Security+ Acronyms I - Review Flashcards

1
Q

3DES?

A

Triple Digital Encryption Standard

  • Deprecated and considered insecure.
  • Replaced by AES
  • Symmetric
  • Applies the DES Cipher Algorithm 3 times to each Data Block.
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2
Q

AAA?

A

Authentication, Authorization, Accounting

  • Often used to describe RADIUS, or some other form of Networking Protocl that provides Authentication, Authorization, Accounting.
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3
Q

ABAC?

A

Attribute-based Access Control

  • Database and Identity service used to provide Identity Management
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4
Q

ACL?

A

Access Control List

  • Set of rules that allow/permit or deny any traffic flow through Routers.
  • Looks at the packet to determine whether it should be allowed or denied.
  • Works at Layer 3 to provide Security by filtering and controlling the flow of traffic from one Router to another.
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5
Q

AES?

A

Advanced Encryption Standard

  • Industry-standard for Data Security
  • 128-bit, 192-bit, or 256-bit implementations (Strongest).
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6
Q

AES256?

A

Advanced Encrption Standard 256-bit

  • This is the 256-bit implementation of AES.
  • 256 references the bit size of the Keys.
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7
Q

AH?

A

Authentication Header

  • Used to Authenticate origins of Packets of Data transmitted.
  • These Headers don’t hide any Data from attackers, but they do provide proof that the Data Packets are from a trusted source and that the data hasn’t been tampered with.
  • Helps protect against Replay Attacks.
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8
Q

AI?

A

Artificial Intelligence

  • For the Exam, be aware of what’s called Data Poisoning (or Tainted Training) and adversarial AI.
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9
Q

AIS?

A

Automated Indicator Sharing

  • DHS and CISA Free Program
  • Enables organizations to share and receive machine-readable Cyber Threat Indicators (CTI) and Defensive Measures (DM) in Real-Time
  • Useful to monitor and defend Networks against known threats.
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10
Q

ALE?

A

Annualized Loss Expectancy

  • IE: Can expect X number of devices to fail per year.
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11
Q

AP?

A

Access Point

  • Networking Hardware device that provides WIFI access, typically then connected via wire to the Router, or directly integrated in the Router itself.
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12
Q

API?

A

Application Programming Interface

  • APIs are used to allow applicationst o talk to one another.
  • For Example: An application can query an API to retrieve data and then display that data or process it in some way.
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13
Q

APT?

A

Advanced Persistent Threat

  • Stealthy Threat Actor (usually Nation-State or State-Sponsored Groups) that gains unauthorized access to a system and remains undetected for a period of time.
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14
Q

ARO?

A

Annualized Rate of Occurrence

  • The calculated probability that a Risk will occur in a given year.
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15
Q

ASLR?

A

Address Space Layout Randomization

  • Prevent exploitation of memory corruption vulnerabilities.
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16
Q

ASP?

A

Active Server Page

  • Microsoft Server-Side scripting language and engine to create dynamic Web Pages.
  • Superseded by ASP.NET in 2002.
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17
Q

ATT&CK?

A

Adversarial Tactics, Techniques & Common Knowledge

  • Knowledge base Framework of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations.
  • Helpful to build effective threat models and defenses against real threats.
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18
Q

AUP?

A

Acceptable Use Policy

  • Terms that users must accept in order to use a Network, System, Website, etc…
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19
Q

AV?

A

Antivirus

  • Antivirus Software
  • Typically uses Signature-based detection
  • Not effective against Zero-Day or Polymorphic Malware.
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20
Q

BASH?

A

Bourne Again Shell

  • Powerful UNIX Shell and command language.
  • Used to issue commands that get executed, which can also be turned into Shell scripts.
  • Often used for Automation.
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21
Q

BCP?

A

Business Continuity Plan

  • Plan used to create processes and systems of both prevention and recovery to deal with threats that a company faces.
  • This plan outlines how a business can continue delivering products and services if crap hits the fan.
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22
Q

BIA?

A

Business Impact Analysis

  • Used to predict the consequences a business would face if there were to be a disruption.
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23
Q

BGP?

A

Border Gateway Protocol

  • The “Postal Service” of the Internet.
  • BGP finds the best Route for Data to travel to reach its destination.
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24
Q

BIOS?

A

Basic Input/Output System

  • Firmware that performs hardware initialization when systems are booting up, and to provide runtime services for the OS and programs.
  • First software to run when you power on a Computer System.
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25
Q

BPA?

