Section 1 Welding Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What part and section of the OHS code describes the membership of a joint work site health and safety committee?

A) part 12, section 197
B) part13, section 197
C) part 14, section 197
D) part 15, section 197

A

B) part 13, section 197

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What part and section of the OHS code describes the requirements and options for protective footwear?

A) part 18, section 229
B) part 18, section 232
C) part 18, section 233
D) part 18, section 236

A

C) part 18, section 233

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What part and section of the OHS code describes the requirements for workers training about WHMIS?

A) part 29, section 394
B) part 29, section 395
C) part 29, section 396
D) part 29, section 397

A

D) part 29, section 397

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the first aid requirements for low hazard work at a close work site with 5 to 9 workers at the work site per shift?

A) 1 emergency first aider, 1 standard first aid kit,
No. 2 first aid kit, 3 blankets
B) 2 standard first aiders, No. 2 first aid kit,3 blankets
C) 2 standard first aiders, No. 3 first aid kit, 3 blankets, stretcher, splint
D) 1 Emergency first aider, 1 standard first aider, No. 2 first aid kit

A

D) 1 Emergency first aider, 1 standard first aider, No. 2 first aid kit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an employer responsibility with regard to hazard assessment at the work site?

A) to provide easy and immediate access for any worker to OHS act, regulation and code at the work site
B) to ensure suppliers are aware of their responsibility to provide necessary information on any hazard related to their products
C) to develop a plan to eliminate or control any hazard identified at the work site
D) to ensure all workers participate in daily meetings to inspect their tools and plan their work

A

C) to develop a plan to eliminate or control any hazard identified at the work site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is workers’ compensation board of Alberta funded?

A) 100% of the funding for the WCB comes from employers in Alberta
B) 75% of the funding for the WCB comes from employers and 25% from the provincial government.
C) 50% of the funding for WCB comes from employers, 25% from the provincial government and 25% from employees
D) 33% of the funding for the WCB comes from employers, 34% from the provincial government and 33% from employees

A

A) 100% of the funding for the WCB comes from employers in Alberta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the four categories of workplace hazards?

A) ecological, chemical, ergonomic, physical
B) biological, chemical, ergonomic, physical
C) biological, ecological, chemical, physical
D) chemical, physical, psychological, ecological

A

B) biological, chemical, ergonomic, physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is an example of an engineering control for worker protection?

A) renovation
B) subdivision
C) isolation
D) activation

A

C) isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is an administrative controls put in place for worker protection?

A) to identify the correct personal protective equipment to be used in a hazardous situation
B) to document the details of the implementation of an engineering control.
C) when an engineering control cannot eliminate or control a hazard.
D) to isolate hazard through containment or enclosure.

A

C) when an engineering control cannot eliminate or control a hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

who is responsible to have an emergency response plan in place at the work site?

A) employees
B) OHS inspectors
C) joint work site health and safety committee
D) employers

A

D) employers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what part of the OHS code covers first aid requirements at the worksite?

A) part 10
B) part 11
C) part 12
D) part 13

A

B) part 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what must your employer do if first aid supplies are stored in secure containers at the work site?

A) ensure the containers are clearly marked to indicate their contents.
B) ensure the containers are stored in dust proof environment.
C) ensure the containers are not stacked more than 3 layers high.
D) ensure the containers are inspected monthly to ensure contents are safe.

A

A) ensure the containers are clearly marked to indicate their contents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what number and type of first aiders must your employer ensure are present at an isolated work site with low hazard assessment rating and 65 workers at the work site per shift?

A) 1 standard first aider
B) 1 standard first aider and 1 emergency first aider
C) 2 standard first aiders
D) 2 standard first aiders and 1 emergency first aider

A

C) 2 standard first aiders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the duty to use personal protective equipment according to Alberta OHS code?

A) a clause that must be included in the employment contract of every construction worker in Alberta
B) a sign that must be posted at the entrance to any work site where PPE is required
C) the part of the OHS code that describes the different types of PPE to be used on the work site
D) what you and your employer must do if a hazard assessment identifies the need for the use of PPE

A

D) what you and your employer must do if a hazard assessment identifies the need for the use of PPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

who is responsible to ensure work site emergency response plans remain up to date?

A) the employer
B) the employer and employees
C) the employees
D) the OHS inspector

A

B) the employer and employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when a work site hazard assessment identifies that workers are required to wear PPE what is your employer’s responsibility?

