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NASM CPT 7 Unit quizzes > Section 5 (Chapters 13 - 20) > Flashcards

Section 5 (Chapters 13 - 20) Flashcards

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1
Q

Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?

a. Cross-country runner
b. Avid resistance trainer
c. Powerlifter
d. Olympic weightlifter

A

a Cross-country runner

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2
Q

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?

a. Muscle strength and power
b. Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness
c. Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency
d. Flexibility and joint ROM

A

d. Flexibility and joint ROM

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3
Q

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?

a. 9 or 10 drills
b. 4 to 5 drills
c. 6 to 8 drills
d. 2 to 4 drills

A

c. 6 to 8 drills

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4
Q

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?

a. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
b. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise
c. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
d. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise

A

c. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

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5
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position?

a. Static balance
b. Dynamic balance
c. Low-level balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance

A

a. Static balance

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6
Q

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?

a. Volume and progression
b. Variables and progression
c. Velocity and pattern
d. Variables and pattern

A

a. Volume and progression

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7
Q

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?

a. Davis’s Law and Wolf’s Law
b. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
c. Pain response and muscle spasm
d. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength

A

b. Mechanical and neurophysiological response

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8
Q

Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming?

a. Reduced risk of ankle sprains
b. Reduced risk of falls
c. Improved proprioception or body awareness
d. Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes

A

d. Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes

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9
Q

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface

a. Kinesiology
b. Biomechanics
c. osteokinematics
d. Arthokinematics

A

d. Arthokinematics

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10
Q

Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model?

a. Adequate joint stability
b. Power exercise familiarity
c. Deconditioning
d. Adequate core stability

A

c. Deconditioning

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11
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core

a. Bird dog
b. Cable chop
c. Medicine ball wood chop throw
d. Reverse crunch

A

c. Medicine ball wood chop throw

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12
Q

What is the correct order of the phase of plyometric exercise?

a. Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading
b. Concentric unloading, amortization, eccentric loading
c. Amortization, concentric loading, eccentric unloading
d. Eccentric unloading, concentric loading, amortization

A

a. Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

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13
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

a. 3 to 5 reps
b. 1 to 2 reps
c. 8 to 10 reps
d. 6 to 8 reps

A

a. 3 to 5 reps

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14
Q

Flexibility is defined as the following:

a. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees
b. A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched
c. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely
d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

A

d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

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15
Q

What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?

a. Osteoporosis is not a contradiction for any flexibility exercises
b. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling
c. Osteoporosis is considered a precaution for static stretching
d. Osteoporosis is considered a precaution for myofascial rolling

A

b. osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to mysofascial rolling

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16
Q

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?

a. Thoracic and lumbar
b. Cervical and sacral
c. Thoracic and sacral
d. Cervical and thoracic

A

c. Thoracic and sacral

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17
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?

a. Muscular development
b. Maximal strength
c. Strength endurance
d. Stabilization Endurance

A

a. Muscular devlelopment

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18
Q

What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?

a. Stride rate
b. Stride length
c. Power
d. Agility

A

b. Stride length

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19
Q

How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?

a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
b. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods
c. An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
d. The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake.

A

a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources.

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20
Q

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client’s fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?

a. Training frequency
b. Intensity
c. Volume
d. Recovery

A

a. Training frequency

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21
Q

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)?

a. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
b. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS
c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
d. The sight, hearing, and taste systems

A

c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

22
Q

What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?

a. Muscular atrophy
b. Osteopenia
c. Sarcopenia
d. Muscular hypertrophy

A

d. Muscular hypertrophy

23
Q

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Transverse abdominals
c. Erector spinae
d. Rectos abdominis

A

b. Transverse abdominals

24
Q

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?

a. Stabilize individual vertebral segments
b. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments
c. Force production during dynamic whole body movements
d. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs

A

c. Force production during dynamic whole body movements.

