Security_Plus_Complete_Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What is the CIA triad in cybersecurity?

A

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.

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2
Q

Define ‘Confidentiality’ in the CIA triad.

A

Limiting information access to authorized users.

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3
Q

Define ‘Integrity’ in the CIA triad.

A

Ensuring accuracy and reliability of data.

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4
Q

Define ‘Availability’ in the CIA triad.

A

Ensuring resources are accessible when needed.

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5
Q

What does AAA stand for in cybersecurity?

A

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting.

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6
Q

Describe ‘Authentication’ in AAA.

A

Verifying identity of a user or device.

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7
Q

Describe ‘Authorization’ in AAA.

A

Granting permissions to authenticated users.

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8
Q

Describe ‘Accounting’ in AAA.

A

Tracking user actions for audit purposes.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of the CIA triad?

A

To provide a foundational model for security policies to protect data.

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10
Q

What is ‘Risk Management’ in cybersecurity?

A

Identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks to information security.

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11
Q

What is a ‘risk assessment’?

A

Evaluating potential threats to determine their impact and likelihood.

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12
Q

Define ‘least privilege’ in access control.

A

Restricting user access to only what is necessary for their role.

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13
Q

What is ‘non-repudiation’ in information security?

A

Ensuring a user cannot deny having performed an action.

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14
Q

What is a ‘security policy’?

A

A set of rules and practices that dictate how data is protected.

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15
Q

What is ‘multi-factor authentication’?

A

Using more than one method of verification to authenticate users.

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16
Q

What is a ‘digital signature’?

A

An electronic method to verify the authenticity of a document or message.

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17
Q

Explain ‘defense in depth’.

A

Using multiple layers of security to protect resources.

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18
Q

What does ‘risk tolerance’ mean in risk management?

A

The level of risk an organization is willing to accept.

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19
Q

Define ‘threat’ in risk management.

A

Any potential event or action that could cause harm to information.

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20
Q

What is a ‘vulnerability’?

A

A weakness in a system that could be exploited by a threat.

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21
Q

What is malware?

A

Malicious software designed to harm or exploit devices, networks, or systems.

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22
Q

Define phishing.

A

Deceptive attempts to steal sensitive information via email or other forms of communication.

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23
Q

What is ransomware?

A

Malware that encrypts files and demands payment for their release.

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24
Q

What is a Trojan?

A

Malware disguised as legitimate software.

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25
Q

What is a worm?

A

Self-replicating malware that spreads across networks without user intervention.

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26
Q

Define a zero-day vulnerability.

A

A software flaw unknown to the vendor, without a patch, making it susceptible to attacks.

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27
Q

Describe a DDoS attack.

A

An attack that overwhelms a system with traffic to make it unavailable to legitimate users.

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28
Q

What is SQL injection?

A

An attack that injects malicious SQL code to manipulate or access a database.

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29
Q

Define an insider threat.

A

A threat posed by individuals within an organization, such as employees misusing access.

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30
Q

What is cross-site scripting (XSS)?

A

Injecting malicious scripts into trusted websites to manipulate data or steal information.

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31
Q

What is the purpose of a firewall?

A

To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules.

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32
Q

Describe a brute-force attack.

A

An attack that systematically tries all possible combinations to crack a password.

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33
Q

What is vulnerability management?

A

The process of identifying, prioritizing, and resolving vulnerabilities in systems.

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34
Q

What is social engineering?

A

Manipulating individuals to disclose confidential information or perform actions.

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35
Q

What is pharming?

A

Redirecting users from legitimate websites to malicious websites.

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36
Q

What is MAC address filtering?

A

Restricting network access based on device MAC addresses.

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37
Q

Describe a man-in-the-middle attack.

A

An attack where communication between two parties is intercepted by an unauthorized party.

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38
Q

What is spear phishing?

A

A targeted phishing attempt to steal sensitive information from specific individuals.

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39
Q

What is an advanced persistent threat (APT)?