A

Business Partnership Agreement

  • Defines a contract between two or more parties as to how a business should run.
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26
Q

BPDU?

A

Bridge Protocol Data Unit

  • Frames that have Spanning Tree Protocol information.
  • Switches send BPDUs with a unique source MAC Address to multicast address with a destination MAC.
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27
Q

BYOD?

A

Bring Your Own Device

  • When employees use personal devices to connect to their organization’s Networks and access work-related Systems.
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28
Q

CA?

A

Certificate Authority

  • An organization that validates the identities of entities through Cryptographic Keys by issuing digital certificates.
  • If you check the padlock on a Website (next to the domain name), you’ll see that it says “Connection is Secure” and then you can click on the “Certificate is Valid”. – You’ll then see info about the Certificate, Issued To, Issued By, as well as a Valid Date Range. – If you click the “Certification Path” Tab, you’ll see the details about the Issuer, AKA the Certificate Authority.
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29
Q

CAC?

A

Common Access Card

  • Smart Card for Active-Duty/Civilian Contractor Personnel
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30
Q

CAPTCHA?

A

Complete Automated Public Turing Test to Tell Computers and Humans Apart

  • These are the “problems” you have to solve from time to time to make sure that you are NOT a Robot.
  • Typically used for forms (signup, login, purchase, search, etc…) to defend against Bots.
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31
Q

CAR?

A

Corrective Action Report

  • Lists defects that need to be rectified.
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32
Q

CASB?

A

Cloud Access Security Broker

  • Acts as an intermediary between the cloud and on-prem.
  • Monitors all activity.
  • Enforces Security policies.
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33
Q

CBC?

A

Cipher Block Chaining

  • CBC is a mode of operation for Block CIphers.
  • Think of a CBC as building a chain from left to right.
  • CBC does have vulnerabilities, including POODLE and Goldendoodle.
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34
Q

CBT?

A

Computer-based Training

  • An online, self-paced, and interactive training system.
    Studends can set their own goals and learn at their own pace.
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35
Q

CCMP?

A

Counter-Mode/CBC-Mac Protocol

  • Encryption protocol designed for Wireless LAN products.
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36
Q

CCTV?

A

Closed-Circuit Television

  • Camera monitoring system, especially one that transmits back to a centralized location with a limited number of monitors.
  • Could be monitored by Security personnel or simply set to record.
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37
Q

CERT?

A

Computer Emergency Response Team

  • Expert group that handles computer Security incidents.
  • Could also be called CSIRT, which is short for COmputer Security Incident Response Team.
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38
Q

CIRT?

A

Computer Incident Response Team

  • Expert group that handles computer Security incidents.
  • Could also be called CSIRT, which is short for COmputer Security Incident Response Team.
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39
Q

CFB?

A

Cipher Feedback

  • When a mode of operation uses the Ciphertext from the previous block in the chain.
  • IE: Look up Cipher Feedback Mode (CFB)
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40
Q

CHAP?

A

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol

  • Authenticates a user or Network host to an authenticating entity.
  • Provides protection against Replay Attacks.
  • Requires that both the client and server know the Plaintext of the Secret, but it’s never sent over the Network.
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41
Q

CIO?

A

Chief Information Officer

  • Company executive responsible for implementing and managing IT.
  • Mostly considered to be IT generalists.
  • Useful way to think about it, CIO aims to improve processes within and for the company.
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42
Q

CTO?

A

Chief Technology Officer

  • CTO is different from CIO, and typically focuses on development, engineering, and research and development departments.
  • Useful way to think about it, CTO uses technology to improve and create products and service for customers.
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43
Q

CSO?

A

Chief Security Officer

  • Executives that specialize in Security
  • Much more focused of a responsibility than CIO.
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44
Q

CIS?

A

Center for Internet Security

  • Non-profit organization that helps put together, validate, and promote best practices to help people, businesses, and governments protect themselves against Cyber threats.
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45
Q

CMS?

A

Content Management System

  • IE: WordPress
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46
Q

COOP?

A

Continuity of Operation Planning

  • Effort for agencies to make sure they continue operations during a wide range of emergencies.
  • Requires planning for various types of events such as natural or human-caused disasters.
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47
Q

COPE?

A

Corporate Owned Personal Enabled

  • Organization provides its employees with Mobile Computing Devices.
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48
Q

CP?

A

Contingency Planning

  • Used to restore systems and information in the event that systems become compromised.
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49
Q

CRC?

A

Cyclical Redundancy Check

  • Used to detect accidental changes in digital Networks and storage devices.
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50
Q

CRL?

