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Paramedic > Section 1: Preparatory > Flashcards

Section 1: Preparatory Flashcards

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1
Q

Define Medical Director

A

The physician who authorizes or delegates to the EMT, the authority to provide medical care

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2
Q

Define Paramedic

A

An individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and advanced assessment and treatment skills

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3
Q

Define EMT

A

An individual who has training in basic life support, including AED, use of definitive airway adjuncts, and assisting patients with certain medications.

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4
Q

What is HIPAA

A

A federal legislation passed in 1996 that limits availability of patients health care information.

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5
Q

What is Online Medical Direction

A

Physician instructions given directly over the phone or radio

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6
Q

What is Offline Medical Direction

A

Protocols/standing orders

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7
Q

Define Abandonment

A

Leaving a patient, for whom you’ve established duty to act, without the consent of the patient or arranging for transfer of patient care to another medical provider trained to the same level or higher as you. Once you have an established duty to act, you cannot leave, for any reason (short of protecting your own life), without that consent or transfer of patient care.

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8
Q

Define Negligence

A

Failure to provide the level of care for which you are responsible. FOUR elements must have occurred for the legal determination of negligence to be reached:
- there must have been a duty to act
-there must have been a breach on that duty
- there must have been an injury/loss
- there must be a reasonable connection between the breach of duty and injury or loss

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9
Q

Define Dependent Lividity

A

After a person has died and circulation stops, the blood will begin to pool in the dependent areas (areas on the bottom part of the body in the position of death). This is called Dependent Lividity and begins within a few minutes after death, beginning in the extremities and progressing to the rest of the body. Lividity will appear as a discoloration resembling a blotchy black and blue or reddish mark. As time passes, the discoloration becomes more widespread and pronounced. It is caused when red blood cells in the blood vessels settle down to the lower areas of the body. This color change is less striking in skin with darker pigmentation. Lividity is also called Livor Mortis.

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10
Q

Define Rigor Mortis

A

Over the first few hours after death, chemical changes occur in the cells of the body. Muscle cells contract and stay contracted, causing a rigidity known as rigor mortis. This stiffening of the body begins with small muscles, including those of the fingers, neck, and jaw, and progresses to the extremities and pelvis. After roughly 12 hours the protein in the muscles degrades, causing the stiffening to relax and the body to become limp.

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11
Q

Explain the reasons for withholding resuscitation

A

-injuries are incompatible with life (ie. decapitation)
- Advance directive (do not resuscitate (DNR), medical orders for life sustaining treatment, etc.) stating resuscitation should be withheld
- Dependent Lividity, Rigor Mortis

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12
Q

List some DNR caveats

A
  • For the patient in cardiac or respiratory arrest, no chest compressions, ventilation, defibrillation, endotracheal intubation, or medications
  • If the patient is NOT in cardiac or respiratory arrest, full treatment l for all injuries, pain, difficult or insufficient breathing, hemorrhage, and/or other medicinal conditions must be provided
  • Relief if choking caused by a foreign body is usually appropriate, although if breathing has stopped, ventilation should not be assisted
  • Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) must be initiated if no out-of-hospital or facility DNR is present. If a DNR is presented after CPR has been started, stop CPR
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13
Q

What is EMT advocacy?

A

Protecting the patients rights

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14
Q

Identify the 2 gases that are exchanged during breathing

A

Oxygen (O2) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

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15
Q

The human body consists of how many bones?

A

206

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16
Q

Describe the regulation of ventilation

A

Although breathing can be altered voluntarily, it is primarily controlled involuntarily by the autonomic nervous system. A large part of the regulation is related to maintaining normal gas exchange and Norma blood gas levels. Receptors within the body constantly measure the amount of Oxygen (O2), Carbon Dioxide (CO2), and hydrogen ions (pH) and signal the brain to adjust the rate and depth of respiration. Centers responsible for ventilatory control are the chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and specialized centers in the brain stem.

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17
Q

What is the function of chemoreceptors?

A

Chemoreceptors are specialized receptors that monitor the number of hydrogen ions (pH) and the Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen levels in the arterial blood, there are 2 different types of chemoreceptors: central and peripheral

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18
Q

Define hypoxic drive

A

A person’s ventilation is normally controlled by the strong stimulus provided by the amount of CO2 in the arterial blood. This is referred to as a hypercapnic drive or hypercarbic drive. However, some patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis, have a tendency to retain CO2 in their arterial blood from poor gas exchange. Because the CO2 level is chronically elevated, the central chemoreceptors become desensitized to fluctuations that typically would stimulate a change in the rate or depth of ventilation. Because of the desensitization of the central chemoreceptors, the peripheral chemoreceptors become the primary stimulus to control ventilation. This, hypoxia, rather than CO2, becomes the stimulus for the person to breathe. This is referred to as hypoxic drive.

