Security and Risk Management 16% Flashcards

1
Q

What is the final step of a quantitative risk analysis?
A. Determine asset value.
B. Assess the annualized rate of occurrence.
C. Derive the annualized loss expectancy.
D. Conduct a cost/benefit analysis.

Syb

A

D. The final step of a quantitative risk analysis is conducting a cost/benefit analysis to determine whether the organization should implement proposed countermeasure(s).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An evil twin attack that broadcasts a legitimate SSID for an unauthorized network is an example of what category of threat?

A.Spoofing
B. Information disclosure
C. Repudiation
D. Tampering

Syb

A

A. Spoofing attacks use falsified identities. Spoofing attacks may use false IP addresses, email addresses, names, or, in the case of an evil twin attack, SSIDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Security controls must acknowledge one or more of these three principles:

**Cyb*

A

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability:
More info:
Confidentiality: The guarding of sensitive information through rigorous measures to prevent exposure or sharing of the information with unauthorized persons. Once the information is intentionally or unintentionally released, confidentiality is lost. Breaches of confidentiality include stealing files, shoulder surfing, or screen recording.
Integrity: The practice of maintaining data consistency and ensuring the information hasn’t been altered or compromised in any way. This process is applied to data in active use, data that is stored and data that’s transferred.
Availability: Allowance of data being accessed at any time by authorized persons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Disasters of natural origin refer to:

Cyb

A

storms, fires, tornadoes, earthquakes or any events that occur in the environment.

More Info:
This also pertains to incidents that cause damage to a business and the internal environment. For example, an electrical malfunction that results in a fire, water damage from clogged sewage pipes or power outages. Another form of risk is equipment failure from encountering an internet virus or hackers who target the system. Situations like these can be catastrophic to a business if internal data is compromised or lost, and disruption of service which impedes or in severe cases, shuts-down the organization’s day to day processes. Internal risks are threats that exist within the organization’s personnel from detrimental actions or behavior of an employee. Internal data that’s considered highly-sensitive is a prime target for theft. An employee can steal then replicate that data for monetary gain, or, illegally download software or programs. These incidents create legal liability issues for the business such as lawsuits and loss of profit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Risk management is composed of what three key concepts:

CYB

A

Threat, Vulnerability, and Controls

More info:
…threat, either natural or man-made that could cause damage to an organization; vulnerability, the existing weaknesses from flawed policies or loopholes that could be taken advantage of by a malicious entity; and controls, which are methods to improve defense against known threats, prevent disaster, and correct system weaknesses to reduce vulnerabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
Angela is an information security architect at a bank and has been assigned to ensure that transactions are secure as they traverse the network. She recommends that all transactions use TLS. What threat is she most likely attempting to stop, and what method is she using to protect against it?
A.Man-in-the-middle, VPN
B. Packet injection, encryption
C. Sniffing, encryption
D. Sniffing, TEMPEST
A

C. Sniffing, encryption Encryption is often used to protect traffic like bank transactions from sniffing. While packet injection and man-in-the-middle attacks are possible, they are far less likely to occur, and if a VPN were used, it would be used to provide encryption. TEMPEST is a specification for techniques used to prevent spying using electromagnetic emissions and wouldn’t be used to stop attacks at any normal bank.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Within the realm of IT security, which of the following combinations best defines risk?
A. Threat coupled with a breach
B. Threat coupled with a vulnerability
C. Vulnerability coupled with an attack
D. Threat coupled with a breach of security
CBK

A

B. Threat coupled with a vulnerability

A vulnerability is a lack of a countermeasure or a weakness in a countermeasure that is in place. A threat is any potential danger that is associated with the exploitation of a vulnerability. The threat is that someone, or something, will identify a specific vulnerability and use it against the company or individual. A risk is the likelihood of a threat agent exploiting a vulnerability and the corresponding business impact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Qualitative risk assessment is earmarked by which of the following?
A. Ease of implementation and it can be completed by personnel with a limited understanding of the risk assessment process
B. Can be completed by personnel with a limited understanding of the risk assessment process and uses detailed metrics used for calculation of risk
C. Detailed metrics used for calculation of risk and ease of implementation
D. Can be completed by personnel with a limited understanding of the risk assessment process and detailed metrics used for the calculation of risk

CBK

A

A. Ease of implementation and it can be completed by personnel with a limited understanding of the risk assessment process.