A) ensure all workers are informed about the need to wear PPE.
B) ensure all workers properly use and wear the required PPE.
C) Put up posters indicating a hazard assessment had identified that PPE is required
D) ensure all workers are provided with funding to purchase required PPE

A

B) ensure all workers properly use and wear the required PPE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is an employee responsibility with regard to the use of PPE?

A) to inspect your PPE once a month
B) to modify poor fitting PPE so it fits properly
C) to inspect your PPE prior to each use
D) to wear your PPE only when you sense an accident to happen

A

C) to inspect your PPE prior to each use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
industrial protective headwear must comply with what standard?
A) ULC
B) PPE
C) WCB
D) CSA
A

D) CSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is NOT an obligation your employer assumes when hazards assessment indicates the need for PPE?

A) to post duty to use personal protective equipment sign at all entrances to the work site
B) to ensure employees are trained in the use, care, limitations and maintenance of their PPE
C) to ensure workers properly use and wear PPE
D) to ensure the PPE is in a condition to perform the function intended

A

A) to post duty to use personal protective equipment sign at all entrances to the work site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a characteristic of protective footwear with yellow triangle on the outer side or tongue of the right shoe?

A) sole puncture protection and grade 2 protection toe (will withstand impact up to 90 joules)
B) soles that provide electrical shock protection and a grade 2 protective toe (will withstand impact up to 90 joules)
C) sole puncture protection and grade 1 protective toe (will withstand impact up to 125 joules)
D) soles that provide electrical shock protection and grade 1 protective to (will withstand impact up to 125 joules)

A

A) sole puncture protection and grade 2 protection toe (will withstand impact up to 90 joules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

in what situation is your employer obligated to provide you with proper PPE according the OHS code?

A) when required PPE must be replaced more frequently than once a year
B) when required PPE must be replaced more frequently than once every 2 years
C) when workers are exposed to respiratory hazard or excessive noise levels
D) when workers are exposed to respiratory hazards only

A

C) when workers are exposed to respiratory hazard or excessive noise levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What standard must a full body harness meet if manufactured on or after July 1, 2009?

A) WCB
B) ULC
C) PPE
D) CSA

A

D) CSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How often must you inspect your fall arrest equipment?

A) before use on the first shift of the week
B) before use on the first shift of the month
C) before use on each shift
D) only after equipment has been used to protect you from a fall

A

C) before use on each shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the minimum distance a ladder must protrude above the intended landing point?

A) 0.3 m (1ft)
B) 1m (3ft)
C) 1/4 the length of the ladder
D) 1/4 the distance of the base of the ladder from the base of the wall or structure

A

B) 1m (3ft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The safety factor for scaffold must be designed and constructed to support at least:

A) three (3) times the load that may be imposed on it.
B) four (4) times the load that may be imposed on it.
C) five (5) times the load that may be imposed on it.
D) six (6) times the load that may be imposed on it.

A

B) four (4) times the load that may be imposed on it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

at what height must an employer have a guardrail erected for temporary work area?

A) 2.4 m (8ft)
B) 3.0 m (10ft)
C) 3.7 m (12ft)
D) 4.2 m (14ft)

A

B) 3.0 m (10ft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when conducting a hazard assessment related to lifting and handling a load, your employer must consider the:

A) weight, size and shape of the load.
B) cost of renting moving equipment
C) insured value of the load to be moved
D) number of people required to move load

A

A) weight, size and shape of the load.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is NOT an example of recommended lifting technique?

A) avoid awkward postures.
B) lift load smoothly.
C) lift no higher than eye level
D) begin lifting at knee level.

A

C) lift no higher than eye level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the goal of proper lifting technique?

A) to constantly practice lifting to become more skilled.
B) to increase lifting efficiency and capacity factor
C) to increase the number of lifts performed per day
D) to eliminate loading stresses on the soft tissue of your lower back

A

D) to eliminate loading stresses on the soft tissue of your lower back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how is safe working load (SWL) defined?

A) breaking strength divided by the safety factor
B) safety factor divided by the breaking strength
C) the ultimate tensile strength (UTS)
D) the safest way to move and lower a load

A

A) breaking strength divided by the safety factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what does the term shock loading mean when applied to rigging equipment?

