Section Three Flashcards

1
Q

What condition permits helicopter rotor blades to droop to within five feet of the ground while they are turning?

A

Droop stop malfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The noise intensity of jet aircraft is greatest

A

In the rear of the engines at an angle of 45 degrees on either side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When electromagnetic radiation is absorbed in the tissues if the body

A

Hear is produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which form has an entry identifying the types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft?

A

AFTO form 781A, maintenance discrepancy and work document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the first step I making sure an aircraft is safe for maintenance?

A

Checking the aircraft forms for the aircraft status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When are aircraft most susceptible to fire?

A

While the engines are running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What hazard is of special concern during aircraft brake fires?

A

Flying debris resulting from tire blowout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bombs can be expected to detonate within how long after being enveloped in flames?

A

Two to five minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When missiles are involved in an aircraft fire, approach the fire, if possible, from

A

The side of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

On a four person load crew, which member is deemed the primary firefighter?

A

Number three person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Personnel line badges are classified as what as what type of FOD?

A

Metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hailstones are classified as what kind of FOD?

A

Misc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the FOD walk?

A

An organized inspection and physical pickup of foreign objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Aluminum’s formation of a tightly adhering oxide film

A

Provides increased resistance under mild corrosive conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In unprotected, ferrous metal surfaces are

A

Easily corroded if moisture is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Piano binges are prime spots for corrosion because they are natural traps for dirt, salt, and moisture and

A

Dissimilar metal contact between the steel pin and aluminum hinge tangs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An important part of corrosion control I’d detecting and correcting when the corrosion when it is in what stages?

A

Earliest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What corrosion accelerant agent does dust, dirt, acid spills, or waste materials provide?

A

Electrolyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed throughout the entire aircraft electrical system?

A

Aircraft power panels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The energizing and de energizing of bomb rack solenoid snag selected weapons stations normally is performed through the

A

Main armament control panels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What panel works in conjunction with the special weapons control panels to facilitate all of the functions needed to release s special weapon?

A

Subsystem control panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What two basic armament system controls are normally found in the pilot’s stick grip?

A

Trigger and armament release switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which aircraft use integrates keyboards?

A

B-52, B-1, B-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The functions of s digital system are initiated by

A

Main computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which aircraft employs all three stores management systems?

A

B-52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What aircraft system monsters an aircraft’s system and indicates or reports its status to the aircrew or ground maintenance technician?

A

Fault isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In a fault isolation system using built in test checks, the results if the test should marks a fault down to a

A

Subsystem or system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Normally, the advanced computer fault isolation system narrows malfunctions down to a single line replaceable unit

A

95 percent of the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Before release firing pulses are allowed access to an installed nuclear weapon, an aircraft’s nuclear weapons system must be properly

A

Enabled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems normally facilitate the computerized release of onboard

A

Missiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which item is the only mechanically operated bomb rack presently in use?

A

B-11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

During release, what component of the B-11 bomb shackle retains the arming wire?

A

Arming hook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which bomb racks are nuclear capable?

A

MAU-12, BRU-44, BRU-47

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Nuclear capable bomb racks are equipped with

A

An inflight safety lock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What component of a cluster rack actuated the B-11 bomb shackle to release munitions?

A

A-6 release unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Rotating of the bomb module swing arms is enabled by

A

Cartridge powered actuators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How many munitions can be loaded onto the MIL-STD-1760 enhanced conventional bomb module?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many MK-82 500 pound bombs can be carried by the bomb rack assembly?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which columns are capable of holding cluster bomb units on the smart bomb rack assembly?

A

One, three, and four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled

A

Electrically

41
Q

During ground rotation of the multipurpose rotary launcher rotation, speed is

A

1/8 normal rotation speed

42
Q

Which bomb rack is used on the rotary launch assembly?

43
Q

When the MASTER ARM power is initially applied, a TER will step to the

A

First loaded station position of the unit

44
Q

When the BDU-33s are carried on a TER to provide alignment of the bomb, you must install

A

A yoke adapter

45
Q

What bomb racks are used by the BRU-58 smart rack to carry stores weighing up to 1000 lbs?

46
Q

Which munition is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying?

47
Q

How many munitions is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying?

48
Q

The interchangeable pylons are

A

Installed at any station

49
Q

How does the safety clutch safe the F-22 pylons?

A

Electrically and mechanically

50
Q

What is the only gas operated missile launcher?

51
Q

What is the only Pneumatically operated missile launcher?

52
Q

If the LAU-142s ground safety lever is not in the “GND” position, what will happen if the launcher fully extends?