A

A prolonged, targeted attack intended to steal data without detection.

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40
Q

Define privilege escalation.

A

Gaining elevated access within a system to perform unauthorized actions.

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41
Q

What is a buffer overflow?

A

An exploit where excess data overflows into adjacent memory locations.

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42
Q

What is encryption?

A

Encoding data to protect it from unauthorized access.

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43
Q

What does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) do?

A

Detects and alerts on suspicious network activities.

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44
Q

What is session hijacking?

A

Taking control of an active session between a user and a server to gain unauthorized access.

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45
Q

What is banner grabbing?

A

Collecting information about a server’s software and version by connecting to it.

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46
Q

What is a vulnerability scan?

A

A scan that identifies security weaknesses in a system.

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47
Q

What is data leakage?

A

Unintentional transfer of data from within an organization to an external entity.

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48
Q

What is a rogue access point?

A

An unauthorized Wi-Fi access point set up to intercept traffic on a network.

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49
Q

What is an account lockout policy?

A

A policy that temporarily disables an account after several failed login attempts to prevent brute-force attacks.

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50
Q

What is whaling?

A

A phishing attack targeting high-profile individuals within an organization.

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51
Q

What is a botnet?

A

A network of compromised devices controlled remotely by an attacker.

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52
Q

What is IP spoofing?

A

Forging the IP address of a device to impersonate another device on the network.

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53
Q

What is a vulnerability assessment?

A

An assessment to identify and prioritize system weaknesses.

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54
Q

What is port scanning?

A

Scanning for open ports on a network to identify running services and potential vulnerabilities.

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55
Q

What is password spraying?

A

Attempting common passwords across many accounts in an organization.

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56
Q

What is a keylogger?

A

Malware that records keystrokes to capture sensitive information like passwords.

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57
Q

What is DNS poisoning?

A

Corrupting DNS records to redirect traffic to malicious sites.

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58
Q

What is spimming?

A

Spam directed at instant messaging users.

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59
Q

What is a SYN flood attack?

A

A type of DDoS that overwhelms a server by sending multiple SYN requests without completing the handshake.

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60
Q

What is ARP poisoning?

A

An attack that tricks devices on a network into sending data to an attacker by spoofing MAC addresses.

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61
Q

What is a denial of service (DoS) attack?

A

An attack that attempts to make a system or network resource unavailable to its users.

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62
Q

What is a drive-by download attack?

A

Malicious software is downloaded to a user’s device without their knowledge when visiting a compromised website.

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63
Q

What is directory traversal?

A

An attack that gains unauthorized access to restricted directories on a server.

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64
Q

What is a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?

A

A DoS attack that uses multiple devices to flood a target with traffic.

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65
Q

Define malware.

A

Software specifically designed to disrupt, damage, or gain unauthorized access to a computer system.

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66
Q

What is an exploit?

A

Code or techniques used to take advantage of a vulnerability in a system.

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67
Q

What is defense in depth?

A

A layered security approach where multiple defenses are in place to protect resources.

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68
Q

What is network segmentation?

A

Dividing a network into smaller segments to limit access and enhance security.

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69
Q

What is the Zero Trust model?

A

A security model that assumes no network traffic is trusted, regardless of location.

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70
Q

Define microsegmentation in network security.

A

Dividing a network into very small segments to limit lateral movement of threats.

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71
Q

What is a demilitarized zone (DMZ)?

A

A network segment that acts as a buffer between internal and external networks.

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72
Q

What is cloud security?

A

Practices and technologies used to protect cloud-based assets and data.

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73
Q

What does SaaS stand for in cloud computing?

A

Software as a Service.

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74
Q

What does PaaS stand for in cloud computing?

A

Platform as a Service.

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75
Q

What does IaaS stand for in cloud computing?

A

Infrastructure as a Service.

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76
Q

What is virtualization?

A

Creating virtual versions of resources like servers and storage for efficient use.

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77
Q

What is a hypervisor?

