monocyte

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181
Q

Test 1

Which of these leukocytes is an agranulocyte?

A

Monocyte

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182
Q

Test 1

This white blood cell phagocytizes microorganisms and becomes a macrophage in the tissue.

A

Monocyte

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183
Q

Test 1

This leukocyte is an example of a granulocyte.

A

Basophil

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184
Q

Test 1

This white blood cell phagocytizes microorganisms.

A

Neutrophil

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185
Q

Test 1

This is the accumulation of dead neutrophils, cell debris and fluid.

A

Pus

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186
Q

Test 1

Which leukocyte has large granules that stain blue-purple?

A

Basophil

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187
Q

Test 1

This leukocyte releases histamine and heparin.

A

Basophil

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188
Q

Test 1

This leukocyte has granules that stain orange-red or bright red.

A

Eosinophil

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189
Q

Test 1

This white blood cell attacks worm parasites.

A

Eosinophil

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190
Q

Test 1

This leukocyte produces antibodies.

A

Lymphocyte

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191
Q

Test 1

The precursor cells of platelets are the

A

Megakaryocytes

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192
Q

Test 1

Which cell fragment is important in preventing blood loss?

A

Thrombocyte

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193
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is involved in preventing blood loss?

A

A. Vascular spasmB. Platelet plugC. Blood clottingD. All of the above are involved in preventing blood loss

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194
Q

Test 1

Vascular spasm is a temporary change in the blood vessel which causes

A

Constriction

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195
Q

Test 1

Vascular spasm can be caused by the release of ____________ from the platelets.

A

Thromboxane

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196
Q

Test 1

Platelet plug is associated with

A

Platelet adhesion

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197
Q

Test 1

What will stop blood loss from small tears in the blood vessels?

A

Platelet plugs

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198
Q

Test 1

Aspirin inhibit the synthesis of

A

Thromboxane

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199
Q

Test 1

When a blood vessel has a large tear and is severely damaged, which one of the following mechanisms is activated?

A

Blood clotting or coagulation

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200
Q

Test 1

What structure contains a network of fibrin fiber that trap blood cells, platelets and fluid?

A

Blood clot

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201
Q

Test 1

Blood clotting requires the presence of these proteins in the blood.

A

Clotting factors

202
Q

Test 1

Damage to the tissue may activate this pathway of blood clotting.

A

Extrinsic pathway

203
Q

Test 1

Damage to a blood vessel may activate this pathway of blood clotting.

A

Damage to a blood vessel may activate this pathway of blood clotting.

204
Q

Test 1

This pathway of blood clotting involves factor X, factor V, platelet phospholipids and Ca2+.

A

Common pathway

205
Q

Test 1

The formation of a blood clot is dependent on the synthesis of

A

Fibrin

206
Q

Test 1

Blood clotting requires

A

A. ThrombinB. FibrinogenC. FibrinD. All of the above are required for blood clotting

207
Q

Test 1

The human body produces a number of anticoagulants. Which one of the following is an anticoagulant?

A

Heparin

208
Q

Test 1

An attached blood clot that forms inside of a blood vessel due to damaged blood vessel or heart wall iscalled a/an

A

Thrombus

209
Q

Test 1

A floating blood clot that breaks loose from inside a blood vessel is called a/an

A

Embolus

210
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT an anticoagulant used to treat blood clots?

A

A. HeparinB. CoumadinC. WarfarinD. All of the following are anticoagulants

211
Q

Test 1

The contracting of a blood clot after it formation is called

A

Clot retraction

212
Q

Test 1

The squeezing out of plasma without the clotting factor during clot retraction results in the formationof a liquid called

A

Serum

213
Q

Test 1

The dissolving of a blood clot after it forms is called

A

Fibrolysis

214
Q

Test 1

Which enzyme dissolves a blood clot?

A

Plasmin

215
Q

Test 1

A treatment for blood loss is

A

Both transfusions and infusions can be used to treat blood loss

216
Q

Test 1

A transfusion reaction is the result of

A

A. Antigen and antibody reactionsB. AgglutinationC. HemolysisD. All of the above cause a transfusion reaction

217
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the antigen that is found on the surface of RBCs with blood type B?

A

B antigen

218
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the antibody that is found in the plasma of blood type AB?

A

Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

219
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the antibody that is found in the plasma of blood type A?

A

Anti-B antibody

220
Q

Test 1

A person with blood type A can receive a transfusion with this type of blood.

A

Either A or O blood types

221
Q

Test 1

A person with blood type O can receive a transfusion with this type of blood.

