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Cdc1 > Security Forces Operations > Flashcards

Security Forces Operations Flashcards

1
Q

What is SMARTNet?

A

A new approach in managing computer applications our career field

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2
Q

What is the purpose behind SMARTNet?

A

To consolidate programs to the greatest extent possible, to maximize efficiency and reduce resource allocation

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3
Q

What does the acronym e-TTPG stand for and how is it used?

A

Electronic tactics, techniques and procedures guide (e-TTPG)

Electronic programs designed to train sf personnel

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4
Q

Who in your unit will use e-TTPGs to train sf personnel?

A

S-3, supervisor and trainers

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5
Q

What is DBIDS?

A

An access control system designed to enhance Force protection and identification management by capturing and storing biometric data of personnel having access to installation

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6
Q

To use the DBIDS handheld device correctly what is the best way to hold the device?

A

With non firing hand and point down away from eyes

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7
Q

What are your actions if the DBIDS information does not match the person presenting the ID card?

A

Deny entry, detain according to SJA approved procedures and contact BDOC immediately

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8
Q

What is the primary reason the SFMIS was developed?

A

To meet congressionally-mandated defense incident-based reporting system requirements and improve day to day sf operations

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9
Q

What are the combat arms capabilities in SFMIS?

A

Inputting training requests, class assignments, weapons course fired, AF Form 522, ground weapons training data, history, supply account, and tracking weapons through Air Force technical orders (AFTO), inspection maintenance firing data for ground weapons

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10
Q

Who must ensure trained personnel use SFMIS to meet installation needs?

A

Installation DFC

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11
Q

What is the NCIC (national crime information center)?

A

Electronic clearing house of crime data providing to virtually every criminal justice agency nationwide

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12
Q

Where are some suggested locations for the NCIC terminals to support DBIDS?

A

Visitors control center, BDOC and commercial vehicle inspection station

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13
Q

Who is the AF executive agency for NCIC matters?

A

Headquarters, Air Force office of special investigations

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14
Q

What is the objective of the SF training program?

A

To build aggressive, lethal, highly maneuverable, air-minded, capabilities based, and combat-focused defenders

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15
Q

What is the methodology of the SF training program?

A

SF training must be rooted in the evaluate- train- evaluate methodology

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16
Q

Who plays a key role in your success and the success of the mission?

A

Supervisor

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17
Q

What type of training builds on individual team skills, and what are some examples?

A
  • Collective skill training

- Fire team, flight, emergency services team, response force element or unit type code teams

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18
Q

What is the purpose of shoot, move, and communicate (SMC)

A

Standardized basic individual and team firearms tactical skills necessary to engage hostile threats

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19
Q

What critical role does the Stan/Eval team perform in your unit?

A

Certifying all unit members to perform the duty position identified by commander and areas performing to standards

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20
Q

What does a DPE measure?

A

Your ability to perform the duties required for a specific duty position, and evaluates the effectiveness of the training received from supervisor

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21
Q

What type of DPE evaluation measures your ability to perform duties for a specific duty position?

A

Performance evaluation

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22
Q

What are the minimum passing score you must receive on all verbal evaluations?

A

69%

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23
Q

What type of standard does Stan/eval use to grade performance evaluations?

A

Go/ no-go

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24
Q

What is the purpose of flight level exercise?

A

Keep you sharp and prepare for Stan/eval exercises

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25
Q

What are all personnel briefed on before conducting any exercise?

A

Weapon, vehicle and ground safety

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26
Q

How often should local exercises be conducted?

A

As frequently as needed minimum hostile exercise annually

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27
Q

What two forms are used when issuing weapons?

A

AF Form 629 small arms hand receipt

AF Form 1297 temporary issue receipt

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28
Q

How is a weapon issued from the armory window?

A

One person comes to window armorer will clear weapon and pass off buttstock first, muzzle elevated, bolt to the rear and on safe

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29
Q

What is the period for conducting inventories in the armory?

A

Continuously manned- each shift change

Not- each time opened but not less then once per calendar week

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30
Q

As a BDOC controller what must you maintain no matter how hectic or stressful circumstances become?