A

Certificate Revocation List

  • List of Digital Certificates that have been revoked by the issuing Certificate Authority (CA).
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51
Q

CSP?

A

Cloud Service Provider

  • IE: AWS, GCP, Azure
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52
Q

CSR?

A

Certificate Signing Request

  • Contains information that the Certificate Authority (CA) will use to create your Certificate.
  • Contains the Public Key for which the Certificate should be issued, and other identifying information.
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53
Q

CSRF?

A

Cross-Site Request Forgery

  • Unauthorized actions are performed on behalf of a legitimate user.
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54
Q

CSU?

A

Channel Service Unit

  • Device used for Digital Links to transfer data.
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55
Q

CTM?

A

Counter-Mode

  • Converts a Block CIpher into a Stream Cipher
  • COmbines an IV with a counter and uses the result to encrypt each plaintext block.
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56
Q

CVE?

A

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

  • List of publicaly disclosed computer security flaws.
  • These security flaws get assigned a CVE ID number which people can use to reference them.
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57
Q

CVSS?

A

Common Vulnerability Scoring System

  • Public framework used to rate the severity of security vulnerabilities.
  • IE: If you find a vulnerability as a bug bounty or in your own organization’s systems, and you report that vulnerability, assigning a CVSS number to it will help decision makers understand the severity and impact so they can properly assign priority.
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58
Q

CYOD?

A

Choose Your Own Device

  • Employees can choose a Company-Assigned device from a limited number of Company Specified options.
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59
Q

DAC?

A

Discretionary Access Control

  • Restrict access based on the identity of subjects and/or groups that they belong to.
60
Q

DBA?

A

Database Administrator

  • Personnel responsible for maintaining databases and the data they contain.
61
Q

DDoS?

A

Distributed Denial of Service

  • Attack that aims to take a service offline by flooding it with an overwhelming amount of requests from multiple different locations/devices.
  • Using a Zombie-Net/Botnet
62
Q

DoS?

A

Denial of Service

  • Attack which are only sending requests from one location/device to take down a system/service.
63
Q

DEP?

A

Data Execution Prevention

  • Microsoft Security feature.
  • Monitors and Protects pages or regions of Memory.
  • Prevents data regions from executing (potentially malicious) code.
64
Q

DER?

A

Distinguished Encoding Rules

65
Q

DES?

A

Digital Encryption Standard

  • Weak Encryption algorithm.
66
Q

DHCP?

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

  • Used to automatically assign IP Addresses to devices on a Network.
  • Doesn’t include Security features by default, which means that attackers can leverage it to launch attacks.
  • x2 Examples of DHCP Attacks include:
    1. DHCP Starvation which causes a DoS
    2. DHCP Spoofing which leads to On-Path Attacks
  • To prevent DHCP Attacks
    • Authenticated DHCP: Replaces the normal DHCP messages with Authenticated messages.
    • Port Security: limits the number of MAC addresses that can be seen through a particular Switch interface.
67
Q

DHE?

A

Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral

  • Way of securely exchanging Cryptographic Keys over public channels.
68
Q

DKIM?

A

Domain Keys Identified Mail

  • Email authenitication technique - applies signatures by the mail server of the sender’s domain.
  • Used to detect email spoofing.
  • Allows the receiver to make sure that an email was sent by the authorized owner of the domain via digital signatures.
69
Q

DLL?

A

Dynamic Link Library

70
Q

DLP?

A

Data Loss Prevention

71
Q

DMARC?

A

Domain Message Authentication Reporting and Conformance

  • Authenticates email with Sender Policy Framework (SPF) and Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)
  • Used to prevent phishing and spoofing.
72
Q

DMZ?

A

Demilitarized Zone

  • Or Screened Subnet
  • Designed to expose externally-facing services to the Internet without unnecessarily exposing resources in internal Networks.
  • You may have resources that have to be exposed to the Internet, but rather than open up the internal LAN, we can create a separate Network specifically for those resources and then add Firewalls in between the Networks.
73
Q

DNAT?

A

Destination Network Address Translation

74
Q

DNS?

A

Domain Name Service (Server)

  • TCP/UDP
  • PORT 53
  • Used to resolve hostnames to IP addresses and IP addresses to hostnames.
75
Q

DNSSEC?

A

Domain Name Service Security Extensions

  • Provides Cryptographic authentication of data, authenticated denial of existence, and data integrity.
76
Q

DPO?

A

Data Privacy Officer

77
Q

DRP?

A

Disaster Recovery Plan

78
Q

DSA?