A

O blood type

222
Q

Test 1

A person who is AB negative is

A

Type AB and Rh-negative

223
Q

Test 1

When an Rh-negative mother has a second Rh-positive fetus, the fetus may develop this condition.

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

224
Q

Test 1

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can be prevented by giving an Rh-negative mother what type ofantibody injection?

A

RhoGAM

225
Q

Test 1

To prevent transfusion reaction, the donor’s and recipient’s blood must be

A

Crossmatched

226
Q

Test 1

his is a condition that is associated with decreased hemoglobin or RBCs or both.

A

Anemia

227
Q

Test 1

A red blood cell count can be used to determine

A

Both erythrocytosis and anemia

228
Q

Test 1

Anemia can be caused by a deficiency in one of the following substances?

A

A. IronB. FolateC. Vitamin B12D. All of the above are correct

229
Q

Test 1

This test is the measure of the percentage of the total blood volume that is RBCs.

A

Hematocrit

230
Q

Test 1

Which of the following conditions is caused by a decrease in WBCs.

A

Leukopenia

231
Q

Test 1

This is cancer of white blood cells.

A

Leukemia

232
Q

Test 1

Which of the following bleeding conditions is caused by a decrease in platelets.

A

Thrombocytopenia

233
Q

Test 1

Blood is a type of epithelial tissue.

A

FALSE

234
Q

Test 1

Serum is plasma without clotting factors.

A

TRUE

235
Q

Test 1

The formed elements are erythrocytes, leukocytes and thrombocytes.

A

TRUE

236
Q

Test 1

Hematopoiesis is stimulated by platelet release of erythropoietin.

A

FALSE

237
Q

Test 1

Monoblasts differentiate into monocytes.

A

TRUE

238
Q

Test 1

During differentiation red blood cell lose their nucleus and most of their organelles.

A

TRUE

239
Q

Test 1

When hemoglobin loses oxygen, blood appears dark red.

A

TRUE

240
Q

Test 1

The production of red blood cells is called leukopoiesis.

A

FALSE

241
Q

Test 1

The blood marrow requires 40 days to produce a single red blood cell.

A

FALSE

242
Q

Test 1

The bone marrow will increase red blood cell production in response to high blood oxygen levels.

A

FALSE

243
Q

Test 1

ncreased destruction of red blood cells can lead to a yellowish staining of the skin called jaundice.

A

TRUE

244
Q

Test 1

Eosinophils release histamine and heparin.

A

FALSE

245
Q

Test 1

Lymphocytes are phagocytes.

A

FALSE

246
Q

Test 1

Monocytes are a form of agranulocytes.

A

TRUE

247
Q

Test 1

Blood clotting is caused by megakaryocytes.

A

FALSE

248
Q

Test 1

Endothelin causes vascular spasms.

A

TRUE

249
Q

Test 1

Blood clots are formed from fibrin.

A

TRUE

250
Q

Test 1

When damaged tissue releases thromboplastin, this will activate the intrinsic pathway of bloodclotting.

A

FALSE

251
Q

Test 1

Both streptokinase and t-PA are used to treat heart attacks by dissolving blood clots.

A

TRUE

252
Q

Test 1

Hemolysis is the rupture of red blood cells.

A

TRUE

253
Q

Test 1

A person with blood type O has no anti-A or anti-B antibodies.

A

FALSE

254
Q

Test 1

The largest percentage of people are of blood type AB.

A

FALSE

255
Q

Test 1

A person with blood type AB can receive any blood type.

A

TRUE

256
Q

Test 1

A person with AB blood type is called a universal donor.

A

FALSE

257
Q

Test 1

A complete blood count (CBC) consists of a red and white blood cell counts, analysis of hemoglobin and hematocrit and a differential white blood cell count.

A

TRUE

258
Q

Test 1

Hemophilia is a genetic disease that cause abnormal or the loss of blood clotting.

A

TRUE

259
Q

Test 1

Prothrombin time is a measure of how long it takes for blood to start to clot.

A

TRUE

260
Q

Test 1

In response to low oxygen levels in the blood, the kidneys will release this glycoprotein.

A

Erythropoietin

261
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a function of the heart which helps to maintain homeostasis?

A

Routing bloodGenerating blood pressureRegulating blood supplyAll of these are functions of the heart

262
Q

Test 1

The heart is located in the

A

Thoracic cavity between the lungs

263
Q

Test 1

The heart is surrounded by this sac

A

Pericardium

264
Q

Test 1

What membrane covers the surface of the heart?

A

Visceral pericardium

265
Q

Test 1

The heart wall is composed of three layers. Which of the following is NOT a layer of the heart wall?

