section 8 land use planning and control Flashcards

1
Q

A central goal of public land use planning is to
a. balance individual property rights with the community’s welfare.
b. develop an accord between property owners and tenants.
c. impede development by for-profit developers and construction contractors.
d. subordinate private interests to the public good.

A

a. balance individual property rights with the community’s welfare.

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2
Q

The best definition of a master plan is
a. an annual review of all land use permits and zones.
b. a comprehensive analysis of existing land use patterns in a market.
c. a state or regional land use law requiring compliance on a county-by-county basis.
d. a fusion of land use laws and local land use objectives and strategies.

A

d. a fusion of land use laws and local land use objectives and strategies.

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3
Q

The principal mechanism for implementing a master plan is
a. zoning.
b. referendum.
c. public elections.
d. property management.

A

a. zoning.

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4
Q

Zoning, building codes, and environmental restrictions are forms of local land use control known as
a. force majeure.
b. pre-emption.
c. police power.
d. concurrency.

A

c. police power.

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5
Q

If a municipality exerts its power of eminent domain against a certain property owner, what happens?
a. The owner must pay higher property taxes or give up the property.
b. The owner must cede an easement without receiving any compensation.
c. The municipality annexes the property.
d. The owner must sell the property or grant an easement to the municipality for just compensation.

A

d. The owner must sell the property or grant an easement to the municipality for just compensation

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6
Q

In most jurisdictions, the master plan is managed by
a. the mayor or county superintendent.
b. the Board of Equalization.
c. the planning commission.
d. the zoning board of adjustment.

A

c. the planning commission

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7
Q

Counties and municipalities have the legal right to control land use due to
a. the doctrine of appropriation.
b. delegation of authority by state-level enabling acts.
c. custom and tradition.
d. consensus of the local community through referendum.

A

b. delegation of authority by state-level enabling acts.

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8
Q

To be valid, a local zoning ordinance must
a. reasonably promote community health, safety and welfare.
b. comply with federal zoning laws.
c. apply only to unique properties.
d. be published periodically in the local newspaper.

A

a. reasonably promote community health, safety and welfare.

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9
Q

What is the fundamental purpose of a building permit?
a. To restrict the number of new development projects
b. To establish the basis for an inspection
c. To promote certificates of occupancy
d. To ensure that improvements comply with codes

A

d. To ensure that improvements comply with codes

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10
Q

A primary objective of residential zoning is to
a. control the value ranges of homes in a neighborhood.
b. regulate density.
c. ensure that only a limited amount of commercial and industrial activity is permitted in a particular residential zone.
d. maximize intensity of usage.

A

b. regulate density.

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11
Q

A non-profit organization wants to erect a much-needed daycare center in a residential zone. Given other favorable circumstances, the local authorities grant permission by allowing
a. a special exception.
b. an illegal nonconforming use.
c. a variance.
d. a license.

A

a. a special exception.

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12
Q

A property that conformed with zoning ordinances when it was developed but does not conform to new ordinances is said to be
a. a special exception.
b. a variance.
c. a legal nonconforming use.
d. an anomaly.

A

c. a legal nonconforming use.

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13
Q

One situation in which a zoning board might permit a variance is when
a. it would cause the property owner unreasonable hardship to bring the property into compliance with zoning ordinances.
b. the property owner is the one who brings the variance to the attention of the zoning board.
c. the variance was caused by a contractor rather than by the property owner.
d. the property is in conflict with no more than one zoning ordinance

A

a. it would cause the property owner unreasonable hardship to bring the property into compliance with zoning ordinances.

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14
Q

The approval process for development of multiple properties in an area includes submission of
a. a covenant of restriction.
b. a plat of subdivision.
c. a court order.
d. a developer’s pro forma.

A

b. a plat of subdivision.

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15
Q

A county or municipal authority usually grants a certificate of occupancy for new construction only after
a. all contractors have been paid for services.
b. all work has been completed for at least thirty days.
c. the construction complies with building codes.
d. the tax assessor has valued the improvement.

