seeley_s_anp_20140910063945 Flashcards by Buck Waters

Test 1

Receptors for odorants are

Olfactory hairs

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Test 1

What must be true in order to detect an odor?

A. The odorant must dissolve in mucus of the nasal cavityB. The dissolved odorant binds to receptors on olfactory hairsC. A G protein is activated when an odorant binds to its receptor which opens sodium and calciumgatesD. All of the choices are true

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Test 1

What ion channels are opened to produce an action potential in olfactory neurons?

Calcium and sodium

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Test 1

Which of the following is NOT true of olfactory neurons?

They are located just inside the nasal cavity

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Test 1

Which of the following is NOT one of the seven primary odors?

Salty

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Test 1

What is the function of basal cells in the olfactory epithelium?

Regenerate the olfactory epithelium and neurons

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Test 1

Odors can produce strong emotional reactions and memories because the olfactory cortex is part ofthe

Limbic system

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Test 1

Taste buds are located on structures called

Papillae

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Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a specialized epithelial cell found in taste buds?

A. Chorda tympaniB. Taste cellsC. Basal cellsD. Supporting cells10.

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Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a primary taste?

A. UmamiB. SweetC. SourD. PeppermintyE. Bitter

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Test 1

Which primary odor serves to protect from poisons?

Bitter

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Test 1

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry taste impulses to the brain?

Hypoglossal nerve

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Test 1

Which of the following is the correct sequence in the taste neural pathway?

Medulla oblongata, thalamus, parietal lobe

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Test 1

Which accessory structure of the eyes protect the eyes by preventing perspiration from getting into theeyes?

Eyebrows

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Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a function of the eyelids?

A. A barrier to microorganismsB. Protects the eyes from foreign objectsC. Lubricates the eyesD. Regulate the amount of light entering the eyes

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Test 1

The blockage of a ciliary gland of the eyelashes is called a/an

Sty

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Test 1

What membrane covers the inside of the eyelid and the anterior white surface of the eye?

Conjunctiva

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Test 1

What structure produces tears?

Lacrimal apparatus

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Test 1

Which of the following is NOT a component of tears?

A. WaterB. SaltC. LysozymeD. Sebum

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Test 1

What is the function of lysozyme in the eyes?

Killing bacteria

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Test 1

Which of the following is NOT an extrinsic eye muscle?

A. Superior rectus muscleB. Orbicularis oculi muscleC. Inferior oblique muscleD. Lateral rectus muscle

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Test 1

The clinical test for normal eye movement is the

H test

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Test 1

Which muscle causes the eye to abduct?

Lateral rectus

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Test 1

Which cranial nerve serves four of the six extrinsic eye muscles?

Oculomotor

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# Test 1 Which eye layer and its components is matched correctly?

Nervous layer - retina

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a function of the sclera?

Absorbs light

# Test 1 The most anterior portion of the sclera is the

Cornea

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the cornea?

Vascular

# Test 1 What structure is responsible for most of the refraction of light entering the eye?

Cornea

# Test 1 What is the function of the choroid of the eye?

Absorbs light

# Test 1 What structures are attached to the lens to change its shape to focus light?

Suspensory ligaments

# Test 1 What is the function of the iris?

Control the size of the pupil

# Test 1 The area of the retina that contains the highest amount of photoreceptors is the

Fovea centralis

# Test 1 What area of the retina contains the least amount of photoreceptors?

Optic disc

# Test 1 What is found in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye?

Aqueous humor

# Test 1 A build-up of aqueous humor will increase intraocular pressure and cause

Glaucoma

# Test 1 What is found in the vitreous chamber of the eye?

Vitreous humor

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a function of vitreous humor?

A. Holds the lens and retina in placeB. Maintains the shape of the eyeC. Refracts lightD. All of the choices are correct***

# Test 1 The part of the electromagnetic spectrum that can be detected by the human eye is

Visible light

# Test 1 The process of bending light rays is called

Refraction

# Test 1 Causing light rays to converge at a point is called

Focusing

# Test 1 Which is the proper order of the focusing system of the eye?

Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

# Test 1 Fine adjustments to the refraction of light for focusing is performed by the

Lens

# Test 1 Increasing the curvature of the lens will _____ the refraction.

Increase

# Test 1 What is the distance that differentiates between far vision and near vision?

20 feet

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT part of the process used to focus light on the retina for near vision?

A. Pupil constrictionB. AccommodationC. Reflection***D. Convergence

# Test 1 The normal resting condition of the lens for far vision is called

Emmetrop

# Test 1 rocess of adjusting the thickness of the lens for near vision is called

Accommodation

# Test 1 The point at which the lens can not adjust to close objects is called the

Near point of vision

# Test 1 Depth of focus increases by

Constricting the pupil

# Test 1 The rotation of the eyes medially to view a close object is called

Convergence

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT part of the neural layer of the retina?

Pigment cells

# Test 1 Which photoreceptors are responsible for low-light and noncolor vision?

Rods

# Test 1 What is the first event that results in vision in rods?

Light causes retinal to change shape

# Test 1 The adjustment of the eyes when going from a lighted area to a dark area is called

Dark adaptation

# Test 1 What conditions are needed for cones to work properly?

Bright light

# Test 1 What visual pigment is found combined with opsin in cones?

Iodopsin

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a type of cone?

A. BlueB. Yellow ***C. RedD. Green

# Test 1 What area of the retina has an abundance of cones and no rods?

Fovea centralis

# Test 1 Visual acuity is enhanced with cones because

One cone synapses with one bipolar cell which synapses with one ganglion cell

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT an interneuron of the retina?