A

Intercardium

266
Q

Test 1

What is the name of the heart wall layer that forms the inner surface of the heart chamber?

A

Endocardium

267
Q

Test 1

What are the muscular ridges that are found in the atria of the heart?

A

Pectinate muscles

268
Q

Test 1

The heart consists of

A

Two atria and two ventricles

269
Q

Test 1

What are the veins that carry blood to the heart?

A

Pulmonary veins Inferior vena cava Superior vena cava All of these veins carry blood to the heart

270
Q

Test 1

What are the two arteries that carry blood away from the heart?

A

Pulmonary trunk and aorta

271
Q

Test 1

The right atrium receives blood from which of the following veins?

A

Superior vena cava Inferior vena cava Coronary sinus** All of these veins carry blood to the right atrium**

272
Q

Test 1

What are the blood vessels that carry blood to the left atrium?

A

Pulmonary veins

273
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following is a depression in the right atrium that was the former opening betweenthe left and right atria of the fetal heart?

A

Fossa ovalis

274
Q

Test 1

The left ventricle pumps blood into the

A

Aorta

275
Q

Test 1

What is the function of heart valves?

A

To prevent backflow of blood and ensure one-way flow of blood in the heart

276
Q

Test 1

Which of the following are heart valves?

A

Both the atrioventricular and semilunar valves

277
Q

Test 1

What is the name of the right atrioventricular valve?

A

Tricuspid valve

278
Q

Test 1

What is the name of the cone-shaped muscular pillars in the ventricles?

A

Papillary muscles

279
Q

Test 1

What are the string-like structures that attach the atrioventricular valves to the heart wall?

A

Chordae tendineae

280
Q

Test 1

Which semilunar valve separates the left ventricle and the aorta?

A

Aortic semilunar valve

281
Q

Test 1

When the ventricles contract

A

The atrioventicular valves close and the semilunar valves open

282
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the correct flow of blood as blood moves from the body, through the heart,to the lungs?1. Pulmonary semilunar valve2. Pulmonary trunk3. Right atrium4. Right ventricle5. Superior and inferior vena cava6. Tricuspid valve

A

5,3,6,4,1,2

283
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the correct flow of blood as blood moves from the lungs, through the heart,to the body?1. Aortic semilunar valve2. Aorta3. Bicuspid valve4. Left atrium5. Left ventricle6. Pulmonary veins

A

6,4,3,5,1,2

284
Q

Test 1

What two arteries do the left coronary artery branch into?

A

Anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries

285
Q

Test 1

What areas of the heart are supplied by the left coronary artery

A

Left atrium, left ventricle and right anterior ventricle

286
Q

Test 1

Blood is drained from the heart muscle by which of the following blood vessels?

A

Coronary sinus

287
Q

Test 1

What are the two myofilaments that are found in cardiac muscle?

A

Actin and fibrin Fibrin and myosin Actin and collagen**None of the above are correct

288
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a part of the cardiac muscle action potential?

A

DepolarizationPlateau phase of repolarization Final repolarization phaseAll of these are part of the action potential in cardiac muscle

289
Q

Test 1

During depolarization, which of the following ion channels open?

A

Sodium

290
Q

Test 1

During depolarization,

A

Sodium channels open, potassium channels close and calcium channels open

291
Q

Test 1

During final repolarization,

A

Sodium channels close, potassium channels open and calcium channels close

292
Q

Test 1

Absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle extends from depolarization into the

A

Final repolarization phase

293
Q

Test 1

What is the pacemaker of the heart?

A

Sinoatrial node

294
Q

Test 1

When the SA node depolarizes and the heart contracts, which one of the following is directlydetermined by the SA node?

A

Heart rate

295
Q

Test 1

What ion is primarily responsible for the depolarization of the SA node of the heart?

A

Calcium

296
Q

Test 1

When the SA node depolarizes, which of the following heart chambers contracts first?

A

Right and left atria

297
Q

Test 1

What part of the conducting system of the heart delays the transmission of the action potential to allowthe atria to contract before the ventricles?

A

AV node

298
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures in the heart’s conducting system?1. AV bundles2. AV node3. Purkinje fibers4. SA node

A

4,2,1,3

299
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following conditions is life threatening?

A

Ventricular fibrillation

300
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following conditions is a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute?

A

Bradycardia

301
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following waves would be seen in a normal ECG?

A

wave T waveQRS complex ***All of the above would be seen in a normal ECG

302
Q

Test 1

What wave of the ECG represents ventricular depolarization?

