Section 1 Air Traffic Services Flashcards
1
Q
ICAO defines an Air Traffic Service as a generic term meaning variously:
A
a) Air Traffic Control Service;
b) Air Traffic Advisory Service;
c) Flight Information Service;
d) Alerting Service.
2
Q
An ATC service is provided according to the particular circumstances and class of airspace, for the purpose of:
A
a) preventing collisions between aircraft in the air;
b) assisting in preventing collisions between aircraft moving on the apron and the
manoeuvring area;
c) assisting in preventing collisions between aircraft and obstructions on the
manoeuvring area;
d) expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
3
Q
FIS is a service provided for the purposes of supplying advice and information useful
for the safe and efficient conduct of flight, together with pertinent information about:
A
a) weather;
b) changes to serviceability of facilities;
c) conditions at aerodromes;
d) any other information likely to affect safety
4
Q
Alerting Service
A
An Alerting Service is provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in
need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required.
5
Q
Division of Airspace
A
UK airspace is divided into two Flight Information Regions. Within each region the
airspace below FL245 is known as the lower FIR and that at and above as the Upper
Flight Information Region (UIR).
6
Q
A
A
IFR only ATC clearance before entry.
Comply with ATC instructions.
Separate all aircraft from each
other.
7
Q
B
A
IFR and VFR ATC clearance before entry.
Comply with ATC instructions.
Separate all aircraft from each
other.
8
Q
C
A
IFR and VFR ATC clearance before entry. Comply with ATC instructions. (a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR and VFR flights; (b) Separate VFR flights from IFR flights; (c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on other VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice if requested.
9
Q
D
A
IFR and VFR ATC clearance before entry. Comply with ATC instructions. (a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights; (b) Pass traffic information to IFR flights on VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice if requested; (c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on IFR flights and other VFR flights.
10
Q
E
A
IFR and VFR IFR flights to obtain ATC clearance before entry and comply with ATC instructions. VFR flights do not require clearance. (a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights; (b) Pass traffic information, as far as practicable, to IFR flights on VFR flights; (c) VFR flights in contact are to be given traffic information as far as practicable.
11
Q
F
A
IFR and VFR Participating IFR flights are expected to comply with ATC instructions. Separation provided, as far as possible, between aircraft that have flight planned to operate IFR on ADRs.
12
Q
G
A
IFR and VFR None. None.
13
Q
The RoA require aircraft flying below FL100 to observe, with exceptions, a speed limit
of 250 kt IAS. Such a limit is an essential component of the ‘see and avoid’ principle
when separation is not established by ATC. This is in addition to other speed limits,
see below, which may be notified for a specific airspace.
The 250 kt speed limit does not apply to:
A
a) flights in Class A and B airspace;
b) IFR flights in Class C airspace;
c) flights in Class C and D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit;
d) test flights in accordance with specified conditions;
e) aircraft taking part in flying displays when authorised by the CAA;
f) aircraft subject to a written permission granted by the CAA;
g) aircraft not subject to the ANO (e.g. military aircraft).
14
Q
Who is responsible for determining whether or not the
meteorological conditions permit flight in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules.
A
The pilot of an aircraft is responsible for determining whether or not the
meteorological conditions permit flight in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules.
15
Q
By day and Night At and Above FL100
A
Class C, D, E, F and G airspace 1500 m 1000 ft 8 km
16
Q
By day and Night At and below FL100
A
Class C, D, E, F and G airspace 1500 m 1000ft 5 km
17
Q
At or below 3000 ft amsl
Class F and G airspace
By Day
A
Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight. 5 km
18
Q
At or below 3000 ft amsl
For aircraft, other than helicopters,
flying at 140 kt IAS or less
By day
A
Class C, D and E airspace Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight. 5 km
Class F and G airspace Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight. 1500 m
19
Q
At or below 3000 ft amsl
For helicopters
By Day
A
Class C, D and E airspace Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight. 1500 m
Class F and G airspace Clear of cloud, with the surface in sight and
at a speed which, having regard to the
visibility, is reasonable.