Ganglion cells

# Test 1 What is the role of interneurons in the inner retina?

Help distinguish boundary differences between objects

# Test 1 Which axons from the retina cross in the optic chiasm?

Nasal fields

# Test 1 The optic radiations on the right side contain images from the

Nasal field of the right eye and temporal field of the left eye

# Test 1 The ability to perceive depth and judge distance is due to

Binocular vision

# Test 1 A lesion in the optic chiasm would result in loss of vision from the

Temporal fields of both eyes

# Test 1 Which eye disorder results in clear vision of close objects and blurry vision of distant objects?

Myopia

# Test 1 The result of myopia is an image focused

In front of the retina

# Test 1 Myopia can be corrected with a

Concave lens

# Test 1 Which eye disorder results in clear vision of distant objects and blurry vision of near objects?

Hyperopia

# Test 1 The result of hyperopia is an image focused

Behind the retina

# Test 1 Hyperopia can be corrected with

Convex lens

# Test 1 The effect of aging on the accommodation ability of the lens is called

Presbyopia

# Test 1 Astigmatism is caused by

Irregular cornea or lens

# Test 1 Strabismus may be caused by

Weak eye muscles

# Test 1 The decreased ability to function in dim light is called

Nyctalopia

# Test 1 An excessive buildup of aqueous humor that increases intraocular pressure is

Glaucoma

# Test 1 The clouding of the lens as a result of protein buildup is called

Cataracts

# Test 1 The loss of visual acuity in older persons is called

Macular degeneration

# Test 1 What structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear?

Tympanic membrane

# Test 1 What is the function of the auricle of the ear?

Collects and directs sound waves

# Test 1 What structure transmits collected sound waves to the tympanic membrane?

External acoustic meatus

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT an auditory ossicle?

A. IncusB. Cochlea ****C. StapesD. Malleus

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT an opening into/out of the middle ear?

Vestibule

# Test 1 What is the function of the auditory tube?

Equalizes pressure on tympanic membrane in the middle ear

# Test 1 Which auditory ossicle is connected to the inner ear at the oval window?

Stapes

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT part of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear?

A. Chorda tympani ****B. VestibuleC. CochleaD. Semicircular canals

# Test 1 What fluid fills the membranous labyrinth?

Endolymph

# Test 1 What is found in the space between the bony and membranous labyrinths?

Perilymph

# Test 1 Which part of the inner ear is involved with sound?

Cochlea

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a division of the cochlea?

Scala basili

# Test 1 What is the actual organ of hearing?

Organ of Corti or spiral organ

# Test 1 Which cochlear chamber is connected to the oval window into the middle ear?

Scala vestibuli

# Test 1 What is found between the vestibular membrane and the basilar membrane of the cochlea?

Cochlear duct

# Test 1 The specialized cell extensions of hair cells that will stimulate neurons for hearing are called

Stereocilia

# Test 1 The longest stereocilia of the outer hair cells are embedded in the

Tectorial membrane

# Test 1 Which event occurs first when the stereocilia bend toward the longest stereocilium?

The gating spring in the tip link between stereocilia to stretch

# Test 1 What ion causes depolarization of hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti?

Potassium

# Test 1 What neurotransmitter is used by hair cells of the spiral organ of Corti?

Glutamate

# Test 1 The resonance quality or overtones of a sound is called

Timbre

# Test 1 What occurs to sound waves as they are transmitted by the auditory ossicles?

Amplifies the sound

# Test 1 Sounds with a higher pitch will maximally distort the basilar membrane

Nearest the oval window

# Test 1 What is the function of the round window?

Stops the sound waves from reflecting back toward the cochlear canal

# Test 1 Which of the following would be the correct sequence in the propagation of sound waves through theear?

tympanic membrane; 1. tympanic; 2. incus; 3. auricle; 4. perilymph of scala vestibuli; 5. externalacoustic meatus; 6. malleus; 7. round window; 8. endolymph of cochlear canal; 9. stapes; 10. basilarmembrane; 11. stereocilia of spiral organ; 12. perilymph of scala tympani; 13. oval windowA. 3, 5, 1, 2, 6, 9, 7, 4, 8, 11, 10, 12, 13(((B. 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 9, 13, 4, 8, 10, 11, 12, 7)))C. 5, 1, 9, 3, 2, 6, 12, 7, 13, 11, 10, 8, 4D. None of the choices are correct

# Test 1 What cranial nerve carries the impulses for hearing to the auditory cortex?

Vestibulocochlear

# Test 1 Which brain structure is NOT involved in neuronal pathways for hearing?

Basal nuclei

# Test 1 Static balance is associated with the

Vestibule

# Test 1 What structures are involved with static balance?

Both the utricle and saccule

# Test 1 The structure of the macula includes

A. StereociliaB. KinociliumC. Otoliths in the otolithic membraneD. All of the choices are correct ******

# Test 1 What ion produces depolarization in the stereocilia of the macula?

Potassium

# Test 1 Where are the ear stones found?

Macula

# Test 1 What structure is associated with dynamic balance?

Ampulla of the semicircular canals

# Test 1 How does the crista ampullaris respond to rotational movements?

Endolymph bends the cupula that bends the stereocilia

# Test 1 Which of the following nervous system parts is NOT involved with balance?

A. Medulla oblongataB. Auditory cortex ****C. CerebellumD. Eyes

# Test 1 The most common visual problem of older persons that requires medical treatment is

Cataracts

# Test 1 Olfaction occurs in response to odorants entering the oral cavity.

# Test 1 The olfactory epithelium along with the olfactory neurons are replaced about every two month

# Test 1 Olfaction is a very adaptive sense.

# Test 1 Taste hairs are specialized microvilli of taste cells found in taste buds.

# Test 1 Depolarization of taste hairs requires that the tastants be dissolved in saliva and enter the tastepores.

# Test 1 Taste is not related at all to smell.

# Test 1 The meibomian glands of the eyelashes produce sebum that keeps tears from flowing over the edge ofthe eyelids.

# Test 1 Pinkeye is also known as acute contagious conjunctivitis.

# Test 1 Excess tears flow through lacrimal canaliculi into the oral cavity.

# Test 1 A high amount of water in the cornea allows it to better transmit light.

# Test 1 The sphincter pupillae muscles respond to sympathetic stimulation, while the dilator pupillae respondto parasympathetic stimulation.

# Test 1 The color of the iris is due to genetic determined amounts of melanin.

# Test 1 Another name for the optic disc is the blind spot.

# Test 1 The lens is a biconcave disk that is avascular and transparent.

# Test 1 If a lens is convex and thickest in the middle, light rays will converge.

# Test 1 The image projected onto the retina is inverted.

# Test 1 The lens should be relatively flat and thin for near vision.

# Test 1 When the ciliary muscle contracts, the lens will become more rounded.

# Test 1 The near point of vision gradually shortens as we get older.

# Test 1 The light rays pass through the retina to reach the photoreceptors deep in the retina while the actionpotential travels toward the surface of the retina.