A) a stray spark from a work operation occurs when the sling has load applied to it.
B) the sling is exposed to stress by having the load suddenly started or stopped.
C) the sling comes into contact with an electrical conductor when the sling is loaded.
D) the sling is used as an electrical conductor to connect to a load sensor in the lifting equipment

A

B) the sling is exposed to stress by having the load suddenly started or stopped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what rigging factor of safety is to be used when lifting and transporting workers?

A) 2:1
B) 5:1
C) 10:1
D) 20:1

A

C) 10:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how often must rigging be inspected?

A) when first put into service and every 3 months after that
B) at the beginning of each work shift
C) at the beginning of the first shift of the month
D) at the beginning of the first shift of the week

A

B) at the beginning of each work shift

34
Q

what is the recommended sling angle when rigging a load?

A) the sling angle must never be greater than 45
B) the sling angle must never be less than 45
C) the sling angle must ever never be greater than 60
D) the sling angle must never be less than 60

A

D) the sling angle must never be less than 60

35
Q

who is responsible for providing workers with WHMIS training?

A) the supplier of controlled products.
B) a training institute or provider.
C) the employee must obtain their own training.
D) the employer must provide the training.

A

D) the employer must provide the training.

36
Q

employers are responsible to:

A) provide a MSDS for each controlled product used in the workplace.
B) inform all workers about chemical hazards at the work site.
C) train workers about labels, MSDS and other identifiers.
D) all of the above.

A

D) all of the above.

37
Q

Suppliers of controller products are responsible to:

A) train employees to safety dispose of controlled products.
B) provide MSDS for controlled product they sell or import.
C) provide extra labels for employees to use when transferring controlled products from the original container.
D) visit work sites to ensure controlled products are labelled properly.

A

B) provide MSDS for controlled product they sell or import.

38
Q

employees are responsible to:

A) classify controlled products.
B) train other employees about WHMIS.
C) apply workplace labels where and when required.
D) ensure MSDS are readily available

A

C) apply workplace labels where and when required.

39
Q

the key elements of WHMIS are:

A) employee education, MSDS and product labelling.
B) hazard products act, OHS and MSDS
C) employee labelling, MSDS and employer training.
D) product labeling, OHS and controlled products regulation

A

A) employee education, MSDS and product labelling.

40
Q

the goal of WHMIS is to:

A) ensure workers have containers for controlled products
B) ensure suppliers of controlled products provide training for all employees
C) protect the worker by providing information on hazardous materials
D) ensure that requirements for information on hazardous materials are unique to the requirements of each province

A

C) protect the worker by providing information on hazardous materials

41
Q

an MSDS must be provided for each controlled product because they:

A) provide only the essential information from the label and are easier to read in an emergency
B) contain the generic products names and are easier to locate and read than the labels on the containers
C) are only for employer’s use when an emergency arise and they can be retrieved from a secure location
D) provide more detailed information than can be provided on a label.

A

D) provide more detailed information than can be provided on a label.

42
Q

the supplier label is attached to the:

A) container in which the products is shipped.
B) container in which the product is stored .
C) worksite near where the product is used.
D) invoice when the product is delivered.

A

A) container in which the products is shipped.

43
Q

what section of the MSDS would include information on personal protective equipment?

A) section 4 - fire explosion data
B) section 5 - reactivity data
C) section 6 - toxological properties
D) section 7 - preventative measures

A

D) section 7 - preventative measures

44
Q

what is an example of an engineering device used to protect workers from airborne contact with hazardous materials?

A) employer safety responsibilities
B) MSDS
C) ventilation system
D) supplier label

A

C) ventilation system

45
Q

how do you identify a portable gasoline container that is approved for use? it:

A) is approved under the Alberta occupational health and safety code.
B) is approved by the Alberta hazardous materials control regulation.
C) has a MSDS label affixed to the outside of the container
D) is approved by either one or both of the ULC or CSA.

A

D) is approved by either one or both of the ULC or CSA.

46
Q

ventilation system requirements for the work site are found in the:

A) provincial and national building codes.
B) Alberta occupational health ad safety code
C) WCB worker handbook
D) Alberta construction safety association

A

B) Alberta occupational health ad safety code

47
Q

before entering a confined workspace you should:

A) assemble all necessary tools and equipment to ensure easy while working in the confined space.
B) contact your employer to obtain information on dangerous gases present in the confined workspace.
C) discuss your work plan with other workers who may have worked in a similar confined space.
D) use a gas detector to determine whether the area contains any dangerous fumes or gases

A

D) use a gas detector to determine whether the area contains any dangerous fumes or gases

48
Q

what type of fire extinguisher is versatile in fighting different types or fires?

