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Nutrition - Section 3, Chap 9 > Section 3 Chapter 9 > Flashcards

Section 3 Chapter 9 Flashcards

1
Q

Nutrition

A

A process of obtaining nutrients through food and/or food products to support energy requirements and cellular processes, including growth, repair and maintenance of tissues, reproduction, digestive processes, and respiration.

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2
Q

CDN

A

Certified Dietitian Nutritionist: state certified dietitian/nutritionist.

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3
Q

Scope of Practice

A

The actions that a professional is permitted to undertake in keeping with the terms of their license or certification.

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4
Q

Scope of practice for fitness professionals

A

the field of physical assessment and the development of an appropriate exercise training program based on a client’s goals and abilities.

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5
Q

Nutritional claim

A

Claim that a food has a specific nutritional property or provides a specific benefit.

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6
Q

Macro-nutrients

A

Food substances required in large amounts to supply energy; include protein, carbohydrate, and fat.

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7
Q

Micro-nutrients

A

Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients. These are non-energy yielding nutrients that have important regulatory functions in metabolic pathways.

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8
Q

Vitamins

A

Group of organic compounds required in small quantities in the diet to support growth and metabolic processes.

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9
Q

Minerals

A

Inorganic, natural substances, some of which are essential in human nutrition. There are two kinds of minerals: major minerals (aka, macro-minerals) and trace minerals.

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10
Q

TRUE of FALSE? The scope of practice for a fitness professional dictates that they can prescribe specific meal plans to clients.

A

False

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11
Q

What is the official term for a statement that maintains that a food has a specific nutritional property or provides a specific benefit?

A

Nutrition claim

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12
Q

Protein

A

Amino acids linked by peptide bonds; the building blocks of body tissues.

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13
Q

Amino Acids

A

Organic building blocks of proteins containing both a carboxyl and an amino group.

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14
Q

Peptide bond

A

Organic building blocks of proteins containing both a carboxyl and an amino group.

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15
Q

Essential Amino Acids (EAA)

A

Amino acid that must be obtained through the diet as the body does not make it; there are nine essential amino acids.

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16
Q

Substrates

A

Intermediate forms of nutrients used in metabolic reactions to create adenosine triphosphate.

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17
Q

Protein Turnover

A

A process in which the body breaks down existing proteins and recycles the component amino acids for incorporation into new proteins or other nitrogen-containing compounds.

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18
Q

Essential Amino Acids

A

Leucine, Isoleucine, Valine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, Tryptophan, Lysine, Histidine

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19
Q

Nonessential Amino Acids

A

Alanine
Arginine*
Aspartic acid
Asparagine
Cysteine
Glutamic acid
Glutamine*
Glycine
Proline
Serine
Tyrosine

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20
Q

Conditionally Essential

A

Histidine, Arginine, + Glutamine

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21
Q

Complete Protein

A

A protein source that provides all essential amino acids.

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22
Q

Incomplete protein

A

A protein that lacks one or more of the amino acids required to build cells.

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23
Q

Polypeptide chain

A

A series (often more than 3) of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds.

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24
Q

Peptides

A

Amino acids linked together via a peptide bond.

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25
Q

Dipeptide

A

The combination of two amino acids linked together by a peptide bond.

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26
Q

Tripeptide

A

A sequence of 3 amino acids linked together by peptide bonds.

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27
Q

Complete proteins

A

Animal sources - meat, poultry, seafood, eggs, dairy

Non-animal sources - soy, hemp, quinoa, buckwheat

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28
Q

Incomplete proteins

A

Spinach, bok choy, asparagus, broccoli, collard greens, brussel sprouts, avocado.

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29
Q

Omnivorous diet

A

includes both animal and plant foods, will easily obtain all the essential amino acids through their diet, as animal foods are complete protein sources.

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30
Q

Mutual supplementation

A

an assorted range of vegetarian proteins can ensure that essential amino acids lacking in one food source are provided by another, such as combining rice and beans.

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31
Q

Protein quality

A

the amino acid profile and content of a protein source and its digestibility

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32
Q

Low biological value (LBV)

A

proteins, then total protein requirements may be higher.

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33
Q

Omnivorous diet

A

A diet that consists of both animals and plants.

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34
Q

Mutual supplementation

A

Combination of two incomplete protein sources that together provide all of the essential amino acids.

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35
Q

Protein quality

A

Refers to the amino acid profile and the digestibility of a protein source.

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36
Q

Low biological value (LBV) proteins

A

Foods missing one or more of the essential amino acids.

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37
Q

High Biological Value (HBV)

A

The individual may be meeting their amino acid needs with a smaller amount of total protein. Protein adequacy in a diet is an important consideration for all individuals, but it may be more so for clients who have a predominantly plant-based diet and who may need a greater amount of total protein to meet their amino acid needs.

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38
Q

Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER)

A

A value assigned to a protein that is based on the amount of weight gain of a subject divided by the amount ingested of that particular protein during a test period.

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39
Q

Biological Value (BV)

A

A measure of the digestion and absorption of the amino acids provided by a protein source. BV reflects the amount of the absorbed protein that is used in the synthesis of new proteins in the body.

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40
Q

Protein digestibility-corrected amino acid score (PDCAAS)

A

Compares the amino acid composition of a food against a standard amino acid profile, with a score of 100 being the highest value possible. It also assesses the food’s digestibility (fecal digestibility) to provide an overall value for the protein’s quality.

Egg whites, whole eggs, chicken breast, and lean beef are considered to be high-quality, complete proteins with high digestibility. scores in the range of 0.90 to 1.00 (egg white).

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41
Q

New Protein Utilization (NPU)

A

Compares the ratio of amino acids that are turned into proteins to the ratio of amino acids provided via dietary intake.