# Test 1 The rods and cones face the vitreous chamber of the eye.

# Test 1 The majority of the retina contains more rods and cones.

# Test 1 The temporal part of the left visual field is projected onto the nasal portion of the retina of the lefteye.

# Test 1 The middle ear is a fluid-filled cavity containing the auditory ossicles.

# Test 1 The specialized cells of the organ of Corti involved in hearing are called hair cells.

# Test 1 The outer hair cells of the organ of Corti are most involved with hearing.

# Test 1 Static balance is concerned with the position of the head relative to gravity and linear acceleration anddeceleration.

# Test 1 Moving the head backward to look up into the sky would cause the stereocilia of the macula to bendtoward the kinocilium and change the position of the otoliths in the otolithic membrane.

# Test 1 Age-related hearing loss is called presbyopia.

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood which helps to maintain homeostasis?

A. Transport of hormones and enzymesB. Regulate pH**C. Synthesis of Vitamin D**D. Clot formation

# Test 1 Blood is composed of

Formed elements and plasma

# Test 1 Formed elements make up _____________of the blood.

45%

# Test 1 The most abundant substance in blood is

Water

# Test 1 What protein is foundinthe plasma?

Albumin

# Test 1 Antibodies are a class of this type of blood protein.

Globulin

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT an example of a formed element

**A.Plasma**B. Red blood cellC. Platelet D. White bloodcell

# Test 1 Which of the following is the most numerous formed element

Red blood cell

# Test 1 Which formed element is involved with immunity?

Leukocyte

# Test 1 Which formed element transports oxygen and carbondioxide?

Erythrocyte

# Test 1 Which formed element is a cell fragment?

Thrombocyte

# Test 1 The process of blood cell production is called

Hematopoiesis

# Test 1 In adults blood cell formationoccurs in the

Red bone marrow

# Test 1 The stem cells of all formed elements is the

Hemocytoblast

# Test 1 The development of each blood cell line is regulated by

Growthfactors

# Test 1 Growthfactors for regeneration of red bone marrow are used to counter the effects of

Chemotherapy incancer treatmen

# Test 1 A myeloblast differentiates into

A. Neutrophils B.Eosinophils C. Basophils **D.All of the above are correct**

# Test 1 Red blood cells are

Biconcave

# Test 1 Red blood cells live for approximately

120days

# Test 1 One-third of the volume of the red blood cell is composed of what red pigmented protein?

Hemoglobin

# Test 1 Hemoglobin is composed of

Both four polypeptides and four heme groups

# Test 1 The heme group inred bloodcells contain this metal.

Iron

# Test 1 Hemoglobin combines with __________and appears bright red in color.

Oxygen

# Test 1 Red blood cells transport carbon dioxide boundtothe

Amino groups of the globin molecule

# Test 1 What percent of the oxygen is transported in the bodybyred blood cells?

98.5%

# Test 1 What percent of the carbondioxide is transported in the bodybyred bloodcells?

23%

# Test 1 In the red blood cells, carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid which dissociates into hydrogen and bicarbonate ions. What enzyme is responsible for this reaction

Carbonic anhydrase

# Test 1 This cell is the product of erythropoiesis and is released into the blood as an immature red blood cell

Reticulocyte

# Test 1 Proerythroblasts differentiate into

Red blood cells

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT required for normal red blood cell production bythe bone marrow?

A. Iron B. Folate C. Vitamin B12 **D.All of the above are needed for normal red blood cell production**

# Test 1 In response to low oxygen levels in the blood, the kidneys will release this glycoprotein

Erythropoietin

# Test 1 Old,abnormal or damaged red blood cells are removed from the bloodbymacrophages of which of the following organs?

Liver and spleen

# Test 1 Old heme molecules are removed from the body in the form of

Bile pigments in the feces

# Test 1 This formed element has a nucleus.

Leukocyte

# Test 1 Leukocytes lack

A. A nucleus B. Organelles C. Cytoplasm **D.Hemoglobin**

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT an example of a white bloodcell?

A. Lymphocyte **B.Thrombocyte** C.Neutrophil D.Monocyte

# Test 1 Which of these leukocytes is an agranulocyte?

Monocyte

# Test 1 This white blood cell phagocytizes microorganisms and becomes a macrophage in the tissue.

Monocyte

# Test 1 This leukocyte is an example of a granulocyte.

Basophil

# Test 1 This white blood cell phagocytizes microorganisms.

Neutrophil

# Test 1 This is the accumulation of dead neutrophils, cell debris and fluid.

Pus

# Test 1 Which leukocyte has large granules that stain blue-purple?

Basophil

# Test 1 This leukocyte releases histamine and heparin.

Basophil

# Test 1 This leukocyte has granules that stain orange-red or bright red.

Eosinophil

# Test 1 This white blood cell attacks worm parasites.

Eosinophil

# Test 1 This leukocyte produces antibodies.

Lymphocyte

# Test 1 The precursor cells of platelets are the

Megakaryocytes

# Test 1 Which cell fragment is important in preventing blood loss?

Thrombocyte

# Test 1 Which of the following is involved in preventing blood loss?

A. Vascular spasmB. Platelet plugC. Blood clotting**D. All of the above are involved in preventing blood loss**

# Test 1 Vascular spasm is a temporary change in the blood vessel which causes

Constriction

# Test 1 Vascular spasm can be caused by the release of ____________ from the platelets.

Thromboxane

# Test 1 Platelet plug is associated with

Platelet adhesion

# Test 1 What will stop blood loss from small tears in the blood vessels?

Platelet plugs

# Test 1 Aspirin inhibit the synthesis of

Thromboxane

# Test 1 When a blood vessel has a large tear and is severely damaged, which one of the following mechanisms is activated?