Qualitative risk assessments are a form of risk assessments that use stratified forms of risk such as “high, moderate and low.” This simplified approach allows for those not as familiar with risk assessments the ability to perform risk assessments, which while not as specific as quantitative assessments are still meaningful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When determining the value of an intangible asset which is be BEST approach?
A. Determine the physical storage costs and multiply by the expected life of the company
B. With the assistance of a finance of accounting professional determine how much profit the asset has returned
C. Review the depreciation of the intangible asset over the past three years.
D. Use the historical acquisition or development cost of the intangible asset
CBK

A

B. With the assistance of a finance of accounting professional determine how much profit the asset has returned.

Intangible asset value is challenging to determine. While there are several ways to determine the value of an intangible asset, the best approach involves seeking assistance from finance or accounting professionals to determine the impact of the asset to the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Single loss expectancy (SLE) is calculated by using:
A. Asset value and annualized rate of occurrence (ARO)
B.Asset value, local annual frequency estimate (LAFE), and standard annual frequency estimate (SAFE)
C.Asset value and exposure factor
D.Local annual frequency estimate and annualized rate of occurrence
CBK

A

C.Asset value and exposure factor

The formula for calculating SLE is SLE = asset value (in $) × exposure factor (loss in successful threat exploit, as %).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Consideration for which type of risk assessment to perform includes all of the following:
A.Culture of the organization, likelihood of exposure and budget
B. Budget, capabilities of resources and likelihood of exposure
C.Capabilities of resources, likelihood of exposure and budget
D. Culture of the organization, budget, capabilities and resources

A

D. Culture of the organization, budget, capabilities and resources

It is expected that an organization will make a selection of the risk assessment methodology, tools, and resources (including people) that best fit its culture, personnel capabilities, budget, and timeline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Security awareness training includes:
A.Legislated security compliance objectives
B.Security roles and responsibilities for staff
C.The high-level outcome of vulnerability assessments
D.Specialized curriculum assignments, coursework and an accredited institution

A

B.Security roles and responsibilities for staff

Security awareness training is a method by which organizations can inform employees about their roles, and expectations surrounding their roles, in the observance of information security requirements. Additionally, training provides guidance surrounding the performance of particular security or risk management functions, as well as providing information surrounding the security and risk management functions in general.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
What is the minimum and customary practice of responsible protection of assets that affects a community or societal norm?
A. Due diligence
B. Risk mitigation
C. Asset protection
D. Due care
A

D. Due care

Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks the company faces. A company practices due care by developing security policies, procedures, and standards. Due care shows that a company has taken responsibility for the activities that take place within the corporation and has taken the necessary steps to help protect the company, its resources, and employees from possible risks. So due diligence is understanding the current threats and risks and due care is implementing countermeasures to provide protection from those threats. If a company does not practice due care and due diligence pertaining to the security of its assets, it can be legally charged with negligence and held accountable for any ramifications of that negligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
Effective security management:
A. Achieves security at the lowest cost
b. Reduces risk to an acceptable level
c. Prioritizes security for new products
d. Installs patches in a timely manner
A

b. Reduces risk to an acceptable level

There will always be residual risk accepted by an organization, and effective security management will minimize this risk to a level that fits within the organization’s risk tolerance or risk profile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Availability makes information accessible by protecting from:

a. Denial of services, fires, floods, hurricanes, and unauthorized transactions
b. Fires, floods, hurricanes, unauthorized transactions and unreadable backup tapes
c. Unauthorized transactions, fires, floods, hurricanes and unreadable backup tapes
d. Denial of services, fires, floods, and hurricanes and unreadable backup tapes

A

d. Denial of services, fires, floods, and hurricanes and unreadable backup tapes

Availability is the principle that information is available and accessible by users when needed. The two primary areas affecting the availability of systems are (1) denial of service attacks and (2) loss of service due to a disaster, which could be man-made or natural.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which phrase best defines a business continuity/disaster recovery plan?

a. A set of plans for preventing a disaster.
b. An approved set of preparations and sufficient procedures for responding to a disaster.
c. A set of preparations and procedures for responding to a disaster without management approval.
d. The adequate preparations and procedures for the continuation of all organization functions.

A

d. The adequate preparations and procedures for the continuation of all organization functions.

Business continuity planning (BCP) and Disaster recovery planning (DRP) address the preparation, processes, and practices required to ensure the preservation of the business in the face of major disruptions to normal business operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following steps should be performed first in a business impact analysis (BIA)?

a. Identify all business units within an organization
b. Evaluate the impact of disruptive events
c. Estimate the Recovery Time Objectives (RTO)
d. Evaluate the criticality of business functions

A

a. Identify all business units within an organization

The four cyclical steps in the BIA process are:
1-Gathering information;
2-Performing a vulnerability assessment;
3-Analyzing the information; and
4-Documenting the results and presenting the recommendations.