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42
Q

PDCAAS scores in the range of

A

0.4 to 0.7

Thus, 30 grams of high-quality, usable protein with all the EAAs could be obtained by eating around 4 eggs or 4.5 ounces of chicken breast (HBV) or around 3 cups of chickpeas with brown rice, which provide less than 30 grams of total protein but are given a lower PDCAAS score.

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43
Q

To obtain amino acids from dietary protein, it must be broken down into smaller molecules

A

Single amino acids, dipeptides, and tripeptides. This process takes place in the gastrointestinal tract.

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44
Q

High biological value (HBV) proteins

A

Foods containing all the essential amino acids.

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45
Q

Protein efficiency ratio (PER)

A

A measure of assessing proteins, based on the amount of weight gained by a test subject divided by the amount of intake of a protein food.

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46
Q

Biological Value (BV)

A

A reference amount used to describe the extent to which the amino acids in a protein source are absorbed.

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47
Q

Protein digestibility – corrected amino acid score (PDCAAS)

A

A measure for evaluating a protein source based on the composition of amino acids and its digestibility.

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48
Q

Net protein utilization (NPU)

A

The ratio of amino acid mass turned into proteins compared to the total amino acid mass consumed in the diet.

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49
Q

Enterocyte

A

Intestinal cells that absorb nutrients.

Pepsin is one of the digestive enzymes that begins this process in the stomach. Polypeptide fragments are broken down further in the small intestine by pancreatic and intestinal enzymes before being absorbed through the intestinal wall and into the intestinal cell.

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50
Q

From the liver, amino acids are directed to different tissues + used in a variety of ways:

A

Synthesis of new proteins, repair of existing proteins, synthesis of nonessential amino acids, transamination to other nonessential amino acids, synthesis of non-protein, nitrogen-containing compounds, usage to meet energy needs.

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51
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

Alanine & Glutamine, may also be used to create glucose through this process

The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources (proteins and fats).

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52
Q

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

A

Protein is 0.8 g/kg of body weight and is considered to be a minimum amount of protein required to maintain nitrogen balance in the body or to offset nitrogen losses that are a result of normal metabolic processes.

The recommended amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of most healthy individuals within specific age and gender groups.

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53
Q

Negative Energy Balance

A

When calorie intake is lower than the number of calories expended.

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54
Q

Acceptable macro-nutrient distribution range (AMDR)

A

Ranges of intake for nutrients that are estimated to meet the needs of 97–98% of the population and that are associated with a reduced risk of chronic disease. AMDRs are established by the National Academy of Medicine.

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55
Q

Aerobic

A

Processes relating to, involving, or requiring oxygen.

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56
Q

Anaerobic

A

Processes relating to the absence of oxygen.

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57
Q

Sedentary adults

A

0.8 g/kg of body weight - USDA Dietary Guidelines

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58
Q

Strength/resistance trained athletes

A

1.6-1.7 g/kg of body weight - Academy of Nutrition + Dietetics

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59
Q

Endurance Athletes

A

1.2 - 1.4 g/kg of body weight - Academy of Nutrition + Dietetics

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60
Q

Most exercising individuals (to build + maintain muscle mass)

A

1..4 - 2.0 g/kg of body weight - International Society of Sports Nutrition

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61
Q

Sports nutrition recommendations

A

0.25–0.55 g/kg of body weight or 20–40 g per meal, 3–4 hours apart

0.24 g/kg of body weight, or a range of 0.18–0.30 g/kg per meal

0.4–0.55 g/kg protein per meal (over four meals per day) for optimal muscle building.

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62
Q

Thermic effect of food (TEF)

A

Protein: 15-30%, Carbohydrate 5-10%, Fat (0-3%), Mixed Meal (5-20%)

The energy required to digest, absorb, and process nutrients that are consumed.

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63
Q

Protein considerations + concerns

A

2 important questions: how much protein is too much?

Is there any danger from consuming too much protein?

Possible side effects when protein is not coupled w/water….

Constipation and gastrointestinal issues, Increased excretion of calcium, Increased risk of kidney stones or gout

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64
Q

Essential Amino Acid

A

An amino acid that must be obtained through the diet, as the body is not able to make it

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65
Q

Minerals

A

Inorganic, natural substances, some of which are essential in human nutrition

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66
Q

Amino Acids

A

Organic building blocks of proteins containing both a carboxyl and an amino group

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67
Q

Vitamins

A

Organic compounds required in small quantities to support growth and metabolic processes

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68
Q

What term is used to describe a protein source that provides all essential amino acids?

A

Complete protein

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69
Q

Carbohydrates

A

A wide variety of energy-yielding compounds that contain carbon, hydrogen, + oxygen atoms.

Simple sugars, Complex carbs, Glycogen, + Fiber

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70
Q

Simple sugars

A

most people associate with the word sugar, comprised of monosaccharides (single sugar) + disaccharides (two sugars). Monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrates: single units of sugar. Consisting of glucose, fructose, + galactose.

Include the monosaccharides and disaccharides; easily absorbed into the bloodstream.

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71
Q

Glucose

A

Fruit, simple syrup

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72
Q

Fructose

A

Fruit, part of table sugar (sucrose)

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73
Q

Galactose

A

Milk/dairy

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74
Q

Monosaccharides

A

Simplest form of carbohydrate; single sugar molecules (e.g., glucose).

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75
Q

Disaccharides

A

Two monosaccharides joined together to form a simple sugar. The three disaccharides of nutritional importance include lactose, sucrose, and maltose.

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76
Q

Polysaccharides

A

Long chains of glucose units that are joined together to form structures from starch, glycogen, + fiber

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77
Q

Starch

A

Storage form of carbohydrates in plants. Examples include grains, potatoes, fruit, vegetables, nuts, and seeds.

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78
Q

Glycogen

A

Storage form of carbohydrates in humans and animals. It is stored in the liver and muscle tissue.