Blood clotting or coagulation

# Test 1 What structure contains a network of fibrin fiber that trap blood cells, platelets and fluid?

Blood clot

# Test 1 Blood clotting requires the presence of these proteins in the blood.

Clotting factors

# Test 1 Damage to the tissue may activate this pathway of blood clotting.

Extrinsic pathway

# Test 1 Damage to a blood vessel may activate this pathway of blood clotting.

Damage to a blood vessel may activate this pathway of blood clotting.

# Test 1 This pathway of blood clotting involves factor X, factor V, platelet phospholipids and Ca2+.

Common pathway

# Test 1 The formation of a blood clot is dependent on the synthesis of

Fibrin

# Test 1 Blood clotting requires

A. ThrombinB. FibrinogenC. Fibrin**D. All of the above are required for blood clotting**

# Test 1 The human body produces a number of anticoagulants. Which one of the following is an anticoagulant?

Heparin

# Test 1 An attached blood clot that forms inside of a blood vessel due to damaged blood vessel or heart wall iscalled a/an

Thrombus

# Test 1 A floating blood clot that breaks loose from inside a blood vessel is called a/an

Embolus

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT an anticoagulant used to treat blood clots?

A. HeparinB. Coumadin**C. Warfarin**D. All of the following are anticoagulants

# Test 1 The contracting of a blood clot after it formation is called

Clot retraction

# Test 1 The squeezing out of plasma without the clotting factor during clot retraction results in the formationof a liquid called

Serum

# Test 1 The dissolving of a blood clot after it forms is called

Fibrolysis

# Test 1 Which enzyme dissolves a blood clot?

Plasmin

# Test 1 A treatment for blood loss is

Both transfusions and infusions can be used to treat blood loss

# Test 1 A transfusion reaction is the result of

A. Antigen and antibody reactionsB. AgglutinationC. Hemolysis**D. All of the above cause a transfusion reaction**

# Test 1 Which of the following is the antigen that is found on the surface of RBCs with blood type B?

B antigen

# Test 1 Which of the following is the antibody that is found in the plasma of blood type AB?

Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

# Test 1 Which of the following is the antibody that is found in the plasma of blood type A?

Anti-B antibody

# Test 1 A person with blood type A can receive a transfusion with this type of blood.

Either A or O blood types

# Test 1 A person with blood type O can receive a transfusion with this type of blood.

O blood type

# Test 1 A person who is AB negative is

Type AB and Rh-negative

# Test 1 When an Rh-negative mother has a second Rh-positive fetus, the fetus may develop this condition.

Erythroblastosis fetalis

# Test 1 Hemolytic disease of the newborn can be prevented by giving an Rh-negative mother what type ofantibody injection?

RhoGAM

# Test 1 To prevent transfusion reaction, the donor's and recipient's blood must be

Crossmatched

# Test 1 his is a condition that is associated with decreased hemoglobin or RBCs or both.

Anemia

# Test 1 A red blood cell count can be used to determine

Both erythrocytosis and anemia

# Test 1 Anemia can be caused by a deficiency in one of the following substances?

A. IronB. FolateC. Vitamin B12**D. All of the above are correct**

# Test 1 This test is the measure of the percentage of the total blood volume that is RBCs.

Hematocrit

# Test 1 Which of the following conditions is caused by a decrease in WBCs.

Leukopenia

# Test 1 This is cancer of white blood cells.

Leukemia

# Test 1 Which of the following bleeding conditions is caused by a decrease in platelets.

Thrombocytopenia

# Test 1 Blood is a type of epithelial tissue.

FALSE

# Test 1 Serum is plasma without clotting factors.

TRUE

# Test 1 The formed elements are erythrocytes, leukocytes and thrombocytes.

TRUE

# Test 1 Hematopoiesis is stimulated by platelet release of erythropoietin.

FALSE

# Test 1 Monoblasts differentiate into monocytes.

TRUE

# Test 1 During differentiation red blood cell lose their nucleus and most of their organelles.

TRUE

# Test 1 When hemoglobin loses oxygen, blood appears dark red.

TRUE

# Test 1 The production of red blood cells is called leukopoiesis.

FALSE

# Test 1 The blood marrow requires 40 days to produce a single red blood cell.

FALSE

# Test 1 The bone marrow will increase red blood cell production in response to high blood oxygen levels.

FALSE

# Test 1 ncreased destruction of red blood cells can lead to a yellowish staining of the skin called jaundice.

TRUE

# Test 1 Eosinophils release histamine and heparin.

FALSE

# Test 1 Lymphocytes are phagocytes.

FALSE

# Test 1 Monocytes are a form of agranulocytes.

TRUE

# Test 1 Blood clotting is caused by megakaryocytes.

FALSE

# Test 1 Endothelin causes vascular spasms.

TRUE

# Test 1 Blood clots are formed from fibrin.

TRUE

# Test 1 When damaged tissue releases thromboplastin, this will activate the intrinsic pathway of bloodclotting.

FALSE

# Test 1 Both streptokinase and t-PA are used to treat heart attacks by dissolving blood clots.

TRUE

# Test 1 Hemolysis is the rupture of red blood cells.

TRUE

# Test 1 A person with blood type O has no anti-A or anti-B antibodies.

FALSE

# Test 1 The largest percentage of people are of blood type AB.

FALSE

# Test 1 A person with blood type AB can receive any blood type.

TRUE

# Test 1 A person with AB blood type is called a universal donor.

FALSE

# Test 1 A complete blood count (CBC) consists of a red and white blood cell counts, analysis of hemoglobin and hematocrit and a differential white blood cell count.

TRUE

# Test 1 Hemophilia is a genetic disease that cause abnormal or the loss of blood clotting.

TRUE

# Test 1 Prothrombin time is a measure of how long it takes for blood to start to clot.

TRUE

# Test 1 In response to low oxygen levels in the blood, the kidneys will release this glycoprotein.

Erythropoietin

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a function of the heart which helps to maintain homeostasis?