A

QRS complex

303
Q

Test 1

What wave of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

A

T wave

304
Q

Test 1

During the PR interval,

A

The atria contract

305
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during ventricular systole?1. AV valves close2. Blood is ejected into the pulmonary trunk and aorta3. Semilunar valves open4. Ventricles begin to relax and enter into ventricular diastole5. Ventricles contract and blood pressure in ventricles increase

A

5,1,3,2,4

306
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during ventricular diastole?1. When ventricular blood pressure becomes less than atrial pressure, AV valves open2. Atria contract and force their blood into the ventricles3. Semilunar valves close4. Ventricles relax and blood pressure in ventricles decreases

A

4,3,1,2

307
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following events does NOT occur during ventricular systole?

A

Ventricular pressure increasesAV valves close Semilunar valves open**All of these events occur during ventricular systole

308
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following events does NOT occur during ventricular diastole?

A

AV valves close

309
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following is the highest blood pressure in the aorta?

A

Systolic pressure

310
Q

Test 1

What is the approximate diastolic blood pressure in the aorta?

A

80 mm Hg

311
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is responsible for the first heart sound of “lubb”?

A

Tricuspid valve closing

312
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is responsible for the second heart sound of “dupp”?

A

Both the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves closing

313
Q

Test 1

What is the cause of heart murmurs?

A

Faulty heart valves

314
Q

Test 1

An incompetent bicuspid valve causes

A

Pulmonary edema

315
Q

Test 1

The mean arterial pressure is determined by

A

MAP = CO X PR

316
Q

Test 1

The cardiac output is affected by all of the following EXCEPT

A

*Peripheral resistanceHeart rate Stroke volume All of the above affect the cardiac output

317
Q

Test 1

What is the law that states an increase in the resting length of a cardiac muscle fiber will result in agreater force of contraction of a cardiac muscle fiber?

A

Starling’s law of the heart

318
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following extrinsic factors decreases heart rate?

A

Parasympathetic stimulation

319
Q

Test 1

Blood pressure is monitored in the aorta by pressure receptors called

A

Baroreceptors

320
Q

Test 1

When blood pressure increases, which one of the following events occur?

A

Increased parasympathetic stimulation of heart with decreased heart rate

321
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following is increased when the adrenal glands release epinephrine andnorepinephrine?

A

Heart rate Stroke volume Blood pressure.*All of the above are increase with epinephrine and norepinephrine

322
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following chemicals has no effect on the heart rate?

A

Nitrogen

323
Q

Test 1

What is the effect of a significant decrease in oxygen on the heart?

A

Increased heart rate

324
Q

Test 1

What is the effect of increased oxygen on the heart?

A

No change in heart rate

325
Q

Test 1

What is the effect of increased carbon dioxide on the heart?

A

Increased heart rate

326
Q

Test 1

What is the effect of increased pH on the heart?

A

Decreased heart rate

327
Q

Test 1

What is the effect of decreased potassium ion on the heart?

A

Decreased heart rate

328
Q

Test 1

What is the effect of increased calcium ion on the heart?

A

Decreased heart rate

329
Q

Test 1

What is the effect of decreased temperature on the heart?

A

Decreased heart rate

330
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following is a change in the heart that is associated with age?

A

Hypertrophy of the heart

331
Q

Test 1

Which one of the following is a change in the heart that is associated with age?

A

Arrhythmias of the heart Decreased maximum heart rateDecreased cardiac output All of the above are seen in elderly people

332
Q

Test 1

The heart forms a partition with the trachea and esophagus called the mediastinum.

A

TRUE

333
Q

Test 1

The heart is the size of your closed fist.

A

TRUE

334
Q

Test 1

The base of the heart is the rounded point of the lower heart.

A

FALSE

335
Q

Test 1

The auricles are the primary receiving chambers of the heart.

A

FALSE

336
Q

Test 1

The pulmonary trunk divides into the left and right pulmonary veins and carries blood to thelungs.

A

FALSE

337
Q

Test 1

The atria are chambers that receive blood from the veins.

A

TRUE

338
Q

Test 1

The left and right ventricles are separated by the interatrial septum.

A

FALSE

339
Q

Test 1

The left atrioventricular valve is called the bicuspid or mitral valve.

A

TRUE

340
Q

Test 1

The heart is supplied with blood from the coronary sinuses

A

FALSE

341
Q

Test 1

The heart is supplied with blood from the blood that flows through it.

A

FALSE

342
Q

Test 1

Heart cells have specialized gap junctions between them called intercalated disks.

A

TRUE

343
Q

Test 1

Cardiac muscle contracts faster than skeletal muscle.