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79
Q

Fiber

A

Plant-derived food (also known as roughage) that cannot be completely broken down by the digestive system. Fiber provides several health benefits and includes two types: soluble and insoluble.

An indigestible carbohydrate present in plant foods, such as fruit, vegetables, and legumes.

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80
Q

Soluble fiber

A

A type of dietary fiber that dissolves in water to form a gel; associated with heart health benefits + glucose control

Oats, barley, legumes, most fruits including pears + berries, most veggies, psyllium seeds

Health benefits: Delays gastric emptying; may prolong satiety (feeling of fullness), lowers cholesterol & lowers cardiovascular disease

Promotes health of the gastrointestinal tract by promoting healthy gut flora

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81
Q

Glycemic index (GI) + Glycemic load

A

Often used to indicate the speed & the extent to which a carbohydrate source raises blood sugar levels

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82
Q

Low GI foods (55 or less)

A

Most non-starchy vegetables and whole grains, beans, cow’s milk

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83
Q

Medium GI foods (56-69)

A

Macaroni and cheese, raisins, hamburger bun, pineapple, banana

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84
Q

High GI foods (70 or above)

A

Glucose, hard candy, instant rice, sports drinks

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85
Q

Glycemic index (GI)

A

Number (0–100) assigned to a food source that represents the rise in blood sugar after consuming the food.

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86
Q

Glycemic Load (GL)

A

Similar to glycemic index but takes into account the amount of food (carbohydrate) eaten.

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87
Q

AMDR Calorie Suggestion

A

45% to 65% of calories come from carbohydrates (grains, vegetables, legumes, fruit, and dairy), with a minimum of 130 daily grams of intake based on a 2,000-calorie diet

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88
Q

Light exercise

A

3-5 g/kg of body weight

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89
Q

Moderately intense exercise: 1-2 hours per day, 5-6 days per week

A

5-7 g/kg of body weight

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90
Q

Moderately high-intensity endurance exercise: 1-3 hours per day; 5-6 days per week

A

6-10 g/kg of body weight

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91
Q

Moderate to high-intensity: > 3 hours per day; 2 sessions per day, 5–6 days per week

A

8–10 g/kg of body weight
8–12 g/kg of body weight (ultra-endurance)

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92
Q

Muscle protein synthesis

A

Process by which new muscle proteins are formed and a muscle grows or repairs at the molecular level.

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93
Q

Disaccharides

A

Two monosaccharides joined together to form a simple sugar

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94
Q

Polysaccharides

A

Carbohydrates composed of long chains of glucose units

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95
Q

Monosaccharides

A

The simplest form of carbohydrate; single sugar molecules

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96
Q

Starch

A

The storage form of carbohydrate in plants

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97
Q

What are the two categories of fiber?

A

Soluble + insoluble

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98
Q

What term describes the measure of how quickly a carbohydrate will raise an individual’s glucose levels when consumed on its own, irrespective of the amount eaten?

A

Glycemic Index

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99
Q

Lipids

A

Provide 9 calories per gram, compared to 4 calories per gram for carbohydrates or protein, + are considered a concentrated source of energy for active individuals.

Group of fats/fatty acids and their derivatives, including triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols.

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100
Q

Large family of lipids

A

Triglycerides, phospholipids, + sterols

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101
Q

Triglycerides

A

Contains 98% of the stored lipids in the body + 95% of lipids in foods. Comprised of Glycerol backbone w/3 chains of fatty acids.

The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body.

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102
Q

Phospholipids

A

Phospholipids have a similar structure to triglycerides but have a phosphate molecule in place of the third fatty acid chain.

Type of lipid (fat) comprised of glycerol, two fatty acid chains, and a phosphate group.

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103
Q

Sterols

A

Have a ringlike structure that is very different from both triglycerides and phospholipids

Precursors to many hormones (estrogen, testosterone, androgen), bile, and vitamin D synthesis in the body

Part of cell membrane structure

Dietary cholesterol in animal fats (meat, poultry, fish, shellfish, egg yolks), Cholesterol produced by the liver, Plant sterols (cholesterol in plants), Cell membranes

A group of lipids with a ringlike structure. Cholesterol is a type of sterol.

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104
Q

Unsaturated fat (double bond)

A
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105
Q

Unsaturated fats

A

Two or more double bonds along a fatty acid chain, it is called a polyunsaturated fat.

Fatty acids with one or more points of unsaturation (double bond) in their chemical structure.

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106
Q

Saturated fats

A

“artery-clogging” fats and harmful for heart health; however, recent research has shown that moderate amounts of saturated fat intake may not carry a substantial risk

A type of triglyceride; chemical structure has no double bonds (points of unsaturation); usually solid at room temperature. Examples: butter, lard, whole milk, beef, processed meats, and tropical oils.

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107
Q

Monounsaturated fats

A

Role/benefit - heart healthy, notably high in the Mediterranean diet

Food sources - Olives, olive oil, canola oil, avocado, peanuts

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108
Q

Polyunsaturated fats: Omega-3

A

Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA), Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA), Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA)

Role/benefits - Heart healthy, lower triglycerides, associated w/ improvements in high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels, reduced inflammation, associated w/improved cognitive function, associated w/reduced risk of dementia

Food sources: Fatty fish (EPA + DHA): salmon, tuna, sardines, mackerel, Walnuts, flaxseed, chia seeds (ALA), Fortified milk, fortified eggs (DHA), Dairy from grass-fed cows (DHA, ALA), Green Vegetables (ALA)

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109
Q

Polyunsaturated fats: Omega-6

A

Role/benefits: Essential for normal growth + development

Food sources: Vegetable oils, nuts, + seeds

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110
Q

Saturated fats

A

Role/benefits: Exact health benefits remain unclear. General recommendations advise limiting excess saturated fats in the diet.