1500 m
20
Q
Alternatively
At or below 3000 ft amsl
Class F and G airspace
By Night
A
For aircraft, other than helicopters, Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight. 5 km
For helicopters Clear of cloud, with the surface in sight and
at a speed which, having regard to the
visibility, is reasonable.
3 km
21
Q
A pilot must fly according to the IFR:
A
- If the airspace has been notified as Class A,
* If the meteorological conditions preclude VFR flight,
22
Q
IFR Within Controlled Airspace (Classes A to E)
A
a) File a flight plan and obtain a clearance before proceeding with the flight;
b) Conduct the flight in accordance with clearances and instructions from ATC;
c) Maintain a listening watch on the appropriate radio frequencies;
d) Report the position of the aircraft according to published procedures.
23
Q
IFR Outside Controlled Airspace (Classes F and G)
A
Comply with the quadrantal rule when in level flight above 3000 feet amsl. The
altimeter is set to 1013.2 hPa and the cruising level is selected according to the
magnetic track unless the aircraft is holding according to published procedures or is
otherwise instructed by ATC.
24
Q
Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ)
Rules,
With ATC Unit
With AFIS or AGCS
A
aircraft flying within the ATZ are subject to the R of A, the specific conditions of the
airspace, and the level of ATS provided at the particular aerodrome as follows:
a) At aerodromes with an ATC unit, all movements within the ATZ are subject to the
permission of that unit. Aircraft will comply with instructions given by RTF and
maintain a listening watch. Non-radio aircraft, which have been given prior
permission to fly within the ATZ, will comply with visual signals.
b) At aerodromes where an AFIS or AGCS is provided, pilots shall obtain information
from the unit to enable the flight to be conducted safely within the zone and
maintain a listening watch. Non-radio aircraft must comply with any conditions
prescribed by the unit prior to the commencement of the flight.
6.2 Controllers who need to ascertain whether a pilot will either route around or transit
through an ATZ in Class G airspace should advise the pilot of the ATZ status and
confirm the pilot’s intentions. Controllers may advise pilots to change to the published
aerodrome RT frequency to either obtain ATZ crossing clearance from an ATC unit, or
to obtain information from an AFIS or AGCS unit.
25
Cancellation of IFR Flight
Change from IFR flight to VFR flight shall only be acceptable when the pilot uses the
expression “cancelling my IFR flight”. Pilots must not be invited to cancel, but if there
is any doubt about a pilot’s intentions he may be asked if he wishes to cancel his IFR
flight plan.
7.2 Controllers are to acknowledge a cancellation using the phrase “IFR plan cancelled at
(time)”.
26
Special VFR Flight
| 8.1 Conditions
A Special VFR clearance is issued when requested by a pilot or when it is notified in
the UK AIP for a particular type of operation. Before issuing such a clearance a
controller must consider the prevailing traffic conditions, the extent of the proposed
flight and the availability of air-ground communications. Special VFR flights are not to
hinder normal IFR flights.
27
svfr Weather MINIMA
Controllers shall not issue a Special VFR clearance to any aircraft, other than
helicopters, for departure from an aerodrome within a control zone when the official
meteorological report indicates that the visibility is 1800 m or less or the cloud ceiling
is less than 600 feet.
28
SVFR Separation
Standard separation is to be applied between:
a) IFR flights and Special VFR flights;
b) Aircraft cleared for Special VFR flights (except where a reduction is authorised by
the CAA).
8.3.2 No separation can be provided between Special VFR flights which are flying in notified
areas or routes where an individual clearance is not required, or between flights using
such areas or routes and other flights on Special VFR clearances.
29
SVFR HEIGHT TO FLY
Aircraft are not normally given a specified height to fly but vertical separation from
aircraft flying above can be achieved by requiring the Special VFR flight to fly not
above a specified level.