A

Software that creates and manages virtual machines on a host system.

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78
Q

Define containerization.

A

A lightweight form of virtualization where applications run in isolated containers.

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79
Q

What is application isolation in cloud environments?

A

Ensuring that applications run in separate environments to prevent interference.

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80
Q

What is multi-tenancy in cloud computing?

A

Allowing multiple users to share the same physical infrastructure securely.

81
Q

What is endpoint security?

A

Securing devices like laptops, desktops, and mobile devices that connect to a network.

82
Q

What is a virtual private cloud (VPC)?

A

A private network segment within a public cloud provider.

83
Q

Define secure access service edge (SASE).

A

A cloud architecture that combines WAN and network security functions.

84
Q

What is network access control (NAC)?

A

A security measure that restricts network access based on policies.

85
Q

What is an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A

A device that monitors network traffic to detect and prevent attacks.

86
Q

What is an intrusion detection system (IDS)?

A

A system that monitors network traffic and alerts on suspicious activities.

87
Q

What is an access control list (ACL)?

A

A set of rules that control network traffic based on IP address or protocol.

88
Q

What is a firewall?

A

A device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic.

89
Q

Define endpoint detection and response (EDR).

A

A system to detect, investigate, and respond to suspicious activities on endpoints.

90
Q

What is serverless computing?

A

A cloud model where application code runs on demand without managing servers.

91
Q

What is encryption in transit?

A

Encrypting data as it moves between locations to protect it from interception.

92
Q

What is encryption at rest?

A

Encrypting data stored on a device to protect it from unauthorized access.

93
Q

What is a web application firewall (WAF)?

A

A firewall that filters, monitors, and blocks HTTP traffic to and from a web application.

94
Q

What is a VPN concentrator?

A

A device that provides secure VPN connections for remote users.

95
Q

What is the purpose of a load balancer?

A

To distribute network traffic across multiple servers for better performance and reliability.

96
Q

Define application whitelisting.

A

Allowing only authorized applications to run on a network or device.

97
Q

What is tokenization in data security?

A

Replacing sensitive data with unique identification symbols or tokens.

98
Q

What is the role of identity and access management (IAM) in security?

A

Controlling user access and managing identities to secure systems.

99
Q

What is data loss prevention (DLP)?

A

A technology to prevent unauthorized data exfiltration.

100
Q

What is a reverse proxy?

A

A server that directs client requests to the appropriate backend server.

101
Q

What is a network perimeter?

A

The boundary that separates an internal network from an external network.

102
Q

What is the first phase in the incident response process?

A

Preparation.

103
Q

What does the identification phase in incident response involve?

A

Detecting and identifying potential security incidents.

104
Q

What is the purpose of the containment phase in incident response?

A

Isolating affected systems to prevent further damage.

105
Q

What does the eradication phase entail in incident response?

A

Removing the cause of the incident and restoring systems.

106
Q

What is the final phase of incident response?

A

Lessons Learned.

107
Q

What is digital forensics?

A

The practice of collecting, analyzing, and preserving digital evidence for legal cases.

108
Q

What is a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?

A

A platform that aggregates and analyzes security event data in real time.

109
Q

Define ‘vulnerability management’.

A

The process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating security vulnerabilities.

110
Q

What is a full backup?

A

A complete copy of all data, capturing everything in a system.

111
Q

What is an incremental backup?

A

A backup that only includes data that has changed since the last backup.

112
Q

What is a differential backup?

A

A backup that captures data changed since the last full backup.

113
Q

What is forensic imaging?

A

Creating a copy of digital evidence that preserves its integrity for analysis.

114
Q

What is chain of custody?

A

The documentation of the handling and storage of evidence from collection to court presentation.

115
Q

What does log analysis in SIEM involve?

A

Reviewing system logs to detect and investigate suspicious activities.

116
Q

What is vulnerability scanning?

A

Automated process of identifying security weaknesses in a system.

117
Q

What is patch management?

A

The process of applying updates to software to fix vulnerabilities.