A

Digital Signature Algorithm

79
Q

DSL?

A

Digital Subscriber Line

80
Q

EAP?

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol

  • Authentication Framework used in LANs
81
Q

ECB?

A

Electronic Code Book

  • DOesn’t hide data patterns well, so it wouldn’t work to Encrypt images for example.
82
Q

ECC?

A

Elliptic Curve Cryptography

  • Good for mobile devices because it can use smaller keys.
83
Q

ECDHE?

A

Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral

  • Key Exchange mechanism based on elliptic curves but with Diffie-Hellman over public channels.
  • Cloudflare uses this for example.
84
Q

ESDSA?

A

Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm

  • Digital Signature algorithm based on elliptic curve Cryptography (ECC)
  • Uses Digital Signatures
85
Q

EDR?

A

Endpoint Detection and Response

86
Q

EFS?

A

Encrypted File System

87
Q

EOL?

A

End of Life

  • Data set where manufacturers will no longer create the product.
88
Q

EOS?

A

End of Service

  • Original manufacturer no longer offers updates, support, or service.
89
Q

ERP?

A

Enterprise Resource Planning

  • Software used by orgs to manage day-to-day business activities.
90
Q

ESN?

A

Electronic Serial Number

91
Q

ESP?

A

Encapsulated Security Payload

  • Member of IPsec set of protocols.
  • Encrypts and authenticates packets of data between computers using VPNs
92
Q

FACL?

A

File System Access Control List

93
Q

FCIP?

A

Fiber Channel Internet Protocol

  • TCP/UDP
  • PORT 3225
  • Used to encapsulate Fiber Channel frames within TCP/IP Packets
  • Usually used for Storage Area Networks (SAN) as well.
94
Q

FDE?

A

Full Disk Encryption

95
Q

FPGA?

A

Field Programmable Gate Array

  • Integrated circuit designed to be configured by a customer or designer after manufacturing.
96
Q

FRR?

A

False Rejection Rate

  • Liklihood that a biometric Security system will incorrectly reject an acess attempt by an Authorized user.
97
Q

FTP?

A

File Transfer Protocol

  • TCP
  • PORT 21
  • Used to transfer files from Host to Host
  • UNSECURED
98
Q

FTPS?

A

Secured File Transfer Protocol

  • TCP
  • PORT/s 989/990
  • Used to transfer files from Host to Host over an Encrypted connection.
99
Q

GCM?

A

Galois Counter Mode

  • High speeds with low cost and low latency.
  • Provides authenticated encryption.
100
Q

GDPR?

A

General Data Protection Regulation

101
Q

GPG?

A

Gnu Privacy Guard

102
Q

GPO?

A

Group Policy Object

  • Contains two nodes: A user configuration and a computer configuration.
  • Collection of Group Policy settings.
103
Q

GPS?

A

Global Positioning System

104
Q

GPU?

A

Graphics Processing Unit

105
Q

GRE?

A

Generic Routing Encapsulation

  • Tunneling Protocol
106
Q

HA?

A

High Availability

107
Q

HDD?

A

Hard Disk Drive

108
Q

HIDS?

A

Host-based Intrusion Detection System

  • Detects and Alerts upon detecting an intrusion in a Host as well as Network Packets in Network Interfaces - similar to NIDS (Network-based Intrusion Detection System)
  • Detects and Alerts, can’t take action on it.
109
Q

HIPS?

A

Host-based Intrusion Protection System

  • Like HIDS, but it CAN take Action towards mitigating a detected threat.
110
Q

HMAC?

A

Hashed Message Authentication Code

  • Combines a shared secret Key with hashing.
  • Can be used to verify data integrity and authenticity of a message.
111
Q

HOTP?

A

HMAC One Time Password

  • One-Time Password algorithm based on Hash-based Message authentication codes.
  • Event-based OTP (One-Time Password)
  • Yubikey is an example of an OTP generator that uses HOTP
  • Not time based (Has a longer window before expiration.)
112
Q

HSM?

A

Hardware Security Module

  • Physical device that safeguards and manages digital keys (IE: Private CA Keys)
  • Performs encryption/decryption functions for Digital Signatures.
113
Q

HTML?

A

HyperText Markup Language

114
Q

HTTP?

A

HyperText Transfer Protocol

  • TCP
  • PORT 80
  • Used to transmit web page data to a Client for UNSECURE web browsing.
115
Q

HTTPS?

A

HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure - over SSL/TLS

  • TCP
  • PORT 443
  • Used to transmit web page data to client over an SSL/TLS Encrypted connection.
116
Q

HVAC?