The initial step of the BIA is identifying which business units are critical to continuing an acceptable level of operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tactical security plans are BEST used to:

a. Establish high-level security policies
b. Enable enterprise/entity-wide security management
c. Reduce downtime
d. Deploy new security technology

A

d. Deploy new security technology

Tactical plans provide the broad initiatives to support and achieve the goals specified in the strategic plan. These initiatives may include deployments such as establishing an electronic policy development and distribution process, implementing robust change control for the server environment, reducing vulnerabilities residing on the servers using vulnerability management, implementing a “hot site” disaster recovery program, or implementing an identity management solution. These plans are more specific and may consist of multiple projects to complete the effort. Tactical plans are shorter in length, such as 6 to 18 months to achieve a specific security goal of the company.

19
Q

Who is accountable for implementing information security?

a. Everyone
b. Senior management
c. Security officer
d. Data owners

A

c. Security officer

The security officer must work with the application development managers to ensure that security is considered in the project cost during each phase of development (analysis, design, development, testing, implementation, and post implementation). To facilitate this best from an independence perspective, the security officer should not report to application development.

20
Q

Security is likely to be most expensive when addressed in which phase?

a. Design
b. Rapid prototyping
c. Testing
d. Implementation

A

d. Implementation

Security is much less expensive when it is built into the application design versus added as an afterthought at or after implementation.

21
Q

Information systems auditors help the organization:

a. Mitigate compliance issues
b. Establish an effective control environment
c. Identify control gaps
d. Address information technology for financial statements

A

c.Identify control gaps

Auditors provide an essential role for maintaining and improving information security. They provide an independent view of the design, effectiveness, and implementation of controls. The results of audits generate findings that require management response and corrective action plans to resolve the issue and mitigate the risk.

22
Q

The Facilitated Risk Analysis Process (FRAP)

a. makes a base assumption that a broad risk assessment is the most efficient way to determine risk in a system, business segment, application or process.
b. makes a base assumption that a narrow risk assessment is the most efficient way to determine risk in a system, business segment, application or process.
c. makes a base assumption that a narrow risk assessment is the least efficient way to determine risk in a system, business segment, application or process.
d. makes a base assumption that a broad risk assessment is the least efficient way to determine risk in a system, business segment, application or process.

A

b. makes a base assumption that a narrow risk assessment is the most efficient way to determine risk in a system, business segment, application or process.

The Facilitated Risk Analysis Process (FRAP) makes a base assumption that a narrow risk assessment is the most efficient way to determine risk in a system, business segment, application or process. The process allows organizations to prescreen applications, systems, or other subjects to determine if a risk analysis is needed. By establishing a unique prescreening process, organizations will be able to concentrate on subjects that truly need a formal risk analysis. The process has little outlay of capital and can be conducted by anyone with good facilitation skills.

23
Q

Setting clear security roles has the following benefits:

a. Establishes personal accountability, reduces cross-training requirements and reduces departmental turf battles
b. Enables continuous improvement, reduces cross-training requirements and reduces departmental turf battles
c. Establishes personal accountability, establishes continuous improvement and reduces turf battles
d. Reduces departmental turf battles, Reduces cross-training requirements and establishes personal accountability

A

c. Establishes personal accountability, establishes continuous improvement and reduces turf battles

Establishing clear, unambiguous security roles has many benefits to the organization beyond providing information as to the responsibilities to be performed and who needs to perform them.

24
Q

Well-written security program policies are BEST reviewed:

a. At least annually or at pre-determined organization changes
b. After major project implementations
c. When applications or operating systems are updated
d. When procedures need to be modified

A

a.At least annually or at pre-determined organization changes

Policies should survive two or three years even though they should be reviewed and approved at least annually.