118
Q

What is a recovery point objective (RPO)?

A

The maximum tolerable amount of data loss measured in time.

119
Q

What is a recovery time objective (RTO)?

A

The maximum tolerable time to restore a system after an incident.

120
Q

What is mean time to recovery (MTTR)?

A

The average time required to restore a system after a failure.

121
Q

What does ‘data retention policy’ mean?

A

A policy that outlines how long data should be kept before deletion.

122
Q

What is a honeypot?

A

A decoy system designed to attract and monitor potential attackers.

123
Q

What is a security incident?

A

An event that may indicate a breach or threat to information security.

124
Q

What is malware analysis?

A

The process of understanding the behavior and origin of a malware sample.

125
Q

What is data integrity in backup and recovery?

A

Ensuring that data remains accurate and unaltered after backup and restore.

126
Q

What is a forensic toolkit?

A

A collection of tools used in digital forensics to analyze evidence.

127
Q

What is the purpose of a SIEM?

A

To monitor, analyze, and respond to security events across an organization.

128
Q

What is privilege management?

A

Controlling and limiting user access levels within a system.

129
Q

What is event correlation in SIEM?

A

Connecting events from multiple sources to identify suspicious patterns.

130
Q

What is endpoint detection and response (EDR)?

A

A security solution focused on detecting and responding to threats on endpoints.

131
Q

What is a hot site in disaster recovery?

A

A fully operational off-site location ready for immediate use.

132
Q

What is a warm site?

A

A partially equipped site that can be made operational with some setup.

133
Q

What is a cold site?

A

A backup site with infrastructure but no operational resources ready.

134
Q

What is root cause analysis?

A

The process of identifying the underlying reason for a problem.

135
Q

What is mean time between failures (MTBF)?

A

The average time between system or component failures.

136
Q

What is threat hunting?

A

The proactive search for threats within a network.

137
Q

What is a forensic investigator?

A

A specialist trained to analyze digital evidence in legal cases.

138
Q

What is continuous monitoring?

A

Regular observation of network security to identify new risks.

139
Q

What is a business continuity plan (BCP)?

A

A plan to ensure critical functions continue during and after a disruption.

140
Q

What is an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A

A system that detects and blocks malicious activity in real-time.

141
Q

What is vulnerability assessment?

A

A systematic review of security weaknesses in an information system.

142
Q

What is an intrusion detection system (IDS)?

A

A system that monitors for and alerts on suspicious activities.

143
Q

What is a security operations center (SOC)?

A

A centralized function that monitors, detects, and responds to security incidents.

144
Q

What is data recovery?

A

The process of restoring data from a backup after a data loss event.

145
Q

What is a playbook in incident response?

A

A set of instructions and guidelines for handling specific security incidents.

146
Q

What is a penetration test?

A

An authorized simulated attack to identify vulnerabilities.

147
Q

What is data exfiltration?

A

The unauthorized transfer of data from a system.

148
Q

What is a kill chain?

A

A model that describes the stages of a cyber attack from planning to execution.

149
Q

What is endpoint security?

A

Securing end-user devices such as laptops and mobile devices.

150
Q

What is a SIEM log aggregation?

A

The process of collecting logs from various sources for analysis.

151
Q

What is the goal of risk assessment?

A

To identify, assess, and prioritize risks to the organization.

152
Q

What is a backup window?

A

A specific time period during which a backup operation is performed.

153
Q

What is a differential backup?

A

A backup that captures all changes since the last full backup.

154
Q

What is forensics in incident response?

A

The process of analyzing digital evidence to understand and contain an incident.

155
Q

What is a forensic image?

A

A complete, exact copy of a drive or device, used for analysis.

156
Q

What is log retention in SIEM?

A

The policy for how long logs should be stored before deletion.

157
Q

What is a tabletop exercise in incident response?

A

A discussion-based drill to test the response plan against hypothetical scenarios.

158
Q

What is threat intelligence?

