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CSX > Section 2: Cybersecurity Concepts > Flashcards

Section 2: Cybersecurity Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

The following are generally the approaches to implementing cybersecurity except:

a. Compliance-based
b. Risk-based
c. Ad hoc
d. Periodic

A

d. Periodic

In reality, most organizations with mature security programs use a combination of risk-based and compliance-based approaches.

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2
Q

Also known as standards-based security approach.

A

Compliance-based approach to implementing cybersecurity

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3
Q

This approach relies on regulations or standards to determine security implementations.

A

Compliance-based approach to implementing cybersecurity

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4
Q

This approach implements controls regardless of applicability or necessity and often leads to a “checklist” attitude toward security.

A

Compliance-based approach to implementing cybersecurity

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5
Q

This approach relies on identifying the unique risk the organization faces and designing and implementing security controls to address that risk.

A

Risk-based approach to implementing cybersecurity

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6
Q

This approach simply implements security with no particular rationale or criteria.

A

Ad-hoc approach to implementing cybersecurity

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7
Q

The combination of the probability of an event and its consequence.

A

Risk

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8
Q

Anything that is capable of acting against an asset in a manner that can result in harm.

A

Threat

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9
Q

A potential cause of an unwanted incident.

A

Threat (as defined by ISO/IEC 13335)

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10
Q

The actual process or agent attempting to cause harm.

A

Threat source

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11
Q

The result or outcome of a threat agent’s malicious activity.

A

Threat event

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12
Q

Something of either tangible or intangible value that is worth protecting, including people, information, infrastructure, finances and reputation.

A

Asset

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13
Q

A weakness in the design, implementation, operation or internal control of a process that could expose the system to adverse threats from threat events.

A

Vulnerability

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14
Q

The remaining risk after management has implemented a risk response.

A

Residual risk

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15
Q

The risk level or exposure without taking into account the actions that management has taken or might take.

A

Inherent risk

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16
Q

When assessing a threat, cybersecurity professionals often analyze the threat’s _____ and _____ in order to rank and prioritize it among other existing threats.

A

Likelihood and impact

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17
Q

To measure risk, the following criteria is considered except:

a. Risk tolerance
b. Size and scope of environment in question
c. Amount of data available
d. System tools used

A

d. System tools used is not one of the criteria in measuring risk.

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18
Q

A threat agent that is known to breach security boundaries and perform malicious acts to gain a competitive advantage.

A

Corporations

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19
Q

A threat agent that often targets government and private entities with a high level of sophistication to obtain intelligence or carry out other destructive activities.

A

Nation states

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20
Q

A threat agent that often acts independently and targets specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends

A

Hacktivist

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21
Q

A threat agent characterized by their willingness to use violence to achieve their goals and frequently target critical infrastructures and government groups

A

Cyberterrorists

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22
Q

A threat agent that is motivated by the desire for profit and involved in fraudulent financial transactions

A

Cybercriminals

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23
Q

A threat agent that is often likened to hacktivists

A

Cyberwarriors

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24
Q

A threat agent that is also referred to as cyberfighters

A

Cyberwarriors

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25
Q

A threat agent that are usually nationally motivated citizens who may act on behalf of a political party or against another political party that threatens them

A

Cyberwarriors

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26
Q

Young individuals who are learning how to hack

A

Script kiddies

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27
Q

A threat agent that is skilled in social engineering and is frequently involved in cyberbullying, identity theft, and collection of other confidential information or credentials.

A

Online social hackers

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28
Q

A threat agent that typically have fairly low-tech methods and tools

A

Employees

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29
Q

The actual occurrence of a threat

A

Attack

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30
Q

The activity by a threat agent (or adversary) against an asset

A

Attack

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31
Q

The path or route used to gain access to the target (asset)

A

Attack vector

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32
Q

What are the two types of attack vectors?

A
  1. Ingress (or intrusion)

2. Egress (or data exfiltration)

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33
Q

Method used to deliver the exploit

A

Attack mechanism

34
Q

The container that delivers the exploit to the target

A

Payload

35
Q

The following are attack attributes except:

a. Attack vector
b. Payload
c. Vulnerability
d. Risk

A

d. Risk is not part of attack attributes.

The following are the attack attributes:

a. Attack vector
b. Payload
c. Exploit
d. Vulnerability
e. Target (Asset)

36
Q

A threat event that is made by a human threat agent

A

Adversarial threat event

37
Q

A threat event that is usually the result of an error, malfunction or mishap of some sort.

A

Non-adversarial threat event

38
Q

Rearrange the following to describe the common/generalized attack process most adversarial threat events follow:

\_\_\_ Create attack tools
\_\_\_ Coordinate a campaign
\_\_\_ Deliver malicious capabilities
\_\_\_ Exploit and compromise
\_\_\_ Perform reconnaissance
\_\_\_ Conduct an attack
\_\_\_ Maintain a presence or set of capabilities
\_\_\_ Achieve results
A
  1. Perform reconnaissance
  2. Create attack tools
  3. Deliver malicious capabilities
  4. Exploit and compromise
  5. Conduct an attack
  6. Achieve results
  7. Maintain a presence or set of capabilities
  8. Coordinate a campaign
39
Q

The following are examples of non-adversarial threat events except:

a. Pervasive disk errors
b. Fire, flood, hurricane, windstorm or earthquake
c. Incorrect privilege settings
d. Mishandling of critical vulnerabilities into software products

A

d. Other common examples of non-adversarial threat events are:

  • Mishandling of critical or sensitive information by authorized users
  • Introduction of vulnerabilities into software products
40
Q

A software designed to gain access to targeted computer systems, steal information or disrupt computer operations.