A

FALSE

344
Q

Test 1

The absolute refractory period is shorter in cardiac muscle than in skeletal muscle

A

FALSE

345
Q

Test 1

The heart can stimulate itself and contract at regular intervals which is called self-rhythmic.

A

FALSE

346
Q

Test 1

A heart rate over 100 beats per minute is called tachycardia.

A

TRUE

347
Q

Test 1

The electrical activity of the heart can be recorded in an EEG.

A

FALSE

348
Q

Test 1

The P wave of the ECG represents ventricular depolarization.

A

FALSE

349
Q

Test 1

Atrial diastole is the relaxation of the atria.

A

TRUE

350
Q

Test 1

During ventricular systole, the blood pressure in the ventricles decreases.

A

FALSE

351
Q

Test 1

The heart sounds are caused by the closure of heart valves.

A

TRUE

352
Q

Test 1

Stenosis is a swelling of a heart valve.

A

FALSE

353
Q

Test 1

A normal cardiac output is 25 L/min.

A

FALSE

354
Q

Test 1

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases heart rate and force of contraction

A

TRUE

355
Q

Test 1

Excitement, anger and anxiety will cause increased blood pressure.

A

TRUE

356
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood vessels which helps to maintain homeostasis?

A

A. Carry blood from the heart to the tissues and back to the heart B. Generate blood pressureC. Exchange nutrients, wastes and gases with the tissuesD. All of these are functions of blood vessels

357
Q

Test 1

Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?

A

Arteries

358
Q

Test 1

Which blood vessels allow the exchange of gases and nutrients between the blood and tissues?

A

Capillaries

359
Q

Test 1

Which blood vessels carry blood toward the heart?

A

Veins

360
Q

Test 1

The wall of a blood vessel is composed of three layers. Which of the following is NOT a layer of ablood vessel wall?

A

Tunica fibrosa

361
Q

Test 1

What is the name of the blood vessel layer that forms the inner surface of the blood vessel?

A

Tunica intima

362
Q

Test 1

What is the name of the blood vessel layer that contains smooth muscle fibers?

A

Tunica media

363
Q

Test 1

Which of the following types of arteries are large and recoil when stretched?

A

Elastic arteries

364
Q

Test 1

Which of the following arteries are distributing arteries?

A

Muscular arteries

365
Q

Test 1

Which of the following arteries delivers blood to the capillaries?

A

Arterioles

366
Q

Test 1

What is the name of the blood vessel that directly connects an arteriole to a venule?

A

Thoroughfare channel

367
Q

Test 1

What type of vein directly connects with capillaries?

A

Venule

368
Q

Test 1

Which of the following structures is ONLY found in veins?

A

A. Tunica adventitiaB. Chordae tendineaeC. EndotheliumD. None of the these are correct

369
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the flow of blood as blood moves from the heart to the tissues back to theheart?Arterioles Muscular arteries Capillaries Elastic arteries

A

4,2,1,3,6,5

370
Q

Test 1

What is the name of the age related change in arteries that cause the arteries to be less elastic?

A

Arteriosclerosis

371
Q

Test 1

What is the name of the age related change in arteries that is caused by the deposition of material inthe walls of arteries to form plaques?

A

Atherosclerosis

372
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the flow of blood from the heart through the pulmonary circulation?

A

Pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary capillaries, pulmonary veins

373
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the flow of blood from the heart through the systematic circulation?

A

Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

374
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a part of the aorta?

A

A. Aortic archB. Descending aorta C. Ascending aorta D. Transverse aorta

375
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a branch off of the aortic arch?

A

A. Left common carotid arteryB. Left subclavian artery C. Right subclavian artery D. Brachiocephalic artery

376
Q

Test 1

What major artery carries blood to the right side of the neck and head and right arm?

A

Branchiocephalic artery

377
Q

Test 1

Which of the following arteries is the artery that carries blood to right arm?

A

Right subclavian artery

378
Q

Test 1

What is the artery that carries blood to the left side of the brain?

A

Left internal carotid artery

379
Q

Test 1

What is the artery that carries blood to the spinal cord?

A

Vertebral artery

380
Q

Test 1

Which of the following disorders is a neurological disorder caused by a decreased blood supply to a part of the brain?

A

Stroke

381
Q

Test 1

What is the major artery in the armpit that carries blood to the upper arm?

A

Axillary artery

382
Q

Test 1

Which of the following arteries is the artery that is found in the upper arm?

A

Brachial artery

383
Q

Test 1

Which pair of the arteries is found in the forearm?

A

Ulnar and radial arteries

384
Q

Test 1

What artery carries blood to the fingers and thumb?

