SECURITY ESWS STUDY GUIDE Flashcards

Question

Phase IV (TERRORIST OPORATIONS): Pre-Attack Surveillance and Planning

Answer 1

Members of the actual operational cells begin to appear during this phase. This phase gathers information on the target’s current patterns, usually days to weeks. The attack team confirms information gathered from previous surveillance and reconnaissance activities. The areas of concern are essentially the same as in Phase II but with greater focus based on known or perceived vulnerabilities. The information gained is then used to: Conduct security studies. Conduct detailed preparatory operations. Recruit specialized operatives (if needed). Procure a base of operations in the target area (safe houses, caches, etc.). Design and test escape routes. Decide on type of weapon or attack.

Answer 2

As with conventional military operations, rehearsals are conducted to improve the odds of success, confirm planning assumptions, and develop contingencies. Terrorists also rehearse to test security reactions to particular attack profiles. Terrorists use both their own operatives and unsuspecting people to test target reactions. Typical rehearsals include: Equipment and weapons training and performance. Staging for final preparatory checks. Deployment into target area. Actions on the objective. Escape routes. Tests in the target area will be conducted to confirm: Target information gathered to date. Target pattern of activities. Physical layout of target or operations area. Security force reactions such as state of alert, timing response, equipment and routes.

Answer 3

Once terrorists reach this stage of their operation, the odds favor a successful attack against the target. Terrorists conducting planned operations possess important tactical advantages. Since they are the attacker, they possess all the advantages of initiative and provide: Use of Surprise. Choice of time, place, and conditions of attack. Employment of diversions and secondary or follow-up attacks. Employment of security and support positions to neutralize target reaction forces and security measures. Because of the extensive preparation through surveillance and reconnaissance, enemy security measures will be planned for and neutralized.

Answer 4

Escape plans are usually well rehearsed and executed. The exception is a suicide operation where the impact is enhanced by the willingness to die in achieving the attack. Exploitation is the primary objective of the operation. The operation must be properly publicized to achieve an intended effect. Media control measures and prepared statements are examples of preparations to effectively exploit a successful operation. These will be timed to take advantage of media cycles for the selected target audiences.

Answer 5

- Threat or Hoax - Arson - Sabotage - Bombing - Kidnapping - Hostage Taking - Hijack/Seizure - Raid or Ambush - Assassination - Aircraft Threats - Maritime Threats - Suicide Tactics

Answer 6

The calculated use of unlawful violence or threat of unlawful violence to inculcate fear; intended to coerce or to intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious, or ideological.

Answer 7

Offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, and respond to terrorism.

Answer 8

Does success affect a larger audience than the immediate victim(s)? Will the target attract high profile media attention? Does success make the desired statement to the correct target audience(s)? Is the effect consistent with objectives of the group? Does the target provide an advantage to the group by demonstrating its capabilities? What are the costs versus benefits of conducting the operation?

Answer 9

Groups with secular ideologies and nonreligious goals will often attempt highly selective and discriminate acts of violence to achieve a specific political aim. The intention is to avoid a backlash that might damage the organization’s acceptability and maintain the appearance of a rational group that has legitimate grievances.

Answer 10

The force protection condition (FPCON) system describes the progressive level of protective measures implemented by all DOD components in response to terrorist threats.

Answer 11

Applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture.

Answer 12

Applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable. Alpha measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely.

Answer 13

Applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. Sustaining Bravo measures for a prolonged period may affect operational capability and relations with local authorities.

Answer 14

Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely. Prolonged implementation of Charlie measures may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel.

Answer 15

Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent. This FPCON is normally declared as a localized condition. FPCON Delta measures are not intended to be sustained for substantial periods.

Answer 16

A Security Alert is an emergency inside the lifelines that requires an immediate response to protect REAGAN’s internal security. During a Security Alert only the following personnel may move about the ship: CO, XO, CDO, Department Heads, SSDF, and IET personnel responding to a casualty. Duty section personnel are allowed to transit only to the mess decks. ALL OTHERS MUST STAND FAST!

Answer 17

a. An intruder is known or suspected to be aboard. b . Boarders or swimmers are detected and suspected of making an intrusion attempt. c..A ship in the vicinity of REAGAN’s berth goes to security alert. d. Security watch standers or personnel returning to the ship are suspected of being under duress. e. Activation of installed security alarms on the following spaces without prior notification: SSES, Radio, Armory, Forward, Disbursing, or other alarmed spaces. f. Call for assistance by a guard or security watch. g. Failure by Sounding and Security or roving patrols to report to the OOD in person within 60 minutes of last report. h. Any unscheduled loss of shore power (as determined by command and control). If the loss of power is obviously due to non-threat circumstances (i.e. weather), a security alert may hinder recovery efforts and is not required. i. Any unauthorized use of the 1MC, including directing the movement of the CDO, and Duty GM (i.e. “CO, Quarterdeck”). j. Any station calling the Quarterdeck and conveying the Duress Code (“requesting the presence” of designated covert security alert proword). k. When ordered by higher authority l. Any situation which command and control reasonably believes would threaten the physical security of the command or its personnel. m. Any shipboard casualties (i.e. fire, flooding, etc) that the CDO or OOD feels may be a diversionary tactic to gain access to the ship. n. Discovery of any Level II or Level III space left open or unattended as designated by Enclosure (2) of this instruction. o. Any crewmember who states “I am not under duress.”