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In-Service > Section D > Flashcards

Section D Flashcards

1
Q

Spontaneous regression

May mimic SSC

A

Keratocanthoma

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2
Q

Civette body

A

Lichen planus

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3
Q

Verocay body

A

Neurolemmoma

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4
Q

Tzanck cell

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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5
Q

Koplik’s spots

A

Measles

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6
Q

Ghost cells

A

Calcifying odontogenic cyst

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7
Q

Gorlin cyst

A

Calcifying odontogenic cyst

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8
Q

Strawberry gingivitis

A

Wegener’s Granulomatosis

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9
Q

Birbeck granules

A

Langerhans Cell Hystiocytosis

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10
Q

High risk intraoral for oral melanoma

A

Hard palate

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11
Q

Causative agent of focal epithelial hyperplasia

A

HPV 13/32

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12
Q

Increase risk for SCC w/ lichen planus and ____

A

HPV

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13
Q

Looks like lupus erythematosos

A

Lichen planus

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14
Q

Highest potential for malignant transformation

A

Erosive LP

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15
Q

DIF not diagnostic

A

Erythema multiforme

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16
Q

Functional adenoma of pituitary gland

A

Acromegaly

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17
Q

Intraoral for syphilis

A

Gumma
Chancre
Mucous patch

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18
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma

  • Where
  • What virus
  • Male/female
  • Age
A

Hard palate

HHV-8

Male

Late adulthood

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19
Q

Most common for granular cell tumor

A

Tongue

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20
Q

Mumps presents intraorally at…

A

Salivary glands

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21
Q

Measles signs

A

High fever
Maculopapular rash
Keratoconjunctivitis

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22
Q

Cherubism intrabony lesions resembles

A

CGCG

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23
Q

Gorlin cyst AKA

A

Nevoid basal cell carcinoma

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24
Q

1 feature nevoid basal cell carcinoma

A

OKC

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25
Q

Chronic sinusitis lasting longer than ____

A

3 months

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26
Q

HIV + what virus = what intraoral finding

A

HIV + EBV = oral hairy leukoplakia

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27
Q

Site for most common oral soft tissue metastasis

A

Gingiva

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28
Q

Most common metastatic carcinoma affecting periodontium

A

Lung

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29
Q

Stevens Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are forms of _____

A

Erythema multiforme

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30
Q

Pemphigus is AB against ____

A

Desmosomes in epithelium

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31
Q

Pemphigoid is AB against ______

A

BM

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32
Q

Target lesion

A

Erythema multiforme

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33
Q

Granulation tissue w/ numerous small vascular channels w/ ulcerated fibrinopurulent membrane

A

Pyogenic granuloma

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34
Q

MEN Type 2B intraoral findings

A

Oral mucosal neuroma

Pheochromocytoma

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35
Q

White patch that can’t be removed

A

Hyperplastic CD

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36
Q

Brown tumor of hyperparathyroidism = ?

A

CGCG

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37
Q

CGCG found where?

Symptomatic?

A

Mandible

Asymptomatic

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38
Q

Myxedema occurs because?

Symptoms?

A

Severe hypothyroid

Diffuse thickening of lips/tongue due to GAG accumulation

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39
Q

Excess GH after closure of epiphyseal plate

A

Acromegaly

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40
Q

Hyperpigmentation of oral mucosa

A

Malarial drugs

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41
Q

Pyostomatitis vegetans

A

Crohn’s disease/UC

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42
Q

Cystic lumen lined w/ corrugated parakeratotic surface w/ palisaded basal layer

A

OKC

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43
Q

Ectodermal dysplasia findings

A

Hypodontia - #1
Hypoplastic salivary glands
Decreased sweat glands

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44
Q

SCC high risk

A

Floor of mouth - #1
Tongue
Lip

Lowest - buccal mucosa

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45
Q

Not likely to have gingival hemorrhage w/

A

Anemia

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46
Q

1 salivary gland neoplasm

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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47
Q