Food sources: Animal fats, full fat dairy, coconut oil, palm oil

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111
Q

Trans fats

A

Role/benefits: Artificial/added trans fats increase LDL cholesterol and lower HDL cholesterol. They are also associated with increased inflammation and heart disease (Harvard Medical School, 2015), Naturally occurring trans fats are less harmful than artificial trans fat

Food sources: Artificial/added trans fats are in partially hydrogenated oils and processed foods that contain these oils. Naturally occurring trans fats are found in animal fats and dairy

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112
Q

Pancreatic Enzymes

A

Break up long-chain fatty acids into smaller molecules for absorption into enterocytes

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113
Q

Lingual lipases

A

A small amount of dietary fat is initially digested in the mouth with these

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114
Q

Lipases

A

Fat digesting enzymes break up the ingested lipids into fatty acids + monoglycerides, which are absorbed into enterocytes.

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114
Q

Lipases

A

Fat digesting enzymes break up the ingested lipids into fatty acids + monoglycerides, which are absorbed into enterocytes.

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115
Q

Chylomicrons

A

The enterocytes repackage fatty acids with other fat-soluble vitamins + send them to the liver.

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116
Q

Lipoproteins

A

What the liver redistributes the triglycerides as (LDL + very low-density) to body tissues where the enzyme Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL) cuts up the triglyceride component to release fatty acids.

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117
Q

Pancreatic enzymes

A

Digestive enzymes produced by the body to help digest fats, starches, and proteins.

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118
Q

Lingual Lipase

A

An enzyme in saliva that begins the process of lipid digestion in the mouth.

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119
Q

Lipase

A

Enzyme that digests lipids.

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120
Q

Chylomicrons

A

Molecules of fat that contain triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol, fat-soluble vitamins, and protein. They are formed by intestinal cells after the digestion of lipid-containing foods.

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121
Q

Lipoprotein

A

A group of soluble proteins that combine with and transport fat or other lipids in the blood plasma.

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122
Q

Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)

A

An enzyme that breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids.

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123
Q

Metabolites

A

The formation of a substance required for metabolism.

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124
Q

Cholesterol: LDL vs. HDL

A

LDL cholesterol refers to low-density lipoprotein and is considered to be less heart-healthy than HDL. HDL cholesterol refers to high-density lipoproteins, which are mostly comprised of protein and some triglycerides.

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125
Q

Unsaturated fats

A

A type of fat that has at least one “double bond” in its chemical structure

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126
Q

Saturated fats

A

A type of fat which has no double bonds in its chemical structure

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127
Q

Triglycerides

A

The chemical substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body

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128
Q

Phospholipids

A

A type of fat comprised of glycerol, two fatty acid chains, and a phosphate group

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129
Q

Sterols

A

A group of fats with a ringlike structure

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130
Q

What is the optimal ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids in the diet?

A

About 4:1

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131
Q

What enzyme is responsible for most of the breakdown of ingested lipids into fatty acids?

A

Lipoprotein lipase

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132
Q

Metabolism

A
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133
Q

Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)

A

Overall body composition, height, weight, + the propensity to gain or lose weight.

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134
Q

Endocrine (hormonal) disorders

A

Medications, may significantly affect weight + may require a referral to a qualified medical professional. When the body produces too little or too much of an endocrine hormone.

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135
Q

Law of Thermodynamics

A

Energy intake is one of the factors that influences weight management; some might argue that it is perhaps the most important factor.

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136
Q

First Law of Thermodynamics

A

States that energy cannot be created or destroyed in a system, it can only be converted from one form to another

137
Q

Basic fundamental weight loss concept

A

Weight loss requires a deficit of calories, and weight gain requires a surplus.

138
Q

Weight loss principle

A

Lean proteins, high-fiber whole grains, vegetables, and fruit, are not only nutritious but also less calorically dense than many hyper-palatable foods, which contain added sugars and fats.

139
Q

Satiating

A

many processed foods; again, this is due to the higher fiber and protein content and also likely due to flavor and freshness.

140
Q

Total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)

A

equivalent to the client’s total energy intake, then body weight remains unchanged

141
Q

Added sugars

A

Sugars that are not naturally found in food but have been added to a food product.

142
Q

Peptide YY

A

Lower levels of the hunger hormone - several nights

143
Q

Ghrelin

A

Higher in participants - The hunger hormone that stimulates appetite.

144
Q

Endocrine disorders

A

Typically resulting in client’s weight gain to include: hypothyroidism, Cushing’s syndrome, poly-cystic ovarian syndrome

145
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

Low activity of the thyroid gland that can disrupt heart rate, body temperature, and metabolism.

146
Q

Poly-cystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

A

A hormone disorder that occurs in women of childbearing age that causes irregular periods, excess levels of the male hormone androgen, small cysts on the outer edges of the ovaries, and obesity.

147
Q

Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

A

Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise

148
Q

Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT)

A

Energy expenditure through structured exercise

149
Q

Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)

A

Age, height, weight, amount of muscle mass, + hormones will vary from individual to individual + may also change as an individual gets older.

150
Q

NEAT + EAT

A

A greater effect on overall energy expenditure may be achieved through an increase in both EAT + NEAT - fitness professionals may wish to highlight this effect to clients.

151
Q

Adaptive thermogenesis

A

Metabolic adaptations + changes in energy expenditure, due to changes in energy intake.

A reduction in energy expenditure may be expected with weight loss due to metabolic adaptations; this may be important to explain to clients so that they adjust energy intake & or physical activity accordingly.

152
Q

Basic math

A

Weight loss = calorie deficit

Weight gain = calorie surplus

153
Q

What term is used to describe metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure as a result of changes in energy intake?

A

Adaptive Thermogenesis

154
Q

Ingredient list

A

A list of all included ingredients in a food product, in descending order of amount by weight, on a food label.