Routing bloodGenerating blood pressureRegulating blood supply***All of these are functions of the heart***

# Test 1 The heart is located in the

Thoracic cavity between the lungs

# Test 1 The heart is surrounded by this sac

Pericardium

# Test 1 What membrane covers the surface of the heart?

Visceral pericardium

# Test 1 The heart wall is composed of three layers. Which of the following is NOT a layer of the heart wall?

Intercardium

# Test 1 What is the name of the heart wall layer that forms the inner surface of the heart chamber?

Endocardium

# Test 1 What are the muscular ridges that are found in the atria of the heart?

Pectinate muscles

# Test 1 The heart consists of

Two atria and two ventricles

# Test 1 What are the veins that carry blood to the heart?

Pulmonary veins Inferior vena cava Superior vena cava **All of these veins carry blood to the heart**

# Test 1 What are the two arteries that carry blood away from the heart?

Pulmonary trunk and aorta

# Test 1 The right atrium receives blood from which of the following veins?

Superior vena cava Inferior vena cava Coronary sinus** All of these veins carry blood to the right atrium**

# Test 1 What are the blood vessels that carry blood to the left atrium?

Pulmonary veins

# Test 1 Which one of the following is a depression in the right atrium that was the former opening betweenthe left and right atria of the fetal heart?

Fossa ovalis

# Test 1 The left ventricle pumps blood into the

Aorta

# Test 1 What is the function of heart valves?

To prevent backflow of blood and ensure one-way flow of blood in the heart

# Test 1 Which of the following are heart valves?

Both the atrioventricular and semilunar valves

# Test 1 What is the name of the right atrioventricular valve?

Tricuspid valve

# Test 1 What is the name of the cone-shaped muscular pillars in the ventricles?

Papillary muscles

# Test 1 What are the string-like structures that attach the atrioventricular valves to the heart wall?

Chordae tendineae

# Test 1 Which semilunar valve separates the left ventricle and the aorta?

Aortic semilunar valve

# Test 1 When the ventricles contract

The atrioventicular valves close and the semilunar valves open

# Test 1 Which of the following is the correct flow of blood as blood moves from the body, through the heart,to the lungs?1. Pulmonary semilunar valve2. Pulmonary trunk3. Right atrium4. Right ventricle5. Superior and inferior vena cava6. Tricuspid valve

5,3,6,4,1,2

# Test 1 Which of the following is the correct flow of blood as blood moves from the lungs, through the heart,to the body?1. Aortic semilunar valve2. Aorta3. Bicuspid valve4. Left atrium5. Left ventricle6. Pulmonary veins

6,4,3,5,1,2

# Test 1 What two arteries do the left coronary artery branch into?

Anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries

# Test 1 What areas of the heart are supplied by the left coronary artery

Left atrium, left ventricle and right anterior ventricle

# Test 1 Blood is drained from the heart muscle by which of the following blood vessels?

Coronary sinus

# Test 1 What are the two myofilaments that are found in cardiac muscle?

Actin and fibrin Fibrin and myosin Actin and collagen**None of the above are correct

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a part of the cardiac muscle action potential?

DepolarizationPlateau phase of repolarization Final repolarization phase**All of these are part of the action potential in cardiac muscle**

# Test 1 During depolarization, which of the following ion channels open?

Sodium

# Test 1 During depolarization,

Sodium channels open, potassium channels close and calcium channels open

# Test 1 During final repolarization,

Sodium channels close, potassium channels open and calcium channels close

# Test 1 Absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle extends from depolarization into the

Final repolarization phase

# Test 1 What is the pacemaker of the heart?

Sinoatrial node

# Test 1 When the SA node depolarizes and the heart contracts, which one of the following is directlydetermined by the SA node?

Heart rate

# Test 1 What ion is primarily responsible for the depolarization of the SA node of the heart?

Calcium

# Test 1 When the SA node depolarizes, which of the following heart chambers contracts first?

Right and left atria

# Test 1 What part of the conducting system of the heart delays the transmission of the action potential to allowthe atria to contract before the ventricles?

AV node

# Test 1 Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures in the heart's conducting system?1. AV bundles2. AV node3. Purkinje fibers4. SA node

4,2,1,3

# Test 1 Which one of the following conditions is life threatening?

Ventricular fibrillation

# Test 1 Which one of the following conditions is a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute?

Bradycardia

# Test 1 Which one of the following waves would be seen in a normal ECG?

wave T waveQRS complex ***All of the above would be seen in a normal ECG

# Test 1 What wave of the ECG represents ventricular depolarization?

QRS complex

# Test 1 What wave of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

T wave

# Test 1 During the PR interval,

The atria contract

# Test 1 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during ventricular systole?1. AV valves close2. Blood is ejected into the pulmonary trunk and aorta3. Semilunar valves open4. Ventricles begin to relax and enter into ventricular diastole5. Ventricles contract and blood pressure in ventricles increase

5,1,3,2,4

# Test 1 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during ventricular diastole?1. When ventricular blood pressure becomes less than atrial pressure, AV valves open2. Atria contract and force their blood into the ventricles3. Semilunar valves close4. Ventricles relax and blood pressure in ventricles decreases

4,3,1,2

# Test 1 Which one of the following events does NOT occur during ventricular systole?

Ventricular pressure increasesAV valves close Semilunar valves open**All of these events occur during ventricular systole

# Test 1 Which one of the following events does NOT occur during ventricular diastole?

AV valves close

# Test 1 Which one of the following is the highest blood pressure in the aorta?

Systolic pressure

# Test 1 What is the approximate diastolic blood pressure in the aorta?

80 mm Hg

# Test 1 Which of the following is responsible for the first heart sound of "lubb"?

Tricuspid valve closing

# Test 1 Which of the following is responsible for the second heart sound of "dupp"?

Both the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves closing

# Test 1 What is the cause of heart murmurs?

Faulty heart valves

# Test 1 An incompetent bicuspid valve causes

Pulmonary edema

# Test 1 The mean arterial pressure is determined by

MAP = CO X PR

# Test 1 The cardiac output is affected by all of the following EXCEPT

***Peripheral resistance**Heart rate Stroke volume All of the above affect the cardiac output

# Test 1 What is the law that states an increase in the resting length of a cardiac muscle fiber will result in agreater force of contraction of a cardiac muscle fiber?