30
SVFR PILOTS RESPONSIBILITIES
The pilot of an aircraft on a Special VFR flight:
a) must comply with ATC instructions;
b) is responsible for ensuring that his flight conditions enable him to remain clear of
cloud, determine his flight path with reference to the surface and keep clear of
obstructions;
c) is responsible for ensuring that he flies within the limitations of his licence;
d) is responsible for complying with the relevant RoA low flying restrictions (other
than the 1000 feet rule);
e) is responsible for avoiding Aerodrome Traffic Zones unless prior permission for
penetration has been obtained from the relevant ATC unit.
31
Class C Airspace
The airspace classification between FL195 and FL660 within the UK FIRs / UIRs is
Class C. However, the FIR / UIR boundary is FL245.
9.2 Controllers shall not allocate FL195 as a cruising level to any aircraft under their
control.
32
A pilot may file a flight plan
for any flight.
33
A pilot is required to file a flight plan:
a) for all flights within controlled airspace, which are conducted in accordance with
IFR;
b) for flights within Class C and D airspace conducted in accordance with VFR;
c) when he wishes to receive an ATAS (Class F airspace);
d) for all flights which will cross a UK international FIR boundary;
e) for any flight where the destination is more than 40 km from the aerodrome of
departure and the aircraft’s maximum total weight authorised exceeds 5700 kg.
34
A pilot is advised to file a flight plan:
a) if his flight involves flying over the sea more than 10 miles from the UK coast or
flying over sparsely populated areas where SAR operations would be difficult; or
b) if he intends to fly into an area in which SAR operations are in progress. The flight
plan should include the expected times of entering and leaving the area and the
details must also be passed to the parent ACC. The ACC is to notify the ARCC
concerned.
35
DEFINE AIRPROX
An AIRPROX is a situation in which, in the opinion of a pilot or a controller, the
distance between aircraft as well as their relative positions and speeds have been
such that the safety of the aircraft involved was or may have been compromised.
36
The pilot’s report by RTF should commence with the term “AIRPROX Report”. If the
pilot omits the prefix the controller shall ask him if it is his intention to file an AIRPROX
report. The complete message will comprise:
a) The words “AIRPROX Report”;
b) Position at time of incident;
c) Time of incident;
d) Altitude/Flight Level (climbing, descending or level flight);
e) Heading;
f) Brief details of incident including first sighting and miss distance;
g) Weather conditions.
37
The pilot of an aircraft which has experienced a failure of one or more navigation lights
may, in accordance with the RoA, request permission to continue the flight to
destination. Controllers should take the following into consideration before
authorising the flight:
a) Normally permission should be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK
controlled airspace. Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be
authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent
controlling authority;
b) If the pilot’s intention is to fly outside controlled airspace he should be instructed
to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Selection of this aerodrome is the
responsibility of the pilot although he may request information to assist him in
making his decision. Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the
nearest suitable aerodrome is his original destination.
38
When an ATSU receives information that a captive balloon has broken free the
appropriate ACC shall be telephoned without delay stating:
• The type of balloon and whether carrying any person;
• Position of balloon site;
• Direction and speed of drift;
• Length of cable attached to balloon;
• Balloon operator’s name and telephone number.
19.2 The action taken at the ACC, which includes warning aircraft in flight, is described in
MATS Part 2.
39
Standard vertical or horizontal separation shall be provided, unless otherwise
specified, between:
a) all flights in Class A airspace;
b) IFR flights in Class C, D and E airspace;
c) IFR flights and VFR flights in Class C airspace;
d) IFR flights and Special VFR flights;
e) Special VFR flights.
1.2 Standard separation shall be provided, in so far as possible, between aircraft that have
flight planned to operate IFR on Class F ADR.
1.3 In Class G airspace, separation between aircraft is ultimately the responsibility of the
pilot; however, in providing a Deconfliction Service or a Procedural Service, controllers
will provide information and advice aimed at achieving a defined deconfliction minima.