A

Malware (or malicious software)

41
Q

A computer worm discovered in 2010 that was used to compromise Iranian nuclear systems and software

A

Stuxnet

42
Q

A malware discovered in 2012 that was used to record keyboard activity and network traffic as well as screenshots, audio and video communications such as Skype.

A

Flame (or Flamer or Skywiper)

43
Q

A piece of code that can replicate itself and spread from one computer to another and requires intervention or execution to replicate and/or cause damage

A

Virus

44
Q

A variant of the computer virus which is essentially a piece of self-replicating code designed to spread itself across computer networks and does not require intervention or execution to replicate

A

Network worm

45
Q

A piece of malware that gains access to a targeted system by hiding within a genuine application

A

Trojan horse

46
Q

A large, automated and distributed network of previously compromised computers that can be simultaneously controlled to launch large-scale attacks as denial-of-service.

A

Botnet

47
Q

A class of malware that gathers information about a person or organization without the knowledge of that person or organization

A

Spyware

48
Q

Designed to present advertisements (generally unwanted) to users

A

Adware

49
Q

A class of extortive malware that locks or encrypts data or functions and demands a payment to unlock them

A

Ransomware

50
Q

A class of malware that secretly records user keystrokes and, in some cases, screen content

A

Keylogger

51
Q

A class of malware that hides the existence of other malware by modifying the underlying operating system

A

Rootkit

52
Q

Complex and coordinated attacks directed at a specific entity or organization

A

Advanced persistent threats

53
Q

A means of regaining access to a compromised system by installing software or configuring existing software to enable remote access under attacker-defined conditions.

A

Backdoor

54
Q

An attack made by trying all possible combinations of passwords or encryption keys until the correct one is found.

A

Brute force attack

55
Q

Occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer than it was intended to hold

A

Buffer overflow

56
Q

A type of injection in which malicious scripts are injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites

A

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

57
Q

Occurs when an attacker uses a web application to send a malicious code, generally in the form of a browser side script, to a different end user

A

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

58
Q

An assault on a service from a single source that floods it with so many requests that it becomes overwhelmed and is either stopped completely or operates at a significantly reduced rate

A

Denial-of-service (Dos) attack

59
Q

An attack strategy in which the attacker intercepts the communication stream between two parts of the victim system and then replaces the traffic between the two components with the intruder’s own, eventually assuming control of the communication

A

Man-in-the-middle attack

60
Q

Any attempt to exploit social vulnerabilities to gain access to information and/or systems

A

Social engineering

61
Q

A type of email attack that attempts to convince a user that the originator is genuine but with the intention of obtaining information for use in social engineering

A

Phishing

62
Q

An attack where social engineering techniques are used to masquerade as a trusted party to obtain important information such as passwords from the victim

A

Spear phishing

63
Q

Faking the sending address of a transmission in order to gain illegal entry into a secure system

A

Spoofing

64
Q

Results from failure of the application to appropriately validate input

A

SQL injection

65
Q

A vulnerability that is exploited before the software creator/vendor is even aware of its existence

A

Zero-day exploit

66
Q

True or false: Access control policies are a primary element of cybersecurity and governance.

A

False: Information security policies are a primary element of cybersecurity and governance.

67
Q

True or false: Most organizations should create security policies prior to developing a security strategy.

A

True

68
Q

Policies, standards, and procedures that outline the actions that are required or prohibited.

A

Compliance documents

69
Q

Defined as the way that compliance documents relate to and support each other

A

Policy framework

70
Q

Compliance document type that communicate required and prohibited activities and behaviors

A

Policies

71
Q

Compliance document type that interpret policies in specific situations

A

Standards

72
Q

Compliance document type that provide details on how to comply with policies and standards

A

Procedures

73
Q

Compliance document type that provide general guidance on issues such as “what to do in particular circumstances”

A

Guidelines

74
Q

True or false: The number and type of policies an organization chooses to implement varies based on the organization’s size, culture, assets, regulatory requirements and complexity of operations.

A

False: The number and type of policies an organization chooses to implement varies based on the organization’s size, culture, RISK, regulatory requirements and complexity of operations.

75
Q

The following topics are covered in access control policy except:

a. Log retention of super users
b. Physical and logical access provisioning
c. Least privilege/need to know
d. Segregation of duties

A

a. Log retention of super users

Access control policy should cover the following topics:

  1. Physical and logical access provisioning life cycle
  2. Least privilege/need to know
  3. Segregation of duties
  4. Emergency access
76
Q

The following topics are covered in security incident response policy except:

a. Statement of how incidents will be handled
b. Incident documentation and closing
c. Segregation of duties
d. Definition of information security incident

A

c. Segregation of duties is covered in access control policy, not in security incident response policy.

77
Q

Refers to a register of users who have permission to use a particular system resource.

A

Access control list (ACL)

78
Q

True or false: Change management is a standalone process that requires a comprehensive knowledge of enterprise operations and infrastructure to be implemented effectively.

A

False: Change management is NOT a standalone process; it draws upon a number of other processes and controls.

79
Q

Defined as solutions to software programming errors.

A

Patches

80
Q

True or false: Failure to apply patches to known security vulnerabilities is the most common cause of security breaches.

A

True

81
Q

The following are benefits of implementing a configuration management process except:

a. Verification of impact on related items
b. Ability to inspect different lines of defense for potential weaknesses
c. Assessment of a proposed change’s risk
d. Redundancy of the version control repository

A

d. Redundancy of the version control repository is dependent on the backup policy and not one of the benefits of configuration management process.

CSX (4 decks)

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