A

The launcher will automatically release the missile hangers

53
Q

Normally, what do you use and coat launcher rail surfaces?

A

Molybdenum disulfide (dry lube)

54
Q

On the LAU-88 missile launcher, what keeps the shear pin from backing out during flight?

55
Q

What rail missile launcher carries the AGM-114

A

Modified M299

56
Q

On AIM-9 and AIM-120 capable rail launchers, what prevents the missile from leaving the rail if the rocket motor fires inadvertently?

A

An inflight lock (IFL)

57
Q

What is the only rail launcher that automatically engages the missile umbilical during loading?

A

Modified M299

58
Q

What is the rocket capacity of the LAU-131 rocket launcher?

59
Q

What mechanism within the LAU-131’s tubes restrains the rockers against normal flying loads?

60
Q

How is the LAU-131 rocket pod safed?

A

Electrically with a shorting pin

61
Q

What adapter was developed to allow the B-1 to carry and drop BDU-33s?

A

Practice bomb adapter rack

62
Q

How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser

63
Q

What biting system release option is equated to a single selected weapons release?

64
Q

What aircraft generated computer signal allows the AIM-120 missile to begin its launch cycle?

A

Release consent

65
Q

What armament system circuits are normally disabled during selective jettison?

A

Mechanical fuzing

66
Q

Which aircraft does not have pylon jettisoning capabilities?

67
Q

Who has the authority to change time constraints of operational/functional checks?

A

Local commander

68
Q

Which of the following is a detrimental effect of barrel heating?

A

Increased barrel wear and warping

69
Q

To comp,step the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied to the

A

Breech housing

70
Q

What us the maximum firing rate of the GAU-2?

71
Q

Heat ammunition feed system is used to supply the GAU-2?

72
Q

What component of the M61A1 breech bolt locks fit in the firing position?

A

Locking block

73
Q

What component of the M61A1 breech bolt makes electrical contact with the primer of the round?

A

Firing pin

74
Q

What M61A1 gun component locks the barrels into position?

A

Center clamp

75
Q

What caliber of ammunition is fired by the GAU-12/U?

76
Q

What us rage firing rate of the 25mm gun?

A

1800 (+-100) SPM

77
Q

Into his many parts is the GAU-8/A 30mm gun rotor assembly divided?

78
Q

What GAU-8/A 30mm gun component locks the barrel in the rotor?

A

Interrupted locking lugs

79
Q

The M240 operates under the

A

Open bolt concept

80
Q

The GAU-18 machine gun is operated

81
Q

When does the recoiling step of the GAU-18 firing cycle begin?

A

The instant of firing

82
Q

What ammunition feed system is used to supply the M2A1 40mm gun?

83
Q

What two 40mm gun components absorb the reward rust caused by firing the gun?

A

Recuperator spring and recoil cylinder

84
Q

What M2A1 40mm gun component is responsible for holding the barrel assembly in the gun, and scars as a safety device to prevent the gun from firing whenever the barrel assembly is removed or improperly installed?

A

Breech ring assembly

85
Q

What component of the 105mm guy is composed of the sleigh, recuperator assemblies

A

Recoil mechanism

86
Q

What unit of the link less system is attached to the aft end of a drum assembly?

87
Q

The function of the transfer unit on the link less system is to remove rounds from the

A

Conveyor elements and feed them into the gun

88
Q

On the gun gas scavenge systems, after the trigger is released, purge doors stay open for approximately

A

30 seconds

89
Q

What aircraft makes use of a moveable door covering the firing port for the projectiles to exit the aircraft?

90
Q

What spare the two types of operational/functional checks for gun systems?

A

Mechanical and electrical

91
Q

When using the bore sight method of harmonization, the bore sight target normally us placed

A

1000 inches from the nose wheel axle

92
Q

Where is the adjustment made on the gun when bore sighting?

A

Gun mounts

93
Q

Before handling any electrically primed munitions, you must

A

Ground yourself

94
Q

If burning particles of white phosphorus strike the skin, you must keep the phosphorus covered with

A

A wet cloth

95
Q

The first thing you do I munitions prep is make sure that the munition

A

Matches mission requirements

96
Q

During what loading step do you insert arming wire loops into the bomb rack solenoids?

97
Q

During a concurrent servicing operation what servicing action cannot be performed while refueling?

98
Q

During a concurrent servicing operation a concurrent servicing supervisor is not required when

A

Fueling is not being performed

99
Q

Before operating bomb bay door systems for check out you must make sure

A

The proper strut supports have been installed