A

Composure and control of situation

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31
Q

What do BDOC controllers use to keep priority of responses in mind?

A

Local resource priority list

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32
Q

What should you be familiar with prior to performing BDOC controller duties?

A

Geography of base

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33
Q

Where are base stations usually located?

A

BDOC and alternative BDOC

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34
Q

What is the purpose for call-signs

A

Simplify, clarify and make communication more protected

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35
Q

Why do we use pro-word in radio or telephone communications?

A

To shorten transmission and facilitate message reception

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36
Q

What are some of the FCC prohibited practices?

A

Use of profane language, transmission of false signals, not in accordance with the limitation of a station license or by an unlicensed station

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37
Q

What is the responsibility of an alarm monitor?

A

Monitoring alarm system and notifying BDOC controller of a needed SF response

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38
Q

What occurs when the alarm monitor fails a no-notice evaluation?

A

Immediate decertification

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39
Q

What are the 2 types of duress?

A

Duress signal/word and duress alarms

40
Q

What do duress codes provide?

A

Provide a means for authorized owner/user personnel to pass a pre-designated word to the alarm monitor to indicate duress

41
Q

Who can determine the need for additional duress alarms on your installation?

A

Installation defense council

42
Q

What does conducting a building/structure check offer?

A

Offers visibility for you as a base patrol in the community and act as a public relations opportunity

43
Q

What can you learn from conducting building/structure checks?

A

Building layouts, approaches and escapes, response routes

44
Q

At a minimum what info should be on the building check sheet?

A

Time of check, initials of patrol person conducting, result of check

45
Q

What should you relay to BDOC/ECC before conducting a building/structure check?

A

Arrival, start of check, completion

46
Q

What form do you complete on all unsecured buildings having items missing, signs of forced entry, or designated protection level assets?

A

AF Form 3545A- incident report

47
Q

What does it mean to be an access controller?

A

Installations first line of defense against unwanted or illegal entry

48
Q

What must you not do in the view of the public while posted as IAC?

A

Eat, loiter, chew gum, use tobacco or smoke

49
Q

When posted as an IAC how should you position yourself to maximize your visibility to on-coming traffic?

A

Facing on-coming traffic near gatehouse so driver can see you

50
Q

What equipment are SF personnel required to have during duty?

A

Whistle, flashlight, cold weather gear, handcuff and keys, badge/shield, cac/rab, hearing protection, Law enforcement equipment, Defensor fortis load carrying system

51
Q

What type of flash do SF officers wear?

A

Plain no insignia, SF flash and affix regular size, bright metal grade insignia centered on flash

52
Q

What AFSCs wear the SF beret?

A

Office AFSC 31PX, Enlisted 3POXX/A/B, augmentees when command approves

53
Q

Who reviews staffing requirements for level 1 confinement facility at least annually?

A

DFC

54
Q

What is the minimum rank/skill level requirement for confinement personnel?

A

E-4 and above and 5 skill level

55
Q

What type of treatment programs are available for confinees housed at a level 2 confinement facility?

A

Crisis intervention, corrections related counseling, sex offender treatment program, violent offender treatment program, drug and alcohol education, narcotics anonymous and alcohol anonymous, stress management, pre-release vocational training, functional skill testing, remedial education

56
Q

What types of confinees are housed in level III confinement facilities?

A

All post trial confinees with sentences exceeding level two facilities capabilities up to confinement for life and death sentences

57
Q

What must confinement NCOs complete within six months of duty assignment?

A

AF corrections advanced distributed learning, a service corrections course, complete a civilian equivalent course, or complete the American correctional association correctional officer course

58
Q

What is the confinement staffs responsibility where confinees are concerned

A

To provide for rehabilitation opportunities in order for the possible return to duty or return to society by promoting an environment encouraging and confinee responsibility

59
Q

When is striking a confinee not prohibited?

A

In self-defense, prevent serious injuries to others, prevent serious damage to property, to affect an authorized search, to quell a disturbance

60
Q

When an individual is placed in pre-trial confinement, what forms do confinement personnel complete?