Vague facial pain when swallowing/turning head

A

Eagle syndrome

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48
Q

Acute paralysis of upper/lower face

A

Bell’s palsy

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49
Q

Normal platelet count

A

200K cells/mm3

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50
Q

Target A1C for non-pregnant

A

7%

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51
Q

Found on upper llip

A

Canalicular adenoma

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52
Q

What test for kidney disease

A

Blood urea nitrogen

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53
Q

Palatal destructive clinical appearance

A

Necrotizing sialometaplasia

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54
Q

Benign neoplasm of Schwann cell origin

A

Neurilemoma

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55
Q

Systemic bacterial infection w/ strawberry tongue w/ white coating

A

Scarlet fever

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56
Q

What papillae are seen in Scarlet fever

A

Fungiform

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57
Q

OKC location

A

Posterior mandible

58
Q

Tumor of odontogenic epithelium

A

Ameloblastoma

59
Q

Paget’s has what appearance?

Symptoms?

A

Cotton wool

Enlargement of maxilla
Bone pain/deformity

60
Q

Unilateral, asymptomatic, well-circumscribed radiolucency below mandibular canal in posterior mandible

A

Stafne defect

61
Q

Cytologic smear is diagnostic for ____

A

Herpes zoster

62
Q

Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia seen in ____

A

Necrotizing sialometaplasia

63
Q

Polarized columnar/cuboidal cells w/ rosette like tubular or ductlike structures

A

Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor

64
Q

What is associated w/ pernicious anemia

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

65
Q

Symptoms of pernicious anemia

A

Muscle atrophy
Erythema
Burning

66
Q

Cobblestone mucosa
Diffuse/nodular swelling oral tissue
Deep linear ulcerations

A

Crohn’s

67
Q

Vitamin B3 = ?

A

Niacin

68
Q

Vitamin B3 deficiency leads to….

A

Pellagra

69
Q

Symptoms of Pellagra

A

Stomatitis

Glossitis

70
Q

Hemorrhagic gingival enlargement, ulceration, and tooth mobility seen w/ ____ deficiency

A

Vitamin C

71
Q

Highest likelihood for drug induced gingival enlargement

A

Phenytoin/Dilantin

72
Q

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

A

Severe bone loss

Floating teeth in air

73
Q

Hair on end radiographic appearance of calvarium

A

Thalassemia

74
Q

Static bone cyst where?

Treatment?

A

Posterior mandible

No

75
Q

Fine ground glass
Narrow PDL
Displacement of sinus and nerve calls

A

Fibrous dysplasia

76
Q

More mature COD lesions are ___

A

Radiopaque

77
Q

Gingival cyst of adult is a form of ___

A

Lateral periodontal cyst

78
Q

Another variant of LPC is ____

A

Botryoid odontognic cyst

79
Q

1 site LPC

A

Mandibular premolar

80
Q

LPC histology

A

Glycogen rich clear cells

Nodular thickening

81
Q

Hypercortisolism = ????

A

Cushings syndrome

82
Q

Hypercortisol symptoms

A 
Moon facies
Buffalo hump
Poor healing
HTN
Hyperglycemia
83
Q

Hypoadrenalism = ???

A

Addison’s disease

84
Q

Hypoadrenalism symptoms

A

Diffuse patchy brown pigmentation from excess melanin

85
Q

Burning mouth affects ____

A

Tongue

86
Q

Peripheral ossifying fibroma occurs where most often?

A

Gingiva, soft tissue tumor

87
Q

Peripheral giant cell granuloma occurs where?
Clinical appearance?
Why?

A

Gingiva only
Blue/purple
Reaction to irritation or trauma

88
Q

Mucocele occurs where?

A

Lower lip

89
Q

Dentinogenesis imperfecta is similar to ___

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

90
Q

Xerostomia seen w/ ____

A

Diabetes
Sjogren’s
Radiation

91
Q

Apnea-hypopnea index scores

A

Normal - <5
Mild 5-14
Moderate 15-30
Severe 30+

92
Q

Toxoplasmosis is a ____ disease

A

Protozoal

93
Q

Mild epithelial dysplasia is limited to ____

A

Basale

94
Q

Verruca vulgaris is what virus

A

HPV

95
Q

Cluster headaches. Male or female?