40
Separation standards are minima and shall be increased when:
a) requested by the pilot;
b) a controller considers it necessary;
c) directed by the CAA.
41
In the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:
a) adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each
aircraft is continuously visible to this controller; or
b) each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the
pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or
c) when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports
that he has the other aircraft in sight and can maintain own separation
42
If, for any reason, a controller is faced with a situation in which two or more aircraft
are separated by less than the prescribed minima, e.g. ATC errors or differences in
the pilot’s estimated and actual times over reporting points, he is to:
a) use every means at his disposal to obtain the required minimum with the least
possible delay; and
b) when considered practicable, pass traffic information if an ATS surveillance service
is being provided, otherwise, pass essential traffic information.
43
standard separation. It is normally passed in situations when ATS surveillance
systems are not available. Essential traffic information passed to an aircraft shall
include:
a) Direction of flight of conflicting aircraft;
b) Type of conflicting aircraft;
c) Cruising level of conflicting aircraft and ETA for the reporting point, or for aircraft
passing through the level of another with less than the normal separation; the ETA
for the reporting point nearest to where the aircraft will cross levels; and
d) Any alternative clearance.
44
Vertical separation exists when the vertical distance between aircraft is never less
than the prescribed minimum. The vertical separation minima are:
a) Between aircraft flying subsonic:
Up to FL290 apply 1000 feet;
Above FL290 apply 2000 feet, except that between FL290 and FL410 inclusive,
1000 feet may be applied between RVSM approved aircraft operating in
airspace designated as being notified for the application of this separation
standard.
b) Between aircraft flying supersonic and between aircraft flying supersonic and
aircraft flying subsonic:
Up to FL450 2000 feet;
Above FL450 4000 feet.
45
Aircraft may be instructed to change level at a specified time, place or rate.
5.4.2 An aircraft may be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by
another aircraft provided that:
a) vertical separation already exists;
b) the vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level that will maintain vertical separation;
and
c) either:
i) the controller observes that the vacating aircraft has left the level; or
ii) the pilot has reported vacating the level.
5.4.3 If severe turbulence is known to exist, instructions shall be delayed until the vacating
aircraft is known to be at, or through, another level separated by the required
minimum.
46
'Level change' means that portion of the climb and descent during which the vertical
separation in relation to the level of another aircraft is less than the minima.
6.2.2 An 'exact reporting point' is a position established by a navigational facility which is:
• overhead a VOR;
• overhead an NDB;
• a position notified as a reporting point and which is established by the intersection
of VOR radials, or of a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB;
• a position established by a VOR radial combined with a range from a co-located or
associated DME.
47
DEPARTURE SEPARATION 1 MIN
Provided that the aircraft fly on tracks diverging by 45° or more
immediately after take-off.
The minimum may be reduced when aircraft are taking-off from
independent diverging or parallel runways provided the procedures have
been approved by the CAA.
48
DEPARTURE SEPARATION 2 MIN
Provided that:
i) the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed 40 knots or more
faster than the following;
ii) neither aircraft is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that would
decrease the 2 minute separation between them.
49
DEPARTURE SEPARATION 5 MIN
Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20 knots
or more faster than the following aircraft.
OR
Provided that the 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a reporting
point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal control area and the
aircraft will subsequently be separated either:
a) vertically;
b) by tracks which diverge by 30° or more; or
c) by radar.
Only to be used at locations approved by the CAA.
50
DEPARTURE SEPARATION 10 MIN
NIL
51
The minimum longitudinal separation between an en route aircraft and a departing
aircraft shall be 10 minutes.
8.7.2 This may be reduced to 5 minutes provided that:
a) the en route aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20 knots or more faster than the
departing aircraft; and
b) the en route aircraft has reported over an exact reporting point at which the
departing aircraft will join the same route; and
c) the departing aircraft is given positive instructions to arrive at the same exact
reporting point 5 minutes behind the en route aircraft.