155
Q

Nutrition facts panel

A

Label on food products that provides information on the nutrient content of the food. Lists servings per container, serving size, and the amount of specific nutrients.

156
Q

Serving size

A

A reference amount based on the quantity of the product consumers are thought to typically consume at one sitting.

157
Q

Percent daily value (%DV)

A

a nutrition facts label is another useful tool that clients can use to compare the nutritional value of different products.

158
Q

Academy of Nutrition + Dietetics

A

a nutrition facts label is another useful tool that clients can use to compare the nutritional value of different products.

159
Q

Percent daily value (%DV)

A

A reference value on the nutrition label that indicates what percentage of the recommended daily value for a nutrient is met by the specified serving size of a food product, based on a 2,000-calorie diet.

160
Q

Percent reference intake (%RI)

A

Used on food labels in the United Kingdom and the European Union. It is a reference value that indicates what percentage of the recommended amount of a nutrient is met by the specified amount (100 g or 100 mL) of the food product.

161
Q

For most consumers, which of the following are the two most informative features of a food label?

A

The nutrition facts label and the ingredients list

162
Q

What reference value is used on labels in the United Kingdom and the European Union, but not in the United States?

A

Percent reference intake (% RI)

163
Q

Modifying energy intake

A

Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner options (e.g., a side salad instead of fries with a sandwich)

164
Q

Energy Expenditure

A

Increasing energy expenditure is another tool for achieving a net calorie deficit for fat loss

165
Q

Increase TEF

A

Maintain a slightly higher protein intake to minimize loss of lean muscle mass

Include an adequate lean source of protein at each meal

166
Q

Increase energy expenditure

A

Increase physical activity through regular exercise (EAT)

Increase physical activity through non-exercise activities of daily living (NEAT)

Walking instead of driving
Taking the stairs versus the escalator or elevator
Walking for pleasure
Gardening or yard work
Household chores
Standing or pacing while talking on the phone

167
Q

Moderate calorie deficit

A

Portion control, replace high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes, select lean proteins in place of high fat proteins, replace highly processed + high calorie items with whole, nutrient-dense foods, limit the frequency + portion of high calorie foods, such as desserts, choose higher-fiber foods (veggies, fruits, + whole grains), in place of lower-fiber and calorie-dense foods

Vegetables instead of macaroni and cheese as a side dish

Replace high-calorie drinks with water or other calorie-free beverages

Water, seltzer, flavored water, tea, or black coffee instead of sweetened sodas, juices, energy drinks, and other beverages

168
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Enlargement of an organ or tissue; in the context of fitness, it is often used to describe the enlargement of skeletal muscle.

169
Q

Portion size + meal timing

A

Optimal protein dosing for MPS has been shown to be in the range of 20–40 g per meal (or 0.25–0.40 g/kg per meal).

170
Q

Macro-nutrient Composition

A

The recommended range for carbohydrate intake for MPS is in the range of 4–7 g/kg per day for resistance-trained athletes (Slater et al., 2019). Athletes seeking to build muscle mass to complement sports performance are recommended to target the higher end of this range to meet both carbohydrate requirements for their sport and support MPS during resistance training.

171
Q

Adequate protein intake

A

Based on individual needs
1.6–2.2 g/kg of body weight per day
2.4 g/kg of body weight per day (if in caloric deficit)

172
Q

Adequate caloric intake

A

Based on individual needs
Surplus of 350–500 calories per day may be beneficial

173
Q

Adequate carbohydrate intake

A

Based on individual needs
4–7 g/kg per day for resistance trained athletes

174
Q

Adequate fat intake

A

20–35% of total calories as per USDA guidelines
Preferentially from polyunsaturated (omega-3) and monounsaturated fats

175
Q

Goal-Based Nutrition Strategies

A

Little steps clients can take to reach their goals: lower calorie foods

176
Q

Which of the following is required for fat loss?

A

A net deficit in caloric intake

177
Q

MATCH the macro-nutrient with the daily intake recommended for muscle gain.

A

Protein: 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

Carbohydrate: 4 to 7 g/kg of body weight

Fat: 20 to 35% of total calories

178
Q

Carbohydrates

A

guidelines recommend that 45% to 65% of calories come from carbohydrates

179
Q

Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer?

A

General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

180
Q

A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high blood sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes before considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

A

Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.

181
Q

What type of foods contain carbohydrates?

A

Plant foods and dairy?

182
Q

A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?

A

The most appropriate option here is to increase meal frequency and portion size to add bulk. Portions of all macro-nutrients, and carbohydrates in particular, would need to increase to add bulk, and the client would benefit from being referred to a qualified sports nutrition professional for assistance.

183
Q

During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body?

A

Carbohydrates - the primary source of fuel during short-duration, high-intensity exercise.

184
Q

You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond, while staying within your scope of practice?

A

Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.

185
Q

What is adaptive thermogenesis?

A

Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake?

186
Q

What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins?

A

Essential & nonessential amino acids (20)

187
Q

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?

A

Registered dietitian nutritionists (RDNs) are credentialed by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, and food service nutrition education on a national level.

188
Q

Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product?

A

The ingredients list

189
Q

Metabolism

A

All of the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself. Inadequate intake of vitamins and minerals can contribute to micro-nutrient deficiencies and insufficiencies, which affect an individual’s health status.

190
Q

Fat-soluble

A

The fat-soluble vitamins are vitamins A, D, E, and K

Require fat for digestion and absorption; they travel through the lymphatic system and circulate with other fat-soluble nutrients to the liver, where they are repackaged with lipo-proteins and redistributed to other organs and tissues.

191
Q

Water-soluble

A

Vitamin C and the large group of B vitamins

Thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, folate, vitamin B6, vitamin B12, biotin, and pantothenic acid

192
Q

Major minerals

A

Minerals present in the body in larger amounts

193
Q

Trace minerals

A

Minerals present in small amounts in the body. They include iron, zinc, copper, selenium, iodine, manganese, chromium, fluoride, and molybdenum.