Starling's law of the heart

# Test 1 Which one of the following extrinsic factors decreases heart rate?

Parasympathetic stimulation

# Test 1 Blood pressure is monitored in the aorta by pressure receptors called

Baroreceptors

# Test 1 When blood pressure increases, which one of the following events occur?

Increased parasympathetic stimulation of heart with decreased heart rate

# Test 1 Which one of the following is increased when the adrenal glands release epinephrine andnorepinephrine?

Heart rate Stroke volume Blood pressure.****All of the above are increase with epinephrine and norepinephrine***

# Test 1 Which one of the following chemicals has no effect on the heart rate?

Nitrogen

# Test 1 What is the effect of a significant decrease in oxygen on the heart?

Increased heart rate

# Test 1 What is the effect of increased oxygen on the heart?

No change in heart rate

# Test 1 What is the effect of increased carbon dioxide on the heart?

Increased heart rate

# Test 1 What is the effect of increased pH on the heart?

Decreased heart rate

# Test 1 What is the effect of decreased potassium ion on the heart?

Decreased heart rate

# Test 1 What is the effect of increased calcium ion on the heart?

Decreased heart rate

# Test 1 What is the effect of decreased temperature on the heart?

Decreased heart rate

# Test 1 Which one of the following is a change in the heart that is associated with age?

Hypertrophy of the heart

# Test 1 Which one of the following is a change in the heart that is associated with age?

Arrhythmias of the heart Decreased maximum heart rateDecreased cardiac output **All of the above are seen in elderly people**

# Test 1 The heart forms a partition with the trachea and esophagus called the mediastinum.

TRUE

# Test 1 The heart is the size of your closed fist.

TRUE

# Test 1 The base of the heart is the rounded point of the lower heart.

FALSE

# Test 1 The auricles are the primary receiving chambers of the heart.

FALSE

# Test 1 The pulmonary trunk divides into the left and right pulmonary veins and carries blood to thelungs.

FALSE

# Test 1 The atria are chambers that receive blood from the veins.

TRUE

# Test 1 The left and right ventricles are separated by the interatrial septum.

FALSE

# Test 1 The left atrioventricular valve is called the bicuspid or mitral valve.

TRUE

# Test 1 The heart is supplied with blood from the coronary sinuses

FALSE

# Test 1 The heart is supplied with blood from the blood that flows through it.

FALSE

# Test 1 Heart cells have specialized gap junctions between them called intercalated disks.

TRUE

# Test 1 Cardiac muscle contracts faster than skeletal muscle.

FALSE

# Test 1 The absolute refractory period is shorter in cardiac muscle than in skeletal muscle

FALSE

# Test 1 The heart can stimulate itself and contract at regular intervals which is called self-rhythmic.

FALSE

# Test 1 A heart rate over 100 beats per minute is called tachycardia.

TRUE

# Test 1 The electrical activity of the heart can be recorded in an EEG.

FALSE

# Test 1 The P wave of the ECG represents ventricular depolarization.

FALSE

# Test 1 Atrial diastole is the relaxation of the atria.

TRUE

# Test 1 During ventricular systole, the blood pressure in the ventricles decreases.

FALSE

# Test 1 The heart sounds are caused by the closure of heart valves.

TRUE

# Test 1 Stenosis is a swelling of a heart valve.

FALSE

# Test 1 A normal cardiac output is 25 L/min.

FALSE

# Test 1 Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases heart rate and force of contraction

TRUE

# Test 1 Excitement, anger and anxiety will cause increased blood pressure.

TRUE

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood vessels which helps to maintain homeostasis?

A. Carry blood from the heart to the tissues and back to the heart **B. Generate blood pressure**C. Exchange nutrients, wastes and gases with the tissuesD. All of these are functions of blood vessels

# Test 1 Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?

Arteries

# Test 1 Which blood vessels allow the exchange of gases and nutrients between the blood and tissues?

Capillaries

# Test 1 Which blood vessels carry blood toward the heart?

Veins

# Test 1 The wall of a blood vessel is composed of three layers. Which of the following is NOT a layer of ablood vessel wall?

Tunica fibrosa

# Test 1 What is the name of the blood vessel layer that forms the inner surface of the blood vessel?

Tunica intima

# Test 1 What is the name of the blood vessel layer that contains smooth muscle fibers?

Tunica media

# Test 1 Which of the following types of arteries are large and recoil when stretched?

Elastic arteries

# Test 1 Which of the following arteries are distributing arteries?

Muscular arteries

# Test 1 Which of the following arteries delivers blood to the capillaries?

Arterioles

# Test 1 What is the name of the blood vessel that directly connects an arteriole to a venule?

Thoroughfare channel

# Test 1 What type of vein directly connects with capillaries?

Venule

# Test 1 Which of the following structures is ONLY found in veins?

A. Tunica adventitiaB. Chordae tendineaeC. Endothelium**D. None of the these are correct**

# Test 1 Which of the following is the flow of blood as blood moves from the heart to the tissues back to theheart?ArteriolesMuscular arteries CapillariesElastic arteries

4,2,1,3,6,5

# Test 1 What is the name of the age related change in arteries that cause the arteries to be less elastic?

Arteriosclerosis

# Test 1 What is the name of the age related change in arteries that is caused by the deposition of material inthe walls of arteries to form plaques?

Atherosclerosis

# Test 1 Which of the following is the flow of blood from the heart through the pulmonary circulation?

Pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary capillaries, pulmonary veins

# Test 1 Which of the following is the flow of blood from the heart through the systematic circulation?

Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a part of the aorta?

A. Aortic archB. Descending aorta C. Ascending aorta **D. Transverse aorta**

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a branch off of the aortic arch?

A. Left common carotid arteryB. Left subclavian artery **C. Right subclavian artery** D. Brachiocephalic artery

# Test 1 What major artery carries blood to the right side of the neck and head and right arm?

Branchiocephalic artery

# Test 1 Which of the following arteries is the artery that carries blood to right arm?

Right subclavian artery

# Test 1 What is the artery that carries blood to the left side of the brain?

Left internal carotid artery

# Test 1 What is the artery that carries blood to the spinal cord?

Vertebral artery

# Test 1 Which of the following disorders is a neurological disorder caused by a decreased blood supply to a part of the brain?