25
Q

An organization will conduct a risk assessment to evaluate
a. threats to its assets, vulnerabilities not present in the environment, the likelihood that a threat will be realized by taking advantage of an exposure, the impact that the exposure being realized will have on the organization, the residual risk

b. threats to its assets, vulnerabilities present in the environment, the likelihood that a threat will be realized by taking advantage of an exposure, the impact that the exposure being realized will have on another organization, the residual risk
c. threats to its assets, vulnerabilities present in the environment, the likelihood that a threat will be realized by taking advantage of an exposure, the impact that the exposure being realized will have on the organization, the residual risk
d. threats to its assets, vulnerabilities present in the environment, the likelihood that a threat will be realized by taking advantage of an exposure, the impact that the exposure being realized will have on the organization, the total risk

A

c. threats to its assets, vulnerabilities present in the environment, the likelihood that a threat will be realized by taking advantage of an exposure, the impact that the exposure being realized will have on the organization, the residual risk
An organization will conduct a risk assessment (the term risk analysis is sometimes interchanged with risk assessment) to evaluate:

  • Threats to its assets
  • Vulnerabilities present in the environment
  • The likelihood that a threat will be realized by taking advantage of an exposure (or probability and frequency when dealing with quantitative assessment)
  • The impact that the exposure being realized will have on the organization
  • Countermeasures available that can reduce the threat’s ability to exploit the exposure or that can lessen the impact to the organization when a threat is able to exploit a vulnerability
  • The residual risk (e.g., the amount of risk that is left over when appropriate controls are properly applied to lessen or remove the vulnerability)

An organization may also wish to document evidence of the countermeasure in a deliverable called an exhibit or in some frameworks this is called “evidence.” An exhibit can be used to provide an audit trail for the organization and, likewise, evidence for any internal or external auditors that may have questions about the organization’s current state of risk. Why undertake such an endeavor? Without knowing what assets are critical and which would be most at risk within an organization, it is not possible to protect those assets appropriately.

26
Q

A security policy which will remain relevant and meaningful over time includes the following:

a. Directive words such as shall, must, or will, technical specifications and is short in length
b. Defined policy development process, short in length and contains directive words such as shall, must or will
c. Short in length, technical specifications and contains directive words such as shall, must or will
d. Directive words such as shall, must, or will, defined policy development process and is short in length

A

d. Directive words such as shall, must, or will, defined policy development process and is short in length

Technical implementation details do not belong in a policy. Policies must be written technology independent. Technology controls may change over time as an organization’s risk profile changes and new vulnerabilities are found.

27
Q

The ability of one person in the finance department to add vendors to the vendor database and subsequently pay the vendor violates which concept?

a. A well-formed transaction
b. Separation of duties
c. Least privilege
d. Data sensitivity level

A

b. Separation of duties

Separation of duties ensures fraud or other undesirable behavior cannot occur without collusion between two or more parties. In this example, individuals could add himself or herself as a vendor and then pay themselves.

28
Q

Collusion is best mitigated by:

a. Job rotation
b. Data classification
c. Defining job sensitivity level
d. Least privilege

A

a. Job rotation

Collusion involves multiple parties conspiring to perform an act harmful to the organization. By rotating jobs, collusion becomes more difficult as an increasing number of individuals must agree to harm the organization.

29
Q

Data access decisions are best made by:

a. User managers
b. Data owners
c. Senior management
d. Application developer

A

b. Data owners

Data owners are ultimately responsible for the information and therefore should determine access decisions.

30
Q

Which of the following statements BEST describes the extent to which an organization should address business continuity or disaster recovery planning?

a. Continuity planning is a significant organizational issue and should include all parts or functions of the company.
b. Continuity planning is a significant technology issue and the recovery of technology should be its primary focus.
c. Continuity planning is required only where there is complexity in voice and data communications.
d. Continuity planning is a significant management issue and should include the primary functions specified by management.

A

a. Continuity planning is a significant organizational issue and should include all parts or functions of the company.

Business continuity planning and Disaster recovery planning involve the identification, selection, implementation, testing, and updating of prudent processes and specific actions necessary to protect critical business processes from the effects of major system and network disruptions and to ensure the timely restoration of business operations if significant disruptions occur.

31
Q

Business impact analysis is performed to BEST identify:

a. The impacts of a threat to the organization operations.
b. The exposures to loss to the organization.
c. The impacts of a risk on the organization.
d. The cost efficient way to eliminate threat

A

b. The exposures to loss to the organization.

The business impact analysis is what is going to help the company decide what needs to be recovered and how quickly it needs to be recovered.

32
Q

During the risk analysis phase of the planning, which of the following actions could BEST manage threats or mitigate the effects of an event?

a. Modifying the exercise scenario.
b. Developing recovery procedures.
c. Increasing reliance on key individuals
d. Implementing procedural controls.

A

d. Implementing procedural controls.

The third element of risk is mitigating factors. Mitigating factors are the controls or safeguards the planner will put in place to reduce the impact of a threat.