A

Heating, Ventilation, Air Conditioning

117
Q

IaaS?

A

Infrastructure as a Service

  • Hardware ONLY
  • No specific purposes other than offloading responsibility and resources to the Cloud.
118
Q

ICMP?

A

Internet Control Message Protocol

  • Used by Network devices such as Routers to send error messages or other operational information indicating success/failure when communicating with another IP Address.
119
Q

ICS?

A

Industrial Control System

  • General term to describe control systems associated with industrial proceses.
120
Q

IDEA?

A

International Data Encryption Algorithm

  • Symmetric-Key block CIpher
121
Q

IDF?

A

Intermedia Distribution Frame

  • Cable Rack in a central office that cross connects and manages IT or telecom cabling between a Main Distribution Frame (MDF) and remote workstation devices.
  • Used for WAN and LAN environments for example.
122
Q

IdP?

A

Identity Provider

  • Service that stores and manages digital identities
  • Provides authentication services to apps within a federation or distributed Network.
  • User Authentication as a Service/User Adoption as a Service (UAaaS)
123
Q

IDS?

A

Intrusion Detection System

  • Detects and Alerts
  • Does not Prevent or Fix
124
Q

IEEE?

A

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers

125
Q

IKE?

A

Internet Key Exchange

  • UDP Port 500
  • Protocol used to set up a Security Association (SA) in the IPsec Protocol suite.
126
Q

IM?

A

Instant Messaging

127
Q

IMAP4?

A

Internet Message Access Protocol v4

  • API that enables email programs to access the Mail Server.
  • Example: Outlook can be configured to retrieve email via IMAP4 or POP3.

IMAP4 SSL/TLS - Internet Message Access Protocol v4 Secure
- TCP
- PORT 993

128
Q

IoC?

A

Indicators of Compromise

  • Forensic data found in systems via log entries or files that identify potentially malicious activity on a System or Network.
129
Q

IoT?

A

Internet of Things

130
Q

IP?

A

Internet Protocol

131
Q

IPsec?

A

Internet Protocol Security

  • In the Internet Layer of the TCP/IP stack.
  • Secure Network Protocol suite that authenticates and encrypts the packets of data to provide encrypted communication.
  • Used in VPNs
  • Can be used to protect data flows between two Hosts (Host-to-Host), two Networks (Network-to-Network) or between a Security gateway and host (Network-to-Host).
  • Protects against Replay Attacks
132
Q

IR?

A

Incident Response

133
Q

IRC?

A

Internet Relay Chat

134
Q

IRP?

A

Incident Response Plan

  • Preparation
  • Detection & Analysis
  • Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
  • Post-Incident Activity
135
Q

ISO?

A

International Organization for Standardization

  • Organization that develops and published International Standards
136
Q

ISP?

A

Internet Service Provider

137
Q

ISSO?

A

Information Systems Security Officer

138
Q

ITCP?

A

Information Technology Contingency Plan

  • Plans, Policies, Procedures, and technical measures that enable the recovery of IT Operations after unexpected incidents.
139
Q

IV?

A

Initialization Vector

  • Used in cryptography is an input to a cryptographic primitive.
  • Used to provide the initial state.
140
Q

KDC?

A

Key Distribution Center

  • Used to reduce risks in exchanging keyes.
  • A user requests to use a service. The KDC will use cryptographic techniques to authenticate requesting users as themselves, and it will check whether a user has the right to access the service requested.
  • If the user has the right, the KDC can issue a ticket permitting access.
141
Q

KEK?

A

Key Encrypting Key

  • A Key that Encrypts another Key for transmission or storage.
142
Q

L2TP?

A

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

  • UDP
  • PORT 1701
  • Used to support VPNs or as part of the delivery of services by ISPs.
  • Uses encryption only for its own control messages, not for content itself.
  • Uses IPsec for data encryption over Layer 3
143
Q

LAN?

A

Local Area Network

144
Q

LDAP?

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

  • TCP/UDP
  • PORT 389
  • Unencrypted
  • Open and vendor-neutral application protocol for managing and interacting with directory servers.
  • Often used for authentication and storing information about users, groups, and applications.
  • Can be susceptible to LDAP injections.

LDAP SSL/TLS - Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure
- TCP/UDP
- PORT 636

145
Q

LEAP?

A

Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol

  • Wireless LAN authentication method.
  • Dynamic WEP keys and mutual authentication (Between a Wireless Client and a RADIUS Server)