194
Q

Collagen

A

A type of protein found in skin, tendons, + ligaments; vitamin C is an essential component to its synthesis

Chronic deficiency of this vitamin can lead to a condition called scurvy, which is a result of collagen breakdown leading to tissue rupture

195
Q

Vitamin B (2 groups)

A

One group plays a key role in red blood cell (RBC) synthesis and an energy-metabolism group, which has a significant role in energy-producing pathways, such as glycolysis and the Cori (Krebs) cycle

The B vitamins involved in RBC synthesis include folate and vitamins B6 and B12. Deficiencies in these vitamins can lead to different types of anemia (deficiency of hemoglobin or RBCs) due to inadequate RBC synthesis

Deficiencies in these B vitamins can manifest as fatigue, confusion, lethargy, and compromised athletic performance

196
Q

Hydration strategies

A

Regulation of body temperature
Transport and distribution of water-soluble nutrients
Maintenance of blood volume
Lubrication of joints, membranes, and synovial tissue
Shock absorption
Removal of waste matter and toxins

197
Q

Lack of water

A

Increased heart rate
Higher body temperature
Higher rate of perceived exertion
Increased use of muscle glycogen
Lower blood volume
Decreased cardiac output
Decreased blood flow
Lower rate of perspiration (and temperature regulation)

198
Q

Heat Exhaustion

A

A condition that occurs when the body becomes overheated. It can occur from dehydration in a hot climate, and symptoms include heavy sweating, rapid pulse, low blood pressure, nausea, dizziness, and muscle cramps.

199
Q

Heatstroke

A

A condition that can develop if heat exhaustion is not treated quickly. Heatstroke symptoms include headache, fever, confusion and disorientation, and flushed skin. Heatstroke is a medical emergency and can be fatal if not quickly treated.

200
Q

Sports drink

A

Drink with a combination of carbohydrate and/or electrolytes used for rehydration and carbohydrate replenishment during physical activity; may be isotonic, hypotonic, or hypertonic.

201
Q

Electrolytes

A

Minerals that have an electrical charge to help transmit nerve impulses throughout the body, such as sodium, potassium, and chloride.

202
Q

Hypotonic

A

A solution with a lower solute load/concentration than body fluids

have a lower concentration of salt and electrolytes compared to the human body

203
Q

Isotonic

A

A solution with a similar solute load/concentration as body fluids

have a similar concentration of salt and electrolytes as in a human body

204
Q

Hypertonic

A

A solution with a higher solute load/concentration than body fluids

have higher concentrations of salt and electrolytes; they are absorbed more quickly than isotonic or hypotonic solutions.

205
Q

Hypotonic (extended)

A

Fluid replenishment is a greater priority than carbohydrate or electrolyte replacement

206
Q

Isotonic (extended)

A

Activities lasting more than 60 minutes

Moderate fluid and electrolyte losses

Moderate perspiration

207
Q

Hypertonic

A

High-volume and intense training lasting more than 60–90 minutes

Large fluid and electrolyte losses

Heavy perspiration

Higher priority for carbohydrate and electrolyte replacement (versus fluid replacement only)

208
Q

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

A

Vitamin K

209
Q

Which of the following is a major mineral?

A

Calcium

210
Q

Dietary Supplement

A

A product (other than tobacco) intended to supplement the diet that bears or contains one or more of the following dietary ingredients: vitamin; mineral; herb or other botanical; amino acid; substance used by man to supplement the diet by increasing the total dietary intake; or concentrate, metabolite, constituent, extract, or combination of any previously described ingredient.

211
Q

Essential Nutrient

A

Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own.

212
Q

Toxicity

A

When too much of a vitamin or mineral accumulates within the body, resulting in illness or other symptoms.

213
Q

When did modern-day nutritional supplements originate?

A

1940s

214
Q

When did modern-day nutritional supplements originate?

A

China

215
Q

Which of the following is an example of a client’s intrinsic motivation for exercise?

A

Exercising because it is fun

216
Q

Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation?

A

Intrinsic motivation

217
Q

A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal?

A

Running a 6-minute mile is an outcome goal. It would be the result of process goals such as running 3 times per week.

218
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client’s outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?

A

Improving their confidence for their technique

218
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client’s outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?

A

Improving their confidence for their technique

219
Q

If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing?

A

Unrealistic goals

220
Q

Informational support would be provided by which example?

A

Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day

221
Q

When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?

A

Sustain talk

222
Q

Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?

A

Developing intrinsic motivation?

223
Q

Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional?

A

Instrumental support

224
Q

The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area?

A

Behavioral change

225
Q

Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership?

A

Situational factors dictate if the approach to leadership should be adjusted.

226
Q

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action?

A

Implementation intention

227
Q

Which of the following is a question that may promote change?

A

What might you want to change?

228
Q

Which of the following is an open-ended question?

A

What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?

229
Q

Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?

A

Instrumental support

230
Q

Which of the following would be considered a process goal?

A

Run 3x a week. Unlike an outcome goal, a process goal is something that is pursued overtime to reach a final outcome, like planning to run multiple times a week.

231
Q

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?

A

Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

232
Q

When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?

A

Improved physical appearance?

233
Q

A known relationship between sleep and exercise is demonstrated by which statement?

A

Research has found that 150 minutes of activity per week can decrease symptoms of insomnia.

234
Q

A client wants to improve their dead lift. Which of the following is an outcome goal?

A

Dead lifting 300 pounds is an outcome goal. It would be the result of process goals such as lifting 3 times per week or getting better sleep.

235
Q

Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents?

A

Parents

236
Q

Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement?

A

Someone with social physique anxiety has anxiety about their physical appearance or is insecure about how they look to others or how they believe others perceive their body.

