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Security+ Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What does AV Software stand for?

A

Antivirus Software

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2
Q

What is DRP?

A

Disaster Recovery Plan

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3
Q

Define IRP.

A

Incident Response Plan is a structured approach that organizations follow to identify, contain, and recover from cybersecurity incidents.

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4
Q

What is an AUP?

A

Acceptable Use Policy outlines rules and guidelines for an organization’s IT resources, including networks, systems, and data.

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5
Q

What does IPS stand for?

A

Intrusion Prevention System that monitors and blocks malicious traffic.

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6
Q

What is the function of an IDS?

A

Intrusion Detection System that monitors and alerts on malicious traffic.

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7
Q

What are directive security controls?

A

Policies, guidelines, or procedures designed to influence user behavior and enforce security best practices.

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8
Q

What are compensating security controls?

A

Alternative security controls when primary controls go down.

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9
Q

What is PKI?

A

Public Key Infrastructure for managing digital certificates and encryption keys.

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10
Q

List the components of PKI.

A
  • Certificate Authorities (CAs)
  • Registration Authorities (RAs)
  • Cryptographic Standards
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11
Q

What is the role of a Registration Authority (RA)?

A

Intermediary between users and the CA that verifies certificate applicants before requesting a certificate from the CA.

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12
Q

What does a Certificate Authority (CA) do?

A

Issues and manages digital certificates, authenticates entities, and signs certificates to establish trust.

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13
Q

What is key escrow?

A

A method where encryption keys are stored by a trusted third party.

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14
Q

What is a Recovery Agent?

A

A trusted third party that can help retrieve lost encryption keys.

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15
Q

Define PKCS.

A

Public Key Certificate Standards for public key cryptography.

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16
Q

What does AAA stand for?

A

Authentication, Authorization, Accounting

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17
Q

What is GDPR?

A

General Data Protection Regulation is a privacy regulation by the EU to protect personal data/privacy rights.

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18
Q

What is CHAP?

A

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, a challenge-response mechanism to verify user identity. Uses threeway handshake (Challenge, Response, Verification).

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19
Q

What does TACACS+ stand for?

A

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System +.

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20
Q

What is PAP?

A

Password Authentication Protocol, where username and password are sent in plain text.

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21
Q

What does RADIUS stand for?

A

Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service.

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22
Q

What is MS-CHAP?

A

Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, a version of CHAP used in Windows networks.

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23
Q

What is device authentication?

A

Authentication based on IP address, digital certificate authority, or MAC address.

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24
Q

What does MAC stand for?

A

Media Access Control, an identifier for a device’s Network Interface Card (NIC).

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25
Define Configuration Management.
Process of maintaining system integrity by applying security settings, software updates, and hardware configurations.
26
What are operational security controls?
Day-to-day security measures that ensure an organization's security policies are effectively implemented.
27
What are managerial security controls?
Policies and procedures by an organization to manage security risks, enforce compliance, and guide security operations.
28
What is an Access Control Vestibule?
Mantrap, an entrance system where only one person enters at a time.
29
What does asset management involve?
Identifying and managing an organization's IT assets (hardware, data, software, etc.).
30
What is a Gap Analysis?
Identifying the difference between the current organization's security posture and where they want to be.
31
What is TTX?
Table Top Exercise, a discussion-based cybersecurity drill that simulates a security incident to test IRPs.
32
What is ZTA?
Zero Trust Architecture that eliminates implicit trust and requires continuous authentication, authorization, and verification.
33
What are the two key planes of ZTA?
* Control plane * Data plane
34
Define Adaptive Identity.
Dynamic authentication and authorization process used in zero trust that readjusts in real-time based on user identity and location.
35
What is microsegmentation?
A zero trust strategy in the data plane by isolating networks into segments to limit lateral movement.
36
What is PDP?
Policy Decision Point that evaluates access requests and makes decisions based on security policies.
37
List the components of PDP.
* Policy Engine (PE) * Policy Administrator (PA)
38
What is the role of the Policy Engine (PE)?
Decision maker that evaluates access requests based on identity.
39
What does the Policy Administrator (PA) do?
Enforces decisions made by policy engines and translates security policies into enforceable actions.
40
What is PEP?
Policy Enforcement Point that intercepts and enforces access requests based on decisions made by PDP.
41
What are honeypots?
Decoy systems to attract/deceive cyber-attackers by mimicking real systems.
42
What is a honeynet?
Network of honeypots.
43
What is a honeytoken?
A unique identifier designed to track attackers.
44
What does BPA stand for?
Business Partner Agreement.
45
What is BIA?
Business Impact Analysis, which identifies critical business functions and assesses potential impacts of disruptions.
46
What does SLE stand for?
Single Loss Expectancy.
47
What is BCP?
Business Continuity Plan, a strategy to keep a business running during/after disruption.
48
What is an HSM?
Hardware Security Module, a physical device to manage, generate, and securely store cryptographic keys.
49
What is TPM?
Trusted Platform Module, a cryptoprocessor chip embedded in a computer motherboard.
50
What is EFS?
Encryption File System, a Windows-based encryption feature to encrypt individual files and folders.
51
What does SED stand for?
Self-Encrypting Drive.
52
What is FDE?
Full Disk Encryption, a software-based encryption technology that encrypts the entire disk.
53
What does GPG stand for?
GNU Privacy Guard, an open-source encryption tool for securing data and communications.
54
What is PGP?
Pretty Good Privacy, a cryptographic software tool used for secure communications and data encryption.
55
What is SSH?
Secure Shell, a protocol for secure remote access and file transfers over an encrypted channel.
56
What is IPsec?
Internet Protocol Security, a network security protocol that encrypts and secures IP traffic.
57
What does VPN stand for?
Virtual Private Network.
58
What is HTTPS?
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, which encrypts web traffic using SSL/TLS.
59
What is SFTP?
Secure File Transfer Protocol, used for securely transferring files over SSH.
60
What does FTPS stand for?
File Transfer Protocol Secure.
61
What is SNMP?
Simple Network Management Protocol, used for monitoring and managing network devices.
62
What does S/MIME stand for?
Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions.
63
What is STARTTLS?
SMTP with TLS upgrade, a modern method for encrypting email transmission over SMTP.
64
What does DKIM stand for?
DomainKeys Identified Mail.
65
What is SMTPS?
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol Secure, an older method of encrypting email transmissions.
66
What is SHTTP?
Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol, an early protocol design for web communications.
67
What is SRTP?
Secure Real-Time Transfer Protocol, used to encrypt and authenticate real-time communications.

Security+ (1 decks)

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