A

ATF form 444, advisement of rights upon pretrial confinement, and DD form 2707, confinement order

61
Q

What are the four custody classifications?

A

Maximum, medium, minimum and trustee

62
Q

What form will be completed by a medical officer certifying a person is fit for confinement?

A

DD form 2707

63
Q

When are frisk searches conducted?

A

Search for contraband or weapons anytime a confinee leaves or returns to the facility, before and after visitations, and as determined by confinement officers

64
Q

When and why are Bay and cell searches conducted?

A

To find contraband at irregular intervals

based on amount and regularity of contraband found

65
Q

Which of the following is not a purpose behind security management and automation resource trucking network (SMARTNet)?

A

Increase computer usage

66
Q

What office is responsible for the management, program development, and publication of electronic tactics, techniques and procedures guides (e-TTPG)?

A

AFSFC

67
Q

What ā€œSā€ function uses electronic tactics, techniques and procedures guide (e-TTPG) to train you and your fellow squadron members?

A

S-3

68
Q

Defense biometric identification system(DBIDS) is capable of reading all of the following forms of identification except?

A

State identification cards

69
Q

Who is responsible to ensure personnel are security forces management information system (SFMIS) trained?

A

Installation defense force commander(DFC)

70
Q

Security forces management information systems (SFMIS) users report information only to those with?

A

A valid need to know

71
Q

National crime information Center training (NCIC) must meet?

A

State and federal Bureau of investigation (FBI) requirements

72
Q

Restrict access to national crime information Center (NCIC) data as?

A

FOUO law enforcement sensitive

73
Q

You must complete phase 2 training within how many calendar days of completing phase 1 training?

A

60

74
Q

Which type of training is considered universal training regardless of your air force specialty code?

A

Ancillary

75
Q

Skills obtain through a tiered training approach and target knowledge, skills, and abilities not routinely acquired during occupational and/or other ancillary training venues are called?

A

Expeditionary skills training

76
Q

You must complete live-fire sustainment training within how many months after completion of qualification training on your primary weapons?

A

5-7

77
Q

Who is responsible for the overall management of the Stan/eval program?

A

Security forces manager

78
Q

A Stan/eval inspection of each functional area is conducted every?

A

12 months

79
Q

Which position requires individuals to achieve at least 79% to pass the verbal/written portion of the duty position evaluation?

A

Critical

80
Q

What type of land mobile radio do walking patrols, security patrols, and fixed patrols use?

A

Portable handheld radio

81
Q

What is the purpose of call signs?

A

To simplify, clarify, and make communications more protected

82
Q

Localized training alarm monitors receive must be approved by the?

A

Major command

83
Q

Who determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms?

A

MAJCOM/DET

84
Q

Document for issuing firearms to personnel on a frequent basis?

A

AF form 629, small arms hand receipt

85
Q

Form used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?

A

AF form 1297

86
Q

Conducting building trucks is an excellent form of?

A

Proactive crime prevention

87
Q

When conducting a building check what is your first step you take if you find a building with signs of forced entry?

A

Take cover in a position that allows you to observe the building

88
Q

What is your first responsibility when assuming your post as an installation access controller?

A

Conduct a post changeover

89
Q

Which is not a required piece of equipment for security forces personnel?

A

Commercial radio

90
Q

Which confinement facility or joint regional correctional facility is used to house all male confinees with sentences over 10 years?

A

Level 2 CF

91
Q

Which US military service is that executive agency for level III corrections?

A

Army

92
Q

The humane treatment/incarceration procedures of confinees is the operational responsibility of the?

A

Installation commander and defense force commander

93
Q

Individuals awaiting the filing of charges, disposition of charges, trial by courts-martial, or trial by Foreign court are designated as?

A

Pretrial detainees

94
Q

Which custody classification is assigned to confinees who may be assigned to work details outside the facility under continuous escort and supervision?

A

Medium

95
Q

What are the two types of searches used in confinement facilities?

A

Complete and frisk

Cdc1 (3 decks)

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