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19
Q

Name 3 Receptors that are located in the lungs

A

-Irritant receptors are found in the airways and are sensitive to irritating gases, aerosols, and particles. Irritant receptors will cause a cough, bronchoconstriction, and an increase in the rate of ventilation.
- Stretch Receptors are located within the smooth muscles of the airways. These are responsible for measuring the size and volume of the lungs. To prevent over inflation when stimulated by high tidal volumes, these receptors decrease the rate and volume of ventilation when stretched.
- J-Receptors are located in the capillaries surrounding the alveoli and are sensitive to increase in pressure within the capillary. When activated, these receptors stimulate rapid, shallow respiration.

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20
Q

What are the normal breathing rates for adults, children, and infants?

A

Adult: 12-20 breaths per minute
Child: 24-30 breaths per minute
Infant: 30-60 breaths per minute

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21
Q

Name the 10 systems of the body

A

Integumentary
Skeletal
Muscular
Nervous
Endocrine
Cardiovascular
Lymphatic
Respiratory
Digestive
Reproductive

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22
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

A

-protect organs
-support body
-allows movement
-produce blood cells
-store minerals

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23
Q

What are the functions of the digestive system?

A
  • Perform mechanical and chemical process of digestion
  • Absorption of nutrients
  • Elimination of wastes
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24
Q

What are the functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  • Remove foreign substances
  • Combat disease
  • Maintain fluid balance
  • Absorb fat
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25
Q

Name the upper chambers of the heart and their function

A
  • Right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from the veins of the body
  • Left atrium receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins
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26
Q

Name the lower chambers of the heart and their functions

A
  • Right ventricle pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs
  • Left ventricle pumps oxygen-rich blood to the body
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27
Q

Identify #1

A

Stratum Corneum

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28
Q

Identify #2

A

Sweat Gland

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29
Q

Identify #3

A

Arrector pili muscle

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30
Q

Identify #4

A

Arteriole

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31
Q

Identify #5

A

Venule

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32
Q

Identify #6

A

Motor Nerve

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33
Q

Identify #7

A

Sensory Nerve

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34
Q

Identify #8

A

Hypodermis

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35
Q

Identify #9

A

Dermis

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36
Q

Identify #10

A

Epidermis

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37
Q

Identify #1

A

Superior Vena Cava

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38
Q

Identify #2

A

Right Atrium

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39
Q

Identify #3

A

Tricuspid Valve

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40
Q

Identify #4

A

Right Ventricle

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41
Q

Identify #5

A

Papillary Muscle

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42
Q

Identify #6

A

Aorta

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43
Q

Identify #7

A

Pulmonary Artery

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44
Q

Identify #8

A

Left Atrium

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45
Q

Identify #9

A

Bicuspid valve/mitral valve

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46
Q

Identify #10

A

Septum

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47
Q

Define cardiac output

A

Cardiac output= (stroke volume) x (heart rate)
- Defined as the amount of blood pumped by the heart in 1 minute
- Expressed in liters per minute
- An increase in stroke volume or heart rate= increased cardiac output
- A decrease in stroke volume or heart rate= decreased cardiac output

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48
Q

Define blood pressure

A

Blood pressure is defined as a cardiac output x peripheral vascular resistance (afterload)
- Increased afterload= increased blood pressure
- Decreased afterload= decreased blood pressure