25
Q

If the concentric phase of plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?

a. The unused energy is stored for the next jump
b. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain
c. The unused energy is dissipated as heat
d. The attempt at jumping will fail

A

c. The unused energy is dissipated as heat

26
Q

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?

a. Elevated and slightly retraced
b. Elevated and slightly protracted
c. Depressed and slightly retracted
d. Depressed and slightly protracted

A

c. Depressed and slightly retracted

27
Q

What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body’s sprinting direction in response to that stimulus?

a. Speed
b. Agility
c. Quickness
d. Power

A

b. Agility

28
Q

Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury?

a. Posterior pelvic tilt
b. Knee valgus
c. Low-back arching
d. Anterior pelvic tilt

A

b. Knee valgus

29
Q

Which all would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?

a. Getting in and out of the car
b. Cleaning
c. Moving a grocery cart
d. Raking Leaves

A

b. Cleaning

30
Q

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?

a. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity
b. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods
c. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work
d. Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity

A

d. Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

31
Q

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.

a. Limitations hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low back.
b. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation
c. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back
d. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation

A

a. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low back.

32
Q

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?

a. 150 minutes per week
b. 125 minutes per week
c. 75 minutes per week
d. 300 minutes per week

A

a. 150 minutes per week

33
Q

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?

a. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening
b. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
c. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
d. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion

A

b. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

34
Q

What would be the back squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions of 225 pounds

a. 6750 lbs
b. 2250 lbs
c. 675 lbs
d. 6750 reps

A

a. 6750 lbs

35
Q

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?

a. Synergistic dominance
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Altered length-tension relationship
d. Reciprocal inhibition

A

a. Synergistic dominance

36
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?

a. Power
b. Stabilization Endurance
c. Strength Endurance
d. Maximal Strength

A

c. Strength Endurance

37
Q

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?

a. Auditory system
b. Vestibular system
c. Visual system
d. Somatosensory system

A

c. Visual System

38
Q

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?

a. Strength
b. Neuromuscular stabilization
c. Power
d. Speed

A

b. Neuromuscular Stabilization

39
Q

Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise?

a. Jumping down requires more concentric force control.
b. Jumping down limits eccentric contractions
c. Jumping down lessens force deceleration
d. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics

A

d. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics

40
Q

What is the peripheral heart action system?

a. A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other with minimal rest
b. A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days
c. A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets
d. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit.

A

d. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit.

41
Q

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?

a. The exercise is intense
b. The exercise targets large muscle groups
c. The exercise is rhythmic
d. The exercise is continuous in nature

A

a. The exercise is intense

42
Q

What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques?

a. BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls
b. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
c. Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls
d. Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags

A

b. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

43
Q

Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?

a. Develop aerobic efficiency
b. Develop an appropriate aerobic base
c. Improve anaerobic capacity and power
d. Develop anaerobic capacity

A

b develop an appropriate aerobic base

44
Q

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?

a. Cancer and bleeding disorders
b. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
c. Joint hyper mobility and scoliosis
d. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension

A

c. Joint hyper mobility and scoliosis

45
Q

What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction

a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Stretch reflex
c. Pattern overload
d. Reciprocal inhibition

A

c. Pattern Overload

46
Q

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?

a. Medial gastrocnemius
b. Middle deltoid
c. Lateral hamstrings
d. Lateral triceps brachii

A

b. Middle deltoid

47
Q

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?

a. Isolated training
b. Integrated training
c. Circuit training
d. Hypertrophy training

A

b. Integrated training

48
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?

a. Semi-dynamic balance
b. Dynamic balance
c. Static balance
d. Stationary balance

A

b Dynamic balance

49
Q

What three joint actions comprise triple extension?

a. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension
b. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
c. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
d. Spinal extension, hip extension and plantar flextion

A

c. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

50
Q

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?

a. Preplanned voluntary contractions
b. Voluntary contractions
c. No muscle contractions are involved in balance training
d. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

A

d. Reflexive (automatic) joint stabilization contractions

NASM CPT 7 Unit quizzes (2 decks)

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