237
Q

Which of the following is true about body image?

A

Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

238
Q

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?

A

Self-efficacy refers to confidence to perform a given behavior.

239
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing “not at all ready” and 10 representing “completely ready.” If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in?

A

This person has done some aerobic training here and there, but not consistently, and they are ready to change.

240
Q

A client is asked, “Why do you want to lose weight?” This is an example of what kind of question?

A

An open-ended question allows a client to give more information.

241
Q

Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior?

A

Planning is seen as subordinate to goal intentions; that is, planning helps individuals carry out goals.

242
Q

Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?

A

Females?

243
Q

Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating?

A

Ambivalence

244
Q

What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form?

A

Technique imagery involves focusing on form.

245
Q

When a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client’s self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using?

A

Breaking down tasks into manageable sub-components is a feature of setting specific tasks.

246
Q

What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes?

A

Appearance imagery is when a client imagines appearance or health-related outcomes.

247
Q

The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone’s decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?

A

Group influence

Groups that may have a regular influence on physical activity include significant others, family members, peers, and exercise leaders.

248
Q

The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term?

A

Socioeconomic status refers to the social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation.

249
Q

A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following?

A

Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

Creating safe places that are free of cost is one way a community can encourage physical activity.

250
Q

What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?

A

Determinants

251
Q

Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which of the following barriers?

A

When lack of time is a barrier, re-prioritizing daily tasks can help overcome this. Some ways to reclaim time for exercise can include rearranging schedules so that exercise becomes more of a priority.

252
Q

When a client makes a plan, such as, “When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes,” what are they doing?

A

Implementation intentions link goal-directed behaviors with good opportunities to act.

253
Q

Self-esteem is defined by which of the following?

A

How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially

Self-esteem describes how someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially.

254
Q

Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency

A

Contemplation?

255
Q

What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions?

A

Nonverbal communication includes the use of things such as body language and facial gestures.

256
Q

Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens?

A

If goals are not realistic, then they should be adjusted.

257
Q

A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome?

A

Convenience?

258
Q

When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct?

A

Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.

259
Q

Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?

A

Sport and exercise psychology focuses on aspects such as understanding participants’ motives and barriers to physical activity, ways the environment affects exercise behavior, social influences on exercise, psychological benefits of exercise, and the psychological factors that affect long-term exercise adherence.

260
Q

Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues?

A

Body image issues can be associated with social physique anxiety.

261
Q

When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following?

A

If family members are not supportive of exercise behavior, it can become a significant barrier.

262
Q

Providing encouragement and being empathetic is an example of which type of social support?

A

Emotional support includes the encouragement and positive reinforcement that is provided by one individual to another. It includes being caring and empathetic and showing concern.

263
Q

Stimulant

A

An agent that increases physiologic or metabolic activity. Common stimulants include caffeine and nicotine.

264
Q

Creatine

A

Molecule made from amino acids and used as a dietary supplement to facilitate adenosine triphosphate regeneration for improved training capacity, strength, power, and muscle mass.

265
Q

Banned

A

A dietary supplement that may be prohibited from use in a specific sport or sport league. These supplements may not be illegal or prohibited at all times during the year.

266
Q

Anabolic steroid

A

Compound made from testosterone or another hormone that acts on hormone receptors to produce increases in muscle size or strength.

267
Q

Active Ingredient

A

Any component of a dietary supplement included for the purpose of causing a physiologic effect; displayed on the main body of the supplement facts panel.

268
Q

Other Ingredient

A

Any component of a dietary supplement included for taste, bulk, or as a preservative; displayed beneath the main body of the supplement facts panel.

269
Q

Supplement facts panel

A

Portion of a dietary supplement’s label that displays the active ingredients, other ingredients, serving size, number of servings, quantity of ingredients, and the percent daily value.

270
Q

Daily Value (DV)

A

Amount of a nutrient recommended to be consumed each day to maintain good health. Based on a 2,000-calorie diet for those ages 4 years and older.

271
Q

Who enforces guidelines for dietary supplements in the United States?

A

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

272
Q

What term is used to describe any unfavorable medical occurrence associated with the use of a medication, medical intervention, or dietary supplement?

A

Adverse effect

273
Q

Health supplement

A

A dietary supplement used to improve a component of well-being.

274
Q

Performance supplement

A

A dietary supplement that may enhance performance or body composition; may also be referred to as an ergogenic aid.

275
Q

Vitamins

A

Group of organic compounds required in small quantities in the diet to support growth and metabolic processes.

276
Q

Minerals

A

Inorganic, natural substances, some of which are essential in human nutrition. There are two kinds of minerals: major minerals (aka, macrominerals) and trace minerals.

277
Q

Biologically active

A

The form in which a vitamin must be to exert an effect within the body.

278
Q

Biologically inactive

A

Any form of vitamin that cannot exert its effect within the body.

279
Q

Beta-carotene

A

The red-orange pigment found in vegetables and fruits that is converted to vitamin A in the body.

280
Q

Lactose intolerance

A

A sensitivity to lactose (milk sugar) typically resulting in gastrointestinal distress.

281
Q

Irritable bowel syndrome

A

Gastrointestinal discomfort, sometimes severe, triggered by certain foods but is not a food allergy.

282
Q

Rickets

A

A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency.

283
Q

Osteoporosis

A

A condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases risk of bone fracture.

284
Q

Heart arrhythmia

A

Irregular heartbeat

285
Q

Platelet aggregation

A

An accumulation of blood cells prior to a clot.

286
Q

Immunodeficiency

A

A weakened immune system.

287
Q

Peripheral neuropathy

A

Nerve damage not occurring in the brain or spinal cord.

288
Q

Skeletal myopathy

A

Muscle degeneration

289
Q

Collagen

A

A protein found in connective tissue, muscles, and skin that provides strength and structure. It is the most abundant protein in the human body.