Stroke

# Test 1 What is the major artery in the armpit that carries blood to the upper arm?

Axillary artery

# Test 1 Which of the following arteries is the artery that is found in the upper arm?

Brachial artery

# Test 1 Which pair of the arteries is found in the forearm?

Ulnar and radial arteries

# Test 1 What artery carries blood to the fingers and thumb?

Digital artery

# Test 1 What arteries carry blood to the esophagus, trachea, pericardium and bronchioles of the lungs?

Visceral arteries

# Test 1 Which of the following arteries carries blood to the chest wall?

Anterior intercostal arteries

# Test 1 Which of the following pairs of arteries and supplied tissues is correctly matched?

A. Inferior mesenteric artery - small intestines and rectum B. Common hepatic artery - spleen, pancreas and stomach C. Renal artery - adrenal gland**D. None of the above are correct**

# Test 1 Which of the following pairs of arteries and supplied tissues is correctly matched?

**A. Superior mesenteric artery - cecum, ascending and transverse colon B. Gastric artery - spleen, pancreas and stomachC. Suprarenal artery - kidneyD. None of the above are correct

# Test 1 Which of the following pairs of arteries and supplied tissues is correctly matched?

A. Inferior phrenic artery - small intestines**B. Splenic artery - spleen, pancreas and stomach** C. Lumbar artery - liver and gall bladderD. None of the above are correct

# Test 1 Which of the following pairs of arteries and supplied tissues is correctly matched?

A. Ovarian artery - testesB. Common hepatic artery - spleen, pancreas and stomach **C. Renal artery - kidney**D. None of the above are correct

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT an artery of the pelvic region?

Popliteal artery

# Test 1 Which of the following pairs of arteries and supplied tissues is NOT correctly matched?

A. Internal iliac artery - urinary bladder, rectum, uterus and vaginaB. External iliac artery - lower limb**C. Common iliac artery - inferior vertebrae**D. None of the above is correct

# Test 1 What is the artery that supplies blood to the leg?

External iliac artery

# Test 1 Which of the following arteries is found in the thigh region?

Femoral artery

# Test 1 Which of the following arteries is found in the knee region?

Popliteal artery

# Test 1 Which of the following arteries is found in the toe region?

Digital artery

# Test 1 What is the vein that drains blood from the head, neck and upper limbs?

Superior vena cava

# Test 1 What is the vein that drains blood from the abdomen, pelvis and lower limbs?

Inferior vena cava

# Test 1 Which of the following veins drains blood from the anterior head, face and neck?

Internal jugular vein

# Test 1 Which of the following major veins is formed from the joining of the subclavian veins?

Brachiocephalic vein

# Test 1 Which of the following veins drains blood from the posterior head and neck?

External jugular vein

# Test 1 Which of the following veins drains blood from the upper limbs?

Both the cephalic and basilic veins

# Test 1 Which of the following major veins receives blood from the axillary vein?

Subclavian vein

# Test 1 Which of the following veins is used to draw blood from at the elbow?

Median cubital vein

# Test 1 What vein drains blood from the fingers and thumb?

Digital vein

# Test 1 Which of the following veins receives blood from the radial and ulnar veins?

Brachial vein

# Test 1 Which of the following veins empties its blood directly into the superior vena cava?

Azygos vein

# Test 1 What is the vein that drains blood from the anterior thoracic wall?

A. Posterior intercostal veinB. Hemiazygos or accessory hemiazygos vein C. Subclavian vein**D. None of the above are correct**

# Test 1 Which of the following veins drains blood from the pelvis, pelvic organs and external genitalia?

Internal iliac vein

# Test 1 Which of the following major veins drains blood from the stomach, intestines and spleen?

Hepatic portal vein

# Test 1 What is the vein that drains blood from the small intestine?

Superior mesenteric vein

# Test 1 What is the vein that drains blood from the descending and transverse colon and rectum?

Inferior mesenteric vein

# Test 1 What is the vein that drains blood from the stomach?

Gastric vein

# Test 1 Which of the following veins is NOT a vein of the leg?

A. Greater saphenous vein**B. Lumbar vein C. Popliteal vein D. Femoral vein

# Test 1 Which of the following veins is the longest vein in the body that ascends along the medial side of the leg?

Greater saphenous vein

# Test 1 What is the measure of the force that the blood exerts against the wall of a blood vessel?

Blood pressure

# Test 1 What is the blood pressure that occurs when the ventricles are contracting?

Systolic pressure

# Test 1 Which of the following instruments is used to measure blood pressure?

Sphygmomanometer

# Test 1 What are the sounds that are heard in the artery when a blood pressure reading is determined?

Korotkoff sounds

# Test 1 What are the two factors of the blood that determine blood flow?

Resistance and pressure

# Test 1 Which of the following factors influences resistance to blood flow in the arteries?

A. Diameter of blood vessel B. Viscosity of bloodC. Length of blood vessel**D. All of the above are correct**

# Test 1 Which of the following events would cause a decrease in blood flow?

Increased viscosity of blood

# Test 1 Which of the following equations describes the mean arterial blood pressure (MAP)?

MAP = CO X PR

# Test 1 What is it called when the sympathetic stimulation keeps the arteries in a constant state of partialconstriction?

Vasomotor tone

# Test 1 What is the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressures called?

Pulse pressure

# Test 1 What are the two factors that determine pulse pressure?

Stroke volume and vascular compliance

# Test 1 Which of the following is a major pulse point on the body?

A. Common carotid arteryB. Radial arteryC. Femoral artery**D. All of the above are major pulse points**

# Test 1 Which pair of processes is responsible for the exchange of substances between the blood and interstitial fluid of the tissues?

Diffusion and filtration

# Test 1 Which pair of processes is responsible for the exchange of fluids across the walls of capillaries?

Blood pressure and osmosis

# Test 1 Which of the following local control mechanisms would increase blood flow to the tissues?

Arterioles vasodilate and precapillary sphincters relax

# Test 1 Stimulation from which of the following nervous system areas will directly cause vasomotor tone?

Vasomotor center of the medulla

# Test 1 What is the effect of sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels?

Most blood vessel vasoconstrict and muscle and heart blood vessels vasodilate

# Test 1 Which type of blood vessel is a storage area or reservoir for blood?

Veins

# Test 1 Which of the following factors effects venous return?

A. Vasoconstriction and vasodilationB. Blood volumeC. Valves in the veins and the skeletal muscle pump**D. All of the above effect venous return**

# Test 1 Which of the following does NOT effect the mean arterial pressure?

Blood flow

# Test 1 Which of the following sensory receptors detects changes in arterial stretch?

Baroreceptors

# Test 1 Which of the following is the effect of epinephrine released from the adrenal medulla?

Vasodilation in the skeletal and cardiac muscles and vasoconstriction in skin and kidneys

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a chemical that is detected by chemoreceptors that effects bloodpressure?