A

Digital artery

385
Q

Test 1

What arteries carry blood to the esophagus, trachea, pericardium and bronchioles of the lungs?

A

Visceral arteries

386
Q

Test 1

Which of the following arteries carries blood to the chest wall?

A

Anterior intercostal arteries

387
Q

Test 1

Which of the following pairs of arteries and supplied tissues is correctly matched?

A

A. Inferior mesenteric artery - small intestines and rectum B. Common hepatic artery - spleen, pancreas and stomach C. Renal artery - adrenal glandD. None of the above are correct

388
Q

Test 1

Which of the following pairs of arteries and supplied tissues is correctly matched?

A

**A. Superior mesenteric artery - cecum, ascending and transverse colon B. Gastric artery - spleen, pancreas and stomachC. Suprarenal artery - kidneyD. None of the above are correct

389
Q

Test 1

Which of the following pairs of arteries and supplied tissues is correctly matched?

A

A. Inferior phrenic artery - small intestinesB. Splenic artery - spleen, pancreas and stomach C. Lumbar artery - liver and gall bladderD. None of the above are correct

390
Q

Test 1

Which of the following pairs of arteries and supplied tissues is correctly matched?

A

A. Ovarian artery - testesB. Common hepatic artery - spleen, pancreas and stomach C. Renal artery - kidneyD. None of the above are correct

391
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT an artery of the pelvic region?

A

Popliteal artery

392
Q

Test 1

Which of the following pairs of arteries and supplied tissues is NOT correctly matched?

A

A. Internal iliac artery - urinary bladder, rectum, uterus and vaginaB. External iliac artery - lower limbC. Common iliac artery - inferior vertebraeD. None of the above is correct

393
Q

Test 1

What is the artery that supplies blood to the leg?

A

External iliac artery

394
Q

Test 1

Which of the following arteries is found in the thigh region?

A

Femoral artery

395
Q

Test 1

Which of the following arteries is found in the knee region?

A

Popliteal artery

396
Q

Test 1

Which of the following arteries is found in the toe region?

A

Digital artery

397
Q

Test 1

What is the vein that drains blood from the head, neck and upper limbs?

A

Superior vena cava

398
Q

Test 1

What is the vein that drains blood from the abdomen, pelvis and lower limbs?

A

Inferior vena cava

399
Q

Test 1

Which of the following veins drains blood from the anterior head, face and neck?

A

Internal jugular vein

400
Q

Test 1

Which of the following major veins is formed from the joining of the subclavian veins?

A

Brachiocephalic vein

401
Q

Test 1

Which of the following veins drains blood from the posterior head and neck?

A

External jugular vein

402
Q

Test 1

Which of the following veins drains blood from the upper limbs?

A

Both the cephalic and basilic veins

403
Q

Test 1

Which of the following major veins receives blood from the axillary vein?

A

Subclavian vein

404
Q

Test 1

Which of the following veins is used to draw blood from at the elbow?

A

Median cubital vein

405
Q

Test 1

What vein drains blood from the fingers and thumb?

A

Digital vein

406
Q

Test 1

Which of the following veins receives blood from the radial and ulnar veins?

A

Brachial vein

407
Q

Test 1

Which of the following veins empties its blood directly into the superior vena cava?

A

Azygos vein

408
Q

Test 1

What is the vein that drains blood from the anterior thoracic wall?

A

A. Posterior intercostal veinB. Hemiazygos or accessory hemiazygos vein C. Subclavian veinD. None of the above are correct

409
Q

Test 1

Which of the following veins drains blood from the pelvis, pelvic organs and external genitalia?

A

Internal iliac vein

410
Q

Test 1

Which of the following major veins drains blood from the stomach, intestines and spleen?

A

Hepatic portal vein

411
Q

Test 1

What is the vein that drains blood from the small intestine?

A

Superior mesenteric vein

412
Q

Test 1

What is the vein that drains blood from the descending and transverse colon and rectum?

A

Inferior mesenteric vein

413
Q

Test 1

What is the vein that drains blood from the stomach?

A

Gastric vein

414
Q

Test 1

Which of the following veins is NOT a vein of the leg?

A

A. Greater saphenous vein**B. Lumbar vein C. Popliteal vein D. Femoral vein

415
Q

Test 1

Which of the following veins is the longest vein in the body that ascends along the medial side of the leg?

A

Greater saphenous vein

416
Q

Test 1

What is the measure of the force that the blood exerts against the wall of a blood vessel?

A

Blood pressure

417
Q

Test 1

What is the blood pressure that occurs when the ventricles are contracting?

A

Systolic pressure

418
Q

Test 1

Which of the following instruments is used to measure blood pressure?