290
Q

Survy

A

A disease resulting from insufficient vitamin C and characterized by spontaneous bleeding (usually of the gums), anemia, swelling, weakened joints, and loss of teeth.

291
Q

Beriberi

A

A thiamine deficiency that can result in inflammation or degeneration of the heart and nerves, peripheral neuropathy, and impaired motor function.

292
Q

Pellagra

A

A niacin or tryptophan deficiency that leads to a skin rash (dermatitis), digestive disorders (diarrhea), and mood or cognitive decline (dementia).

293
Q

Anorexia

A

A loss of appetite or the conscious decision to avoid eating, often leading to dangerously low body weight and/or malnourishment.

294
Q

Anemia

A

A condition of poor iron status.

295
Q

Dermatitis

A

Inflammation of the skin, rashes, excessive dryness, and/or blistering.

296
Q

Spina bifida

A

A birth defect, and type of neural tube defect, when the spine and spinal cord do not form properly.

297
Q

Amenorrheic

A

Absence of menstruation.

298
Q

Osteopenia

A

Lower than normal bone density and a precursor to osteoporosis.

299
Q

Lacto-ovo vegetarian

A

A vegetarian diet that also includes dairy and eggs.

300
Q

Ovo-vegetarian

A

A vegetarian diet that also includes eggs.

301
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

Excess blood calcium levels.

302
Q

Heme

A

A type of iron found in animal foods

303
Q

Nonheme

A

A type of iron found in plant foods

304
Q

Nonheme

A

A type of iron found in plant foods

305
Q

Hemochromatosis

A

A disease in which the body absorbs too much iron from consumed foods.

306
Q

Omega-3

A

The polyunsaturated fats, eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA), docosahexaenoic acid (DHA), and alpha-linolenic acid (ALA).

307
Q

Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)

A

A type of omega-3 fatty acid found in the flesh of cold-water fish, such as tuna, mackerel, salmon, and herring.

308
Q

Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)

A

A type of omega-3 fatty acid that is found in seafood, such as fish and fish oils.

309
Q

Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA)

A

One type of omega-3 fatty acid found in seeds and oils, such as walnuts and flax seed, and many common vegetable oils.

310
Q

Triglycerides

A

The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body.

311
Q

Into what two categories are dietary supplements typically classified?

A

Health supplements and performance supplements

312
Q

Vitamins

A

Organic compounds required in small quantities to support growth and metabolic processes

313
Q

Minerals

A

Inorganic, natural substances, some of which are essential in human nutrition

314
Q

Biologically active

A

The form of a vitamin that can exert its effect within the body

315
Q

Biologically Inactive

A

Any form of a vitamin that cannot exert its effect within the body

316
Q

Berberi

A

A disease caused by thiamine deficiency that can result in heart and nerve inflammation or degeneration, peripheral neuropathy, and impaired motor function

317
Q

Scurvy

A

A disease caused by vitamin C deficiency that can lead to anemia, joint weakness, swelling, and tooth loss

318
Q

Anemia

A

A term often used to refer to the condition of insufficient iron in the body that can result in fatigue and shortness of breath

319
Q

Pellagra

A

A disease caused by niacin or tryptophan deficiency that can lead to a rash, digestive disorders, and mood or cognitive decline

320
Q

Ergogenic aid

A

A dietary supplement that may enhance performance or body composition; it may also be referred to as a performance supplement.

321
Q

Amino acids

A

Organic building blocks of proteins containing both a carboxyl and an amino group.

322
Q

Nonessential amino acids

A

Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body and do not, under normal circumstances, need to be obtained in the diet.

323
Q

Essential amino acid (EAA)

A

Amino acid that must be obtained through the diet as the body does not make it; there are nine essential amino acids.

324
Q

Branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)

A

The three essential amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine) that are abundant in skeletal muscle tissue and named for their branchlike structures.

325
Q

Muscle protein synthesis (MPS)

A

Process by which new muscle proteins are formed and a muscle grows or repairs at the molecular level.

326
Q

Phosphagen

A

High-energy molecule that releases energy when its bonds are broken.

327
Q

Creatine monohydrate

A

The most common, and likely most effective, form of creatine available as a dietary supplement.

328
Q

Loading

A

Practice of using large doses of a supplement to saturate muscle tissues or other body stores prior to resorting to a lesser, maintenance dose.

329
Q

Endogenous

A

Produced or synthesized within an organism.

330
Q

Adrenaline

A

Hormone, also known as epinephrine, that excites bodily processes, increasing alertness and cell metabolism.

331
Q

Caffeine anhydrous

A

A highly concentrated caffeine powder made from the seeds and leaves of coffee plants.

332
Q

DMAA

A

Dimethylamylamine; a stimulant and amphetamine once legal for use as a dietary supplement.

333
Q

Ephedra

A

A plant-sourced alkaloid with metabolism-enhancing effects. It is an illegal supplement in the United States and the European Union.

334
Q

Serious adverse effect

A

Any adverse effect that results in any life-threatening situation, inpatient hospitalization, persistent incapacity of a person’s ability to conduct a normal life, a congenital anomaly, reproductive harm, or death.

335
Q

Hormone precursor

A

A hormone used to create another hormone or hormone-like agent.

336
Q

Testosterone

A

A hormone producing secondary male sex characteristics.

337
Q

Gynecomastia

A

A condition in males characterized by breast tissue growth.

338
Q

Regarding human nutrition, how many of the 20 relevant amino acids are considered nonessential amino acids?

A

11

339
Q

Which of the following amino acids are referred to as branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs)?

A

Leucine, isoleucine, and valine

340
Q

Creatine monohydrate

A

the most common, and likely most effective form of creatine available as a dietary supplement?

Nutrition - Section 3, Chap 9 (1 decks)

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