A) regular dry chemical
B) purple K dry chemical
C) multi-purpose dry chemical
D) dry powder

A

C) multi-purpose dry chemical

49
Q

when should you not fight a fire for personal safety reasons? when:

A) you are wearing fire retardant clothing (FRC)
B) the fire could block your escape route
C) the fire extinguisher does not have an inspection certificate
D) you have not activated the fire alarm

A

B) the fire could block your escape route

50
Q

what are the four steps of proper portable fir extinguisher use?

A) pull the pin. arm the extinguisher. squeeze the handle. touch the surface after the fire is out.
B) pull the pin. aim the extinguisher. sweep the extinguisher. touch the surface after fire is out
C) pick the extinguisher. arm the extinguisher. squeeze the handle. sweep the extinguisher from side to side
D) pull the pin. aim the extinguisher. squeeze the handle. sweep the extinguisher from side to side.

A

D) pull the pin. aim the extinguisher. squeeze the handle. sweep the extinguisher from side to side.

51
Q

which of the following portable fire extinguisher should be used to fight a small fire burning in a pile of discarded oily rags?

A) class A only
B) classes A,B and C
C) class C only 
D) class D and K
A

B) classes A,B and C

52
Q

A class C fire involves:

A) electrical equipment.
B) combustible metals.
C) flammable liquids.
D) household combustibles.

A

A) electrical equipment.

53
Q

permanent eye damage in the form of cataracts or retinal damage may result from over exposure to which harmful light ray?

A) visible
B) infrared
C) ultraviolet
D) reflected

A

B) infrared

54
Q

which type of radiant energy can cause welding flash?

A) visible light
B) infrared light
C) ultraviolet light
D) gamma rays

A

C) ultraviolet light

55
Q

what must be done where the general public is exposed to harmful welding rays?

A) put up proper screens and waring signs
B) let people lookout for themselves
C) weld only when no one is around
D) avoid the use of long arc length

A

A) put up proper screens and waring signs

56
Q

what should you to immediately if you receive a major contact burn?

A) rub the affected area with antibiotic cream.
B) seek professional medical attention
C) cool the burned area by immersing in cool, still water.
D) place the burned area under a fast-running warm water tap.

A

C) cool the burned area by immersing in cool, still water.

57
Q

one of the most common workshop hazards is:

A) heavy weights
B) high noise levels
C) other workers
D) poisonous gases

A

B) high noise levels

58
Q

hearing protection should be worm when the noise level is above:

A) 65 decibels
B) 85 decibels
C) 115 decibels
D) 135 decibels

A

B) 85 decibels

59
Q

what type of eye protection is recommended for grinding operation?

A) full-face visor and safety glasses
B) side shields
C) weilding goggles
D) photoelectric welding helmet

A

A) full-face visor and safety glasses

60
Q

what shade of filter plate is recommended for medium amperage GMAW operations?

A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12 or over

A

C) 11

61
Q

which type of material offers the best protection against sparks and molten slag?

A) leather
B) wool
C) nylon
D) cotton

A

A) leather

62
Q

what gloves are recommended for oxyfuel cutting?

A) hard twist cotton
B) silicon-treated nylon
C) dry-tanned leather gauntlet style
D) oil-treated cowhide with external cotton stitching

A

C) dry-tanned leather gauntlet style

63
Q

why is a fit test important when using a respirator?

A) so more than one worker can use it
B) so you look professional on the job
C) to prevent inward leaks of contaminated air
D) ultraviolet radiation from the welding arc.

A

C) to prevent inward leaks of contaminated air

64
Q

poisonous phosgene gas can be created by vapours of chlorinated hydrocarbon degreasers when the vapours are acted upon by:

A) local or general ventilation
B) high concentrations of visible light
C) heavy volumes of fumes
D) ultraviolet radiation from the welding arc

A

D) ultraviolet radiation from the welding arc

65
Q

which type of respirator uses filters and cannot be safely used in oxygen-deficient atmospheres?