A

Sphygmomanometer

419
Q

Test 1

What are the sounds that are heard in the artery when a blood pressure reading is determined?

A

Korotkoff sounds

420
Q

Test 1

What are the two factors of the blood that determine blood flow?

A

Resistance and pressure

421
Q

Test 1

Which of the following factors influences resistance to blood flow in the arteries?

A

A. Diameter of blood vessel B. Viscosity of bloodC. Length of blood vesselD. All of the above are correct

422
Q

Test 1

Which of the following events would cause a decrease in blood flow?

A

Increased viscosity of blood

423
Q

Test 1

Which of the following equations describes the mean arterial blood pressure (MAP)?

A

MAP = CO X PR

424
Q

Test 1

What is it called when the sympathetic stimulation keeps the arteries in a constant state of partialconstriction?

A

Vasomotor tone

425
Q

Test 1

What is the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressures called?

A

Pulse pressure

426
Q

Test 1

What are the two factors that determine pulse pressure?

A

Stroke volume and vascular compliance

427
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is a major pulse point on the body?

A

A. Common carotid arteryB. Radial arteryC. Femoral arteryD. All of the above are major pulse points

428
Q

Test 1

Which pair of processes is responsible for the exchange of substances between the blood and interstitial fluid of the tissues?

A

Diffusion and filtration

429
Q

Test 1

Which pair of processes is responsible for the exchange of fluids across the walls of capillaries?

A

Blood pressure and osmosis

430
Q

Test 1

Which of the following local control mechanisms would increase blood flow to the tissues?

A

Arterioles vasodilate and precapillary sphincters relax

431
Q

Test 1

Stimulation from which of the following nervous system areas will directly cause vasomotor tone?

A

Vasomotor center of the medulla

432
Q

Test 1

What is the effect of sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels?

A

Most blood vessel vasoconstrict and muscle and heart blood vessels vasodilate

433
Q

Test 1

Which type of blood vessel is a storage area or reservoir for blood?

A

Veins

434
Q

Test 1

Which of the following factors effects venous return?

A

A. Vasoconstriction and vasodilationB. Blood volumeC. Valves in the veins and the skeletal muscle pumpD. All of the above effect venous return

435
Q

Test 1

Which of the following does NOT effect the mean arterial pressure?

A

Blood flow

436
Q

Test 1

Which of the following sensory receptors detects changes in arterial stretch?

A

Baroreceptors

437
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the effect of epinephrine released from the adrenal medulla?

A

Vasodilation in the skeletal and cardiac muscles and vasoconstriction in skin and kidneys

438
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a chemical that is detected by chemoreceptors that effects bloodpressure?

A

Sodium

439
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a structure where chemoreceptors are located that effect bloodpressure?

A

A. Jugular veinsB. Medulla oblongata C. Aortic bodiesD. Carotid bodies

440
Q

Test 1

An drop in oxygen results in a(n)

A

Increased blood pressure

441
Q

Test 1

An drop in carbon dioxide results in a(n)

A

Decreased blood pressure

442
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is released by the kidneys in response to decreased blood pressure?

A

Renin

443
Q

Test 1

All of the following are effects of the release of renin by the kidney because of low blood pressureEXCEPT

A

A. Conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin I B. Release of TSHC. Release of aldosteroneD. All of the above are correct

444
Q

Test 1

Angiotensin II is a powerful

A

Vasoconstriction

445
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is an effect of aldosterone?

A

A. Conserving sodium ion and water by kidneysB. Increased blood volumeC. Decreased urine volumeD. All of the above are caused by aldosterone

446
Q

Test 1

Vasopressin is considered to be a/an

A

Both a vasoconstrictor and diuretic

447
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is an effect of the release of atrial natriuretic hormone by the heart?

A

Increased loss of water in urine

448
Q

Test 1

Which of the following mechanisms causes a decrease in blood pressure?

A

Atrial natriuretic mechanism

449
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a change in the cardiovascular system associated with exercise?

A

Increased peripheral resistance

450
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a change in the cardiovascular system associated with shock?

A

A. Increased vasoconstrictionB. Increased heart rateC. Increased blood volumeD. All of the above are changes associated with shock

451
Q

Test 1

Veins carry blood towards the heart.

A

TRUE

452
Q

Test 1

The tunica adventitia is the inner most layer of the wall of the blood vessel.

A

TRUE

453
Q

Test 1

Arteries are thin walled and conduct blood under low pressure.

A

FALSE

454
Q

Test 1

Arterioles are the small arteries that carry blood to the capillaries.