A

Male

96
Q

Tx of osteoma

A

Conservative excision

97
Q

1 deep oral infection in AIDS

A

Histoplasmosis

98
Q

Graduate involution when present at birth

A

Hemangioma

99
Q

Similar histologically to erythema migrans

A

Psoriasis

100
Q

Rapid onset of bilateral facial weakness

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

101
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma - age group, virus, symptoms

A

Kids
EBV
Facial/jaw swelling

102
Q

What leukoplakia w/ higher malignant conversion

A

Peripheral verrucous leukoplakia

103
Q

Tx linear gingival erythema

A

Fluconazole

104
Q

Epidermolysis bullosa acquisitia targets what?

A

Anchoring fibrils

Type 7 collagen

105
Q

Gardner’s syndrome symptoms (CEOT)

A

Colonic polyps
Epidermoid cysts
Osteoma
Thyroid carcinoma

106
Q

Papillon-Lefevre mutation

A

Cathepsin C

107
Q

Cafe-au-lait and Lisch nodule

A

Neurofibromatosis

108
Q

Candida distinguishing trait

A

Dimorphism

109
Q

Perforation at angle of mandible

A

Actinomycosis

110
Q

Compound vs complex odontoma

A

Compound - teeth shaped

Complex - amorphous mass

111
Q

1 soft tissue mass from palate?

A

Squamous papilloma

112
Q

Progressive muscle weakness that manifests in smaller muscles of head/nek

A

Myasthenia gravis

113
Q

Chronic ocular inflammation + urogenital ulcerations

A

Behcet’s syndrome

114
Q

Mucocele in floor of mouth

A

Ranula

115
Q

Widened PDL in…

A

Systemic sclerosis

116
Q

Oral manifestation in SCC

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum

117
Q

Most accurate predictor of BRONJ

A

Widening of PDL

118
Q

Highest likelihood to be SCC

A

Erythroplakia

119
Q

Lymphadenopathy
Severe bone loss
Multiple ulcerations of gingiva

What disease?

A

Cyclic neutropenia

120
Q

Osteoblast activity measured w/ ____

A

Alkaline phosphatase

121
Q

Malignant salivary gland tumor w/ perineural invasion causing pain

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

122
Q

Black bone disease

A

Minocycline

123
Q

1 developmental odontogenic cyst

A

Dentigerous cyst

124
Q

Intense, burning temporal and facial pain

A

Temporal arteritis

125
Q

Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia seen in…

A

Epulis fissuratum
Granular cell tumor
Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

NOT neurofibroma

126
Q

Palatal petechiae
Mucosal ulceration
Gingival enlargement

A

Leukemia

127
Q

Causative agent of shingles

A

Varicella zoster

128
Q

Retrocuspid papilla looks like…

A

Giant cell fibroma

129
Q

Verruciform xanthoma
Condyloma accuminatum
Oropharyngeal carcinoma
Verruca vulgaris

Which is not HPV related?

A

Verruciform xanthoma

130
Q

C-ANCA marker for ____

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

131
Q

Clinical oral manifestation of mucopolysaccharoidoses?

A

Macroglossia

132
Q

Loss of mandibular anterior teeth prematurely

A

Hypophosphatasia

133
Q

Blue colored appearance of blue nevus?

A

Melanin particles deep to the surface reflecting shorter-wavelength blue light

134
Q

Initial manifestation of osteosarcoma of dentulous jaw is…

A

Widened PDL

135
Q

Sjogrens occurs with what?

A

SLE

136
Q

1 soft tissue mass of oral cavity is…

A

Fibroma

137
Q

Tertiary syphilis lesion

A

Gumma

138
Q

What is not trigeminal neuralgia?

Dull and throbbing pain
Abrupt onset of pain
Duration of single pain spasm is <2 minutes
Refractory period during which trigger-induced pain cannot occur

A

Pain is dull and throbbing

139
Q

Elongated filiform papillae is

A

Black hairy tongue

140
Q

Coxsackie virus not seen in…

Herpangina
Orophayngeal carcinoma
HFM disease
Acute lymphonodular pharyngitits

A

Oropharyngeal carcinoma

141
Q

EM is NOT…

Drug induced
Chronic
Target lesions of skin
Hemorrhagic crusting of lips

A

Chronic

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