A

c. the construction complies with building codes.

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16
Q

In addition to government entities, organizations that may be able to condemn property under the power of eminent domain include
a. public utilities.
b. financial institutions.
c. major employers.
d. neighborhood associations.

A

a. public utilities.

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17
Q

A property owner is precluded by deed restriction from developing a thirty foot boat dock. The limitation prompts the owner to sell to another party. The new owner
a. is free to build the dock since the next door neighbor built a similar dock two weeks later.
b. takes title subject to the same restriction.
c. can build the dock with special permission from the zoning board.
d. may build, since the restriction is extinguished by the sale.

A

b. takes title subject to the same restriction.

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18
Q

A declaration of restriction in a planned unit development is unlike a deed restriction in that
a. it applies only to aesthetic standards of property use.
b. it attaches to rights rather than interests.
c. it cannot be terminated by a single individual.
d. it takes effect only when approved by a homeowners’ association.

A

c. it cannot be terminated by a single individual.

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19
Q

A deed restriction or declaration of restriction may be enforced by means of a
a. sheriff’s warrant.
b. zoning commission order.
c. foreclosure action.
d. court injunction.

A

d. court injunction.

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20
Q

A distinguishing feature of a deed condition is that
a. it gives the grantor the right to re-possess the property if the grantee violates the condition.
b. it ceases to apply if a violation is allowed to continue for a certain period of time.
c. it can be filed at any time after title has been transferred.
d. it restricts who may own the property.

A

a. it gives the grantor the right to re-possess the property if the grantee violates the condition

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21
Q

In addition to government entities, organizations that may be able to condemn property under the power of eminent domain include

A

public utilities

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22
Q

A property owner is precluded by deed restriction from developing a thirty foot boat dock. The limitation prompts the owner to sell to another party. The new owner

A

takes title subject to the same restriction.

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23
Q

A declaration of restriction in a planned unit development is unlike a deed restriction in that

A

it cannot be terminated by a single individual.

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24
Q

A deed restriction or declaration of restriction may be enforced by means of a

A

court injunction.

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25
Q

A distinguishing feature of a deed condition is that

A

it gives the grantor the right to re-possess the property if the grantee violates the condition.

26
Q

A property owner acquired a property by means of a deed that included a deed restriction against building any kind of unattached structures on the property. The owner now wants to build a small office/art studio in a separate structure. What can the owner do to overcome the restriction?

A

Have the necessary parties execute a quitclaim deed.

27
Q

Among other provisions, the Superfund Act (CERCLA) and Superfund Amendment and Reauthorization Act of 1986 provided that

A

parties responsible for improper disposal of hazardous waste could be charged for the cleanup costs.

28
Q

Which of the following is true of a successful eminent domain proceeding?

A

It extinguishes leases, liens, and other encumbrances on the property taken.

29
Q

As evidence that building inspectors have found that a structure complies with building codes and is ready for use, the municipality or county issues a(n)

A

certificate of occupancy.

30
Q

To obtain a change of the zoning for a particular property, for example, from residential to commercial, a property owner would ask the zoning board for a(n)

A

amendment.

31
Q

What is the difference between a variance and a nonconforming use?

A

A variance is granted by the zoning board if the owner has a justifiable reason.

32
Q

Which of the following situations is most likely to represent an illegal nonconforming use?

A

A homeowner in a residential zone converts her residence to rental offices.

33
Q

How does Planned Unit Development zoning differ from ordinary zoning?

A

It requires that multiple tracts of land be developed according to a single design for efficient use of space.

34
Q

What is meant by “intensity of usage?”

A

The area of a commercial or industrial facility in relation to the size of the site.

35
Q

In the implementation of land use controls, why should a community be concerned about the effects on individual property values?

A

In most communities, taxes based on property values support needed government services.

36
Q

What is the relationship between master planning and zoning ordinances?

A

Zoning ordinances are a primary means of keeping land use in line with the master plan.

37
Q

One of the major considerations in planning where to allow growth is

A

the effect of development on traffic patterns.