A

TRUE

455
Q

Test 1

Relaxation of the smooth muscle fibers in muscular arteries causes vasoconstriction of the artery.

A

FALSE

456
Q

Test 1

Capillaries are composed of several layers of simple squamous epithelium.

A

FALSE

457
Q

Test 1

The precapillary sphincter controls the flow of blood into the capillary beds.

A

TRUE

458
Q

Test 1

Veins are the only blood vessel that contain valves.

A

TRUE

459
Q

Test 1

Varicose veins are veins that are permanently dilated with blood due to failure of their valves.

A

TRUE

460
Q

Test 1

All arteries originate from the aorta.

A

TRUE

461
Q

Test 1

The ascending aorta is divided into the thoracic and abdominal aorta.

A

FALSE

462
Q

Test 1

The coronary arteries send blood to the heart.

A

TRUE

463
Q

Test 1

The brachial artery is found in the forearm.

A

FALSE

464
Q

Test 1

The superior phrenic arteries carry blood to the diaphragm.

A

TRUE

465
Q

Test 1

The superior mesenteric artery is an unpaired artery.

A

TRUE

466
Q

Test 1

The lateral and medial plantar arteries supply blood to the foot.

A

TRUE

467
Q

Test 1

The coronary arteries drain blood from the heart.

A

FALSE

468
Q

Test 1

Blood from the palm of the hand is drained into the digital veins.

A

FALSE

469
Q

Test 1

The splenic vein drains blood from the pancreas.

A

FALSE

470
Q

Test 1

The diastolic pressure occurs when the ventricles are relaxed.

A

TRUE

471
Q

Test 1

The viscosity of the blood can be influenced by the hemoglobin concentration of the red bloodcells

A

FALSE

472
Q

Test 1

The systolic and diastolic blood pressure remains the same throughout the vascular system.

A

FALSE

473
Q

Test 1

Arteriosclerosis decreases vascular compliance.

A

TRUE

474
Q

Test 1

Gravity decreases blood pressure in the arteries of the legs.

A

FALSE

475
Q

Test 1

When Joe started to do weight training, his muscles became larger and the number of capillaries in his skeletal muscles decreased.

A

FALSE

476
Q

Test 1

After a meal, Frank’s muscular arteries and arterioles to his stomach vasodilated. 

A

TRUE

477
Q

Test 1

Peripheral resistance effects the mean arterial pressure.

A

TRUE

478
Q

Test 1

Decreased stimulation of the baroreceptors will result in a decrease in blood pressure.

A

FALSE

479
Q

Test 1

The release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla causes a sudden increase in blood pressure.

A

TRUE

480
Q

Test 1

An increase in blood carbon dioxide levels causes a decrease in blood pressure.

A

FALSE

481
Q

Test 1

An increase in blood pressure causes the release of renin from the kidneys.

A

FALSE

482
Q

Test 1

Vasopressin release causes an increase in blood pressure.

A

TRUE

483
Q

Test 1

Atrial natriuretic hormone causes an increase in blood pressure.

A

FALSE

484
Q

Test 1

Increased blood pressure causes the movement of fluid out of the interstitial fluid into the blood.

A

FALSE

485
Q

Test 1

LOVE YOU GUYS!!

A

KRISSY <3

486
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood which helps to maintain homeostasis?

A

A. Transport of hormones and enzymesB. Regulate pHC. Synthesis of Vitamin DD. Clot formation

487
Q

Test 1

Blood is composed of

A

Formed elements and plasma

488
Q

Test 1

Formed elements make up _____________of the blood.

A

45%

489
Q

Test 1

The most abundant substance in blood is

A

Water

490
Q

Test 1

What protein is foundinthe plasma?

A

Albumin

491
Q

Test 1

Antibodies are a class of this type of blood protein.

A

Globulin

492
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is NOT an example of a formed element

A

A.PlasmaB. Red blood cellC. Platelet D. White bloodcell

493
Q

Test 1

Which of the following is the most numerous formed element

A

Red blood cell

494
Q

Test 1

Which formed element is involved with immunity?

A

Leukocyte

495
Q

Test 1

Which formed element transports oxygen and carbondioxide?

A

Erythrocyte

496
Q

Test 1

Which formed element is a cell fragment?

A

Thrombocyte

497
Q

Test 1

The process of blood cell production is called

A

Hematopoiesis

498
Q

Test 1

In adults blood cell formationoccurs in the

A

Red bone marrow

499
Q

Test 1

The stem cells of all formed elements is the

A

Hemocytoblast

500
Q

Test 1

The development of each blood cell line is regulated by

A

Growthfactors

BIO 225 (1 decks)

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