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49
Q

Identify #1

A

Trachea

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50
Q

Identify #2

A

Nasopharynx

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51
Q

Identify #3

A

Oropharynx

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52
Q

Identify #4

A

larynx

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53
Q

Identify #5

A

Lungs

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54
Q

Identify #6

A

Bronchus

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55
Q

Identify #7

A

Alveoli

56
Q

Identify #1

A

Radius

57
Q

Identify #2

A

Humerus

58
Q

Identify #3

A

Clavicle

59
Q

Identify #4

A

Mandible

60
Q

Identify #5

A

Manubrium

61
Q

Identify #6

A

Xiphoid process

62
Q

Identify #7

A

Lumbar

63
Q

Identify #8

A

Femur

64
Q

Identify #9

A

Patella

65
Q

Identify #10

A

Tibia

66
Q

Identify #1

A

Cerebrum

67
Q

Identify #2

A

Corpus callosum

68
Q

Identify #3

A

Pons

69
Q

Identify #4

A

Spinal cord

70
Q

Identify #5

A

Cerebellum

71
Q

Identify #1

A

Pituitary gland

72
Q

Identify #2

A

Thyroid

73
Q

Identify #3

A

Thymus

74
Q

Identify #4

A

Adrenal Gland

75
Q

Identify #5

A

Pancreas

76
Q

Identify #6

A

Ovaries

77
Q

Identify #7

A

Testis

78
Q

Identify #1

A

Vagina

79
Q

Identify #2

A

Cervix

80
Q

Identify #3

A

Uterus

81
Q

Identify #4

A

Fallopian tubes

82
Q

Identify #5

A

Ovary

83
Q

Identify #6

A

Fimbria

84
Q

Identify #1

A

Testis

85
Q

Identify #2

A

Epididymis

86
Q

Identify #3

A

Vas Deferens

87
Q

Identify #4

A

Urethra

88
Q

Identify #5

A

Prostate

89
Q

Identify #6

A

Seminal Vesicle

90
Q

Identify #7

A

Bladder

91
Q

Identify #8

A

Prostate

92
Q

Identify #9

A

Penis

93
Q

Identify #10

A

Urethra

94
Q

In directional terminology, define Torso

A

Trunk of the body

95
Q

In directional terminology, define midline

A

Imaginary line running vertically from the nose through the umbilicus

96
Q

In directional terminology, define Medial

A

Towards the midline

97
Q

In directional terminology, define Lateral

A

Away from the midline

98
Q

In directional terminology, define proximal

A

closer to the trunk

99
Q

In directional terminology, define distal

A

Away from the trunk

100
Q

In directional terminology, define superior

A

Above

101
Q

In directional terminology, define inferior

A

below

102
Q

In directional terminology, define Midaxillary Line

A

Imaginary line running vertically from the middle of the armpit to the ankle

103
Q

In directional terminology, define anterior

A

towards the front

104
Q

In directional terminology, define posterior

A

towards the rear

105
Q

In directional terminology, define Midclavicular line

A

imaginary line drawn vertically from the middle of the clavicle to the pelvis

106
Q

In directional terminology, define Bilateral

A

pertaining to both sides

107
Q

In directional terminology, define dorsal

A

towards the back

108
Q

In directional terminology, define ventral

A

towards the front

109
Q

In directional terminology, define palmar

A

relating to the palm

110
Q

In directional terminology, define plantar

A

relating to the sole of the foot

111
Q

In directional terminology, define prone

A

laying down

112
Q

In directional terminology, define supine

A

Laying face up

113
Q

In directional terminology, define Fowler position

A

sitting up

114
Q

In directional terminology, define Trendelenburg position

A

feet up, head up down position (also known as the shock position)

115
Q

What does whole blood contain?

A
  • Red blood cells
  • White blood cells
  • Platelets
  • Plasma
  • Clotting factor
116
Q

What are 2 types of metabolism?

A

Aerobic and Anaerobic metabolism

117
Q

What is the primary fuel for metabolism within a cell?

A

Glucose

118
Q

What is the primary catalyst for metabolism within a cell?

A

Oxygen (O2)

119
Q

What is the breakdown of molecules such as glucose within the cell when oxygen is present?

A

Aerobic metabolism

120
Q

What is the breakdown of molecules such as glucose within the cells when oxygen is not present?

A

Anaerobic metabolism

121
Q

An energy source required by the cell to release more energy and a necessity for cells to carry out certain functions such as contraction of muscles.

A

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)

122
Q

What provides for alternating movement of sodium out of and potassium into the cells, which is required for cells to perform their special functions?

A

The sodium/potassium pump

123
Q

What is needed for the sodium/potassium pump to work?

A

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) and cellular energy

124
Q

The delivery of oxygen, glucose, etc., to the cells and elimination of waste products from the cells.

A

Perfusion

125
Q

It is important to ensure that concentration of oxygen a patient is breathing is at least ___%

A

21%

126
Q

A contraction of the vocal chords that causes them to close and prevents air from passing into the trachea.

A

Laryngeal spasm

127
Q

The concept that the volume of a gas is inversely proportionate to the pressure.

A

Boyles law

128
Q

The amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one minute

A

Minute ventilation or minute volume

129
Q

The volume of air breathed in with each breath.

A

Tidal volume

130
Q

Define Neonate

A

A child from birth to 1 month of age

131
Q

Define infant

A

A child from 1 month to 1 year of age

132
Q

Define reflex

A

An instantaneous and involuntary movement resulting from a stimulus

133
Q

Define Fontanels

A

Soft spot on a baby’s skull that allow the head to pass through the birth canal during delivery and expand during development

134
Q

Define Toddler

A

A child from 1 to 3 years of age

135
Q

Define preschooler

A

A child from 3 to 6 years of age

136
Q

Define school-age child

A

A child from 6 to 12 years of age

137
Q

What is nocturnal enuresis?

A

Involuntary bed-wetting at night

Paramedic (1 decks)

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