A

Information about threats used to improve security posture.

159
Q

What is information security governance?

A

The framework and processes to ensure effective information security management.

160
Q

What is ISO/IEC 27001?

A

An international standard for managing information security.

161
Q

What does PCI-DSS stand for?

A

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard.

162
Q

What is GDPR?

A

General Data Protection Regulation, a law for data protection and privacy in the EU.

163
Q

What is the purpose of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

A

To ensure essential business functions continue during and after a disaster.

164
Q

What is a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A

A plan for restoring systems and operations after a disaster.

165
Q

What is risk assessment?

A

The process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks to information security.

166
Q

What is risk assessment?

A

The process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating risks to minimize impact.

167
Q

Define compliance in cybersecurity.

A

Adhering to laws, regulations, and guidelines to protect data.

168
Q

What is NIST?

A

National Institute of Standards and Technology, which provides security frameworks.

169
Q

What is a risk management framework (RMF)?

A

A structured approach to manage security risks systematically.

170
Q

What is the purpose of incident management?

A

To identify, manage, and resolve security incidents efficiently.

171
Q

What is data classification?

A

Organizing data based on its sensitivity and impact if disclosed.

172
Q

What does HIPAA regulate?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act regulates health data privacy.

173
Q

What is a data retention policy?

A

A policy specifying how long data should be stored and when it should be deleted.

174
Q

Define access control policy.

A

A policy that determines who can access resources and under what conditions.

175
Q

What is a security audit?

A

An examination of a system to ensure it meets security policies and standards.

176
Q

What does SOX stand for in compliance?

A

Sarbanes-Oxley Act, regulating financial reporting and data security for companies.

177
Q

What is a vulnerability assessment?

A

A process to identify, quantify, and prioritize security weaknesses.

178
Q

What is a control in risk management?

A

A measure implemented to reduce or manage security risks.

179
Q

What does CCPA stand for?

A

California Consumer Privacy Act, focused on data privacy rights for residents of California.

180
Q

Define a data breach notification policy.

A

A policy outlining the steps to inform affected individuals in case of a data breach.

181
Q

What is the role of a CISO?

A

Chief Information Security Officer responsible for managing an organization’s information security.

182
Q

What is an acceptable use policy?

A

A policy defining acceptable behaviors and usage of IT resources.

183
Q

What is change management?

A

A systematic approach to managing changes in an organization to minimize security risks.

184
Q

What is IT governance?

A

A framework for aligning IT strategy with business goals while managing risks.

185
Q

What is the COBIT framework?

A

A framework for managing and governing enterprise IT.

186
Q

What is a risk register?

A

A document listing identified risks, their severity, and mitigation measures.

187
Q

What is the purpose of a compliance audit?

A

To verify adherence to regulatory requirements and standards.

188
Q

What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A

A contract that defines service expectations and responsibilities between a provider and client.

189
Q

What is business impact analysis (BIA)?

A

A process to identify critical functions and evaluate the impact of disruptions.

190
Q

What is a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?

A

An analysis to identify privacy risks associated with a project or system.

191
Q

Define incident response policy.

A

Guidelines that outline how to detect, report, and manage security incidents.

192
Q

What does the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) ensure?

A

It ensures accuracy in financial reporting and mandates data protection.

193
Q

What is the function of ISO 27002?

A

It provides best practice guidelines for information security controls.

194
Q

What is due diligence in security?

A

The legal obligation to take reasonable measures to protect data.

195
Q

What is a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)?

A

An agreement between parties outlining terms but without legal enforceability.

196
Q

What is the COSO framework?

A

A framework for enterprise risk management, focusing on internal control.

197
Q

What does continuous improvement entail in governance?

A

An ongoing effort to enhance security policies and risk management practices.

198
Q

What is a third-party risk assessment?

A

Evaluating the security practices of vendors to ensure they meet compliance standards.

199
Q

What is the purpose of internal audits?

A

To assess the effectiveness of security controls and identify areas for improvement.