33
Q

The BEST reason to implement additional controls or safeguards is to:

a. deter or remove the risk.
b. identify and eliminate the threat.
c. reduce the impact of the threat.
d. identify the risk and the threat.

A

c. reduce the impact of the threat.

Preventing a disaster is always better than trying to recover from one. If the planner can recommend controls to be put in place to prevent the most likely of risks from having an impact on the organization’s ability to do business, then the planner will have fewer actual events to recover from.

34
Q

Which of the following statements BEST describes organization impact analysis?

a. Risk analysis and organization impact analysis are two different terms describing the same project effort.
b. A organization impact analysis calculates the probability of disruptions to the organization.
c. A organization impact analysis is critical to development of a business continuity plan.
d. A organization impact analysis establishes the effect of disruptions on the organization.

A

d. A organization impact analysis establishes the effect of disruptions on the organization.

All business functions and the technology that supports them need to be classified based on their recovery priority. Recovery time frames for business operations are driven by the consequences of not performing the function. The consequences may be the result of business lost during the down period; contractual commitments not met resulting in fines or lawsuits, lost goodwill with customers, etc.

35
Q

The term “disaster recovery” refers to the recovery of:

a. organization operations.
b. technology environment.
c. manufacturing environment.
d. personnel environments.

A

b. technology environment.

Once computers became part of the business landscape, it quickly became clear that we could not return to our manual processes if our computers failed. If those computer systems failed, there were not enough people to do the work nor did the people in the business still have the skill to do it manually anymore. Th is was the start of the disaster recovery industry. Still today, the term “disaster recovery” or “DR” commonly means recovery of the technology environment.

36
Q

Which of the following terms BEST describes the effort to determine the consequences of disruptions that could result from a disaster?

a. Business impact analysis.
b. Risk analysis.
c. Risk assessment.
d. Project problem definition

A

a. Business impact analysis.

The BIA is what is going to help the company decide what needs to be recovered and how quickly it needs to be recovered.

37
Q

The elements of risk are as follows:

a. Natural disasters and manmade disasters
b. Threats, assets and mitigating controls
c. Risk and business impact analysis
d. business impact analysis and mitigating controls

A

b. Threats, assets and mitigating controls

There are three elements of risk: threats, assets, and mitigating factors.

38
Q

Which of the following methods is not acceptable for exercising the business continuity plan?

a. Table-top exercise.
b. Call exercise.
c. Simulated exercise.
d. Halting a production application or function.

A

d. Halting a production application or function.

The only difference between a simulated and an actual exercise is that the first rule of testing is the planner will never create a disaster by testing for one. The planner must make every effort to make certain that what is being tested will not impact the production environment whether business or technical.

39
Q

Which of the following is the primary desired result of any well-planned business continuity exercise?

a. Identifies plan strengths and weaknesses.
b. Satisfies management requirements.
c. Complies with auditor’s requirements.
d. Maintains shareholder confidence

A

a. Identifies plan strengths and weaknesses.

After every exercise the planner conducts, the exercise results need to be published and action items identified to address the issues that were uncovered by the exercise. Action items should be tracked until they have been resolved and, where appropriate, the plan updated. It is very unfortunate when an organization has the same issue in subsequent tests simply because someone did not update the plan.

40
Q

A business continuity plan is best updated and maintained:

a. Annually or when requested by auditors.
b. Only when new versions of software are deployed.
c. . Only when new hardware is deployed.
d. During the configuration and change management process.

A

d. During the configuration and change management process.

The plan document and all related procedures will need to be updated after each exercise and after each material change to the production, IT, or business environment.

41
Q

Which of the following is MOST important for successful business continuity?

a. Senior leadership support.
b. Strong technical support staff.
c. Extensive wide area network infrastructure.
d. An integrated incident response team.

A

a. Senior leadership support.

Without senior leadership support it is unlikely a business continuity program will succeed.

42
Q

A service’s recovery point objective is zero. Which approach BEST ensures the requirement is met?

a. RAID 6 with a hot site alternative.
b. RAID 0 with a warm site alternative
c. RAID 0 with a cold site alternative
d. RAID 6 with a reciprocal agreement.

A

a. RAID 6 with a hot site alternative.

RAID 6 will provide a highly redundant storage situation while the hot site will stand ready to fail over should the primary site fail.

43
Q

The (ISC)2 code of ethics resolves conflicts between canons by:

a. there can never be conflicts between canons.
b. working through adjudication.
c. the order of the canons.
d. vetting all canon conflicts through the board of directors.

A

c. the order of the canons.