Sodium

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a structure where chemoreceptors are located that effect bloodpressure?

**A. Jugular veins**B. Medulla oblongata C. Aortic bodiesD. Carotid bodies

# Test 1 An drop in oxygen results in a(n)

Increased blood pressure

# Test 1 An drop in carbon dioxide results in a(n)

Decreased blood pressure

# Test 1 Which of the following is released by the kidneys in response to decreased blood pressure?

Renin

# Test 1 All of the following are effects of the release of renin by the kidney because of low blood pressureEXCEPT

A. Conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin I **B. Release of TSH**C. Release of aldosteroneD. All of the above are correct

# Test 1 Angiotensin II is a powerful

Vasoconstriction

# Test 1 Which of the following is an effect of aldosterone?

A. Conserving sodium ion and water by kidneysB. Increased blood volumeC. Decreased urine volume**D. All of the above are caused by aldosterone**

# Test 1 Vasopressin is considered to be a/an

Both a vasoconstrictor and diuretic

# Test 1 Which of the following is an effect of the release of atrial natriuretic hormone by the heart?

Increased loss of water in urine

# Test 1 Which of the following mechanisms causes a decrease in blood pressure?

Atrial natriuretic mechanism

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a change in the cardiovascular system associated with exercise?

Increased peripheral resistance

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a change in the cardiovascular system associated with shock?

A. Increased vasoconstrictionB. Increased heart rateC. Increased blood volume**D. All of the above are changes associated with shock**

# Test 1 Veins carry blood towards the heart.

TRUE

# Test 1 The tunica adventitia is the inner most layer of the wall of the blood vessel.

TRUE

# Test 1 Arteries are thin walled and conduct blood under low pressure.

FALSE

# Test 1 Arterioles are the small arteries that carry blood to the capillaries.

TRUE

# Test 1 Relaxation of the smooth muscle fibers in muscular arteries causes vasoconstriction of the artery.

FALSE

# Test 1 Capillaries are composed of several layers of simple squamous epithelium.

FALSE

# Test 1 The precapillary sphincter controls the flow of blood into the capillary beds.

TRUE

# Test 1 Veins are the only blood vessel that contain valves.

TRUE

# Test 1 Varicose veins are veins that are permanently dilated with blood due to failure of their valves.

TRUE

# Test 1 All arteries originate from the aorta.

TRUE

# Test 1 The ascending aorta is divided into the thoracic and abdominal aorta.

FALSE

# Test 1 The coronary arteries send blood to the heart.

TRUE

# Test 1 The brachial artery is found in the forearm.

FALSE

# Test 1 The superior phrenic arteries carry blood to the diaphragm.

TRUE

# Test 1 The superior mesenteric artery is an unpaired artery.

TRUE

# Test 1 The lateral and medial plantar arteries supply blood to the foot.

TRUE

# Test 1 The coronary arteries drain blood from the heart.

FALSE

# Test 1 Blood from the palm of the hand is drained into the digital veins.

FALSE

# Test 1 The splenic vein drains blood from the pancreas.

FALSE

# Test 1 The diastolic pressure occurs when the ventricles are relaxed.

TRUE

# Test 1 The viscosity of the blood can be influenced by the hemoglobin concentration of the red bloodcells

FALSE

# Test 1 The systolic and diastolic blood pressure remains the same throughout the vascular system.

FALSE

# Test 1 Arteriosclerosis decreases vascular compliance.

TRUE

# Test 1 Gravity decreases blood pressure in the arteries of the legs.

FALSE

# Test 1 When Joe started to do weight training, his muscles became larger and the number of capillaries in his skeletal muscles decreased.

FALSE

# Test 1 After a meal, Frank's muscular arteries and arterioles to his stomach vasodilated.

TRUE

# Test 1 Peripheral resistance effects the mean arterial pressure.

TRUE

# Test 1 Decreased stimulation of the baroreceptors will result in a decrease in blood pressure.

FALSE

# Test 1 The release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla causes a sudden increase in blood pressure.

TRUE

# Test 1 An increase in blood carbon dioxide levels causes a decrease in blood pressure.

FALSE

# Test 1 An increase in blood pressure causes the release of renin from the kidneys.

FALSE

# Test 1 Vasopressin release causes an increase in blood pressure.

TRUE

# Test 1 Atrial natriuretic hormone causes an increase in blood pressure.

FALSE

# Test 1 Increased blood pressure causes the movement of fluid out of the interstitial fluid into the blood.

FALSE

# Test 1 LOVE YOU GUYS!!

KRISSY <3

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood which helps to maintain homeostasis?

A. Transport of hormones and enzymesB. Regulate pH**C. Synthesis of Vitamin D**D. Clot formation

# Test 1 Blood is composed of

Formed elements and plasma

# Test 1 Formed elements make up _____________of the blood.

45%

# Test 1 The most abundant substance in blood is

Water

# Test 1 What protein is foundinthe plasma?

Albumin

# Test 1 Antibodies are a class of this type of blood protein.

Globulin

# Test 1 Which of the following is NOT an example of a formed element

**A.Plasma**B. Red blood cellC. Platelet D. White bloodcell

# Test 1 Which of the following is the most numerous formed element

Red blood cell

# Test 1 Which formed element is involved with immunity?

Leukocyte

# Test 1 Which formed element transports oxygen and carbondioxide?

Erythrocyte

# Test 1 Which formed element is a cell fragment?

Thrombocyte

# Test 1 The process of blood cell production is called

Hematopoiesis

# Test 1 In adults blood cell formationoccurs in the

Red bone marrow

# Test 1 The stem cells of all formed elements is the

Hemocytoblast

# Test 1 The development of each blood cell line is regulated by

Growthfactors