A) air-purifying
B) airline
C) self-contained breathing apparatus
D) emergency escape breathing apparatus

A

A) air-purifying

66
Q

which metal, when heated or welded, can produce metal fume fever if the fumes are inhaled?

A) aluminum
B) zinc
C) chromium
D) cobalt

A

B) zinc

67
Q

when oxygen reacts with ultraviolet light from welding, the gas produced is:

A) phosphine
B) nitrogen dioxide
C) ozone
D) carbon monoxide

A

C) ozone

68
Q

when welding on metals plated with cadmium:

A) use a fully deoxidized filler metal to avoid porosity.
B) consult MSDS for safety procedures to follow
C) general mechanical ventilation is adequate provided there are four complete air changes per hour.
D) a dust filter mask should be worn.

A

B) consult MSDS for safety procedures to follow

69
Q

hydrogen sulphide gas (h2s) found in oil and gas wells in concentrations as low as 0.07% (700 ppm) may cause:

A) an uncomfortable rotten-egg smell
B) unconsciousness and death
C) an explosion
D) burning of the eyes and throat

A

B) unconsciousness and death

70
Q

the first line of defence against welding fumes and gases is:

A) a supplied air respirator
B) source extraction equipment
C) to complete all welding during the first half of your work shift.
D) to weld outside

A

D) to weld outside

71
Q

what device breaks the current flow while still at low level to protect people from electrical shock?

A) heavy duty circuit breaker (HDCB)
B) ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI)
C) heavy duty electrode holder (HDEH)
D) transformer rectifier silicon diode (TRSD)

A

B) ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI)

72
Q

A vessel that has contained a flammable substance can be made safe for welding by:

A) steaming thoroughly and welding while hot and still full of steam.
B) steaming well, then allowing the vessel to cool and dry out
C) sealing all vents tightly to prevent atmospheric air from getting inside
D) using a hot water flush, followed by cold water and drying out period

A

A) steaming thoroughly and welding while hot and still full of steam.

73
Q

when working in confined spaces, it is recommended that cutting torches be ignited and extinguished:

A) outside the confined space
B) inside the confined space
C) near the confined space
D) wherever it is most convenient

A

A) outside the confined space

74
Q

before entering a vessel to make repairs, you should insist on testing the vessel for:

A) leaks in the vessel and piping system
B) fumes and oxygen deficiency
C) corrosion or erosion tolerances
D) blockages in ventilation systems

A

B) fumes and oxygen deficiency

75
Q

where a worker is authorized to enter a confined space, it must be verified that the oxygen content is:

A) 7% -1 2% by volume
B)2psi - 12 psi
C) 19.5% - 23% by volume
D) 24% - 29% by volume

A

C) 19.5% - 23% by volume

76
Q

the base of an inclined ladder shall be no further away from the base of a wall than:

A) one metre out for every two metres of vertical height
B) one half the total length of the ladder
C) one quarter of the vertical height from the base of the ladder to where the ladder contacts the wall.
D) one third of the vertical height of the supporting wall

A

C) one quarter of the vertical height from the base of the ladder to where the ladder contacts the wall.

77
Q

the employer shall ensure that cylinders containing acetylene are:

A) secured in a vertical position
B) identified using a designated colour code
C) leak tested at least once every two years
D) equipped with fusible plugs on the top and bottom of the cylinder

A

A) secured in a vertical position

78
Q

a worker shall not work or position himself under a raised vehicle or trailer unless it is supported by:

A) stands or blocks
B) a jack with locking pins
C) hydraulic jacks that do not leak
D) an empty steel barrel on a cross member

A

A) stands or blocks

79
Q

a load on a scaffold must not exceed what percent of the designed load for the is supported by:

A) 50%
B) 35%
C) 25%
D) 20%

A

C) 25%

80
Q

a tool rest on a fixed grinder must be:

A) adjusted when the grinder is in motion
B) set to a minimum 6 mm (1/4’’) from the wheel
C) positioned for grinding on the side of the wheel
D) set to a maximum of 3 mm (1/8’’) from the face of the wheel

A

D) set to a maximum of 3 mm (1/8’’) from the face of the wheel

81
Q

who is responsible for the personal safety of everyone in the shop?

A) shop foreman
B) plant superintendent
C) individual worker
D) Alberta occupational health & safety

A

C) individual worker