38
Q

The basic intent of zoning ordinances is to

A

specify usage for every parcel within the zoning authority’s jurisdiction.

39
Q

Why do zoning authorities create different types of zones?

A

To separate different types of uses so that they do not interfere with each other.

40
Q

What is a “buffer zone?”

A

A transitional zone between a residential zone and a commercial zone.

41
Q

An amalgamated land use plan for a municipality, county, or region which incorporates community opinion, the results of intensive research, and the various land use guidelines and regulations of the state. Acts as a blueprint for subsequent zoning ordinances and rulings.

A

master plan

42
Q

A state’s or local government’s legal authority to create, regulate, tax, and condemn real property in the interest of the public’s health, safety, and welfare.

A

police power

43
Q

The primary tool by which cities and counties regulate land use and implement their respective master plans.

A

Zoning:

44
Q

The Constitution grants the states the legal authority to regulate, and the states delegate the authority to counties and municipalities through legislation called enabling acts.

A

Enabling Act:

45
Q

one that clearly differs from current zoning.

A

Nonconforming Use:

46
Q

A land use that conflicts with current zoning but is authorized for certain reasons, including undue hardship to comply and minimal negative impact to leave it alone.

A

Variance:

47
Q

A land use in conflict with current zoning that is nevertheless authorized because of its perceived benefit to the public welfare

A

Special Exception:

48
Q

A current or potential property owner may petition the zoning board for an outright change in the zoning of a particular property.

A

Amendment:

49
Q

The developer submits a plat of subdivision containing surveyed plat maps and comprehensive building specifications. The plat, as a minimum, shows that the plan complies with local zoning and building ordinances. The project can commence only after the relevant authority has approved the plat.

A

Plat of Subdivision:

50
Q

A local, county, or regional planning policy that requires developers to correct foreseen negative impacts of a development during the construction period of the project itself rather than afterwards; for example, widening a road during construction to accommodate a future increase in traffic.

A

Concurrency:

51
Q

A document confirming that a newly constructed or renovated property has fully complied with all building codes and is ready for occupancy and use.

A

Certificate of Occupancy:

52
Q

A power of a government entity to force the sale of private property for subsequent public use.

A

Eminent Domain:

53
Q

A provision in a deed that limits or places rules on how the deeded property may be used or improved.

A

Deed Restriction:

54
Q

A restriction expressed in a conveyance (deed or lease) of a residential, commercial, or industrial property places limits on the use of the property. Such restrictions are also referred to as “covenants, conditions, and restrictions,” or CCRs. A quitclaim deed can terminate a private deed restriction.

A

Covenants, Conditions and Restrictions:

55
Q

The declaration of a subdivision, Planned Unit Development, condominium, and commercial or industrial park contains private use restrictions. These have the same legal effect as a deed restriction, as the declaration attaches to the rights in the property. A private party cannot, however, extinguish a declaration restriction by agreement or quitclaim deed.

A

Declaration Restriction:

56
Q

A deed condition may restrict certain uses of a property, much like a deed restriction. However, violation of a deed condition gives the grantor the right to re- take possession of the property and file suit for legal title.

A

Deed Condition:

57
Q

This act created the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the Council for Environmental Quality, giving them a mandate to establish environmental standards for land use planning. The act also required environmental impact surveys on large development projects.

A

National Environmental Policy Act:

58
Q

This act authorized the EPA to establish air quality standards for industrial land uses as well as for automobile and airplane emissions

A

Clean Air Amendment:

59
Q

These acts addressed standards to control water pollution and industrial wastes from the standpoints of future prevention as well as remediation of existing pollution.

A

Water Quality Improvement Act, Water Pollution Control Act Amendment, Clean Water Act Amendment:

60
Q

These acts addressed disposal of solid and toxic wastes and measures for managing waste. In addition, the Superfund act provided money for hazardous waste disposal and the authority to charge cleanup costs to responsible parties.

A

Resource Recovery Act, Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act, Superfund Amendment and Reauthorization Act :