52
The wake turbulence separation minima in the table below shall be applied to aircraft
on final approach when:
a) an aircraft is operating directly behind another aircraft at the same altitude or less
than 1000 ft below; or
b) an aircraft is crossing behind another aircraft, at the same altitude or less than
1000 ft below; or
c) both aircraft are using the same runway or parallel runways separated by less than
760 m.
53
DEPARTURES The wake turbulence separation minima in the table below shall be applied when
aircraft are using:
a) the same runway; or
b) parallel runways separated by less than 760 m; or
c) crossing runways if the projected flight path of the second aircraft will cross the
projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same altitude or less than 1000 ft
below; or
d) parallel runways separated by 760 m or more, if the projected flight path of the
second aircraft will cross the projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same
altitude or less than 1000 ft below.
54
Provided the pilots are made aware of the limitations of the service, SSR may be used
to provide horizontal separation in the following circumstances:
a) when approved by the CAA;
b) to overcome temporary deficiencies within PSR cover, such as fading or clutter,
the SSR return only of one aircraft may be used to provide separation from the PSR
or SSR return of another aircraft provided the PSR and SSR situation displays are
correctly aligned. In this context, 'unavailable for use due to maintenance' does not
constitute a 'temporary deficiency';
c) immediately after PSR failure for the minimum time necessary to establish
procedural separation. Once established, services normally provided using radar
may be resumed when the PSR is serviceable.
55
DEFINE CLEARANCE
An ATC clearance authorises an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an
ATC unit. Clearances are based solely on known traffic conditions and are required for
any flight, or portion of a flight, which is provided with an ATC or advisory service.
Such traffic conditions include not only aircraft in the air and on the manoeuvring area
over which control is being exercised, but also any vehicular traffic or other
obstructions not permanently installed on the manoeuvring area in use.
56
An ATC clearance shall include the following items:
* Aircraft identification;
* Clearance limit;
* Route;
* Levels of flight and changes of levels.
57
The following items are to be added to a clearance as necessary:
* ATFM slot;
* Time restrictions;
* Communications instructions;
* Any special instructions e.g. approach and departure manoeuvres.
58
A clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance and shall
be specified by naming:
a) an aerodrome;
b) a reporting point; or
c) a controlled or advisory airspace boundary.
59
An aircraft shall be cleared for the entire route to the aerodrome of first intended
landing when:
a) it has planned to remain within controlled or advisory airspace throughout the
flight; and
b) there is reasonable assurance that prior co-ordination will be effected ahead of the
passage of the aircraft.
3.3 The clearance limit for all other flights shall be the boundary of controlled or advisory
airspace.
60
Flight Priority Categories A
Aircraft in emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill
passenger). Aircraft which have declared a ‘Police Emergency’.
Ambulance/Medical aircraft when the safety of life is involved.
61
Flight Priority Categories B
Flights operating for search and rescue or other humanitarian reasons.
Post accident flight checks. Other flights, including Open Skies Flights,
authorised by the CAA. Police flights under normal operational priority.
62
Flight Priority Categories C
```
Royal Flights Flights
carrying visiting Heads of
State
which have been notified by
NOTAM/Temporary Supplement
```
63
Flight Priority Categories D
D Flights notified by the CAA carrying Heads of Government or very senior government ministers.
64
Flight Priority Categories E
Flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather
critical calibration flights.
Other flights authorised by the CAA.
65
Flight Priority Categories NORMAL FLIGHTS
i) Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures. ii) Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit. (RTF callsign “EXAM”)
66
Flight Priority Categories Z
Z Training, non-standard and other flights.
67
Non-Deviating Status (NDS)
Aircraft, both military and civil, which have been allocated this status have an
operational requirement to maintain a specific track and level(s) or a particular route
and level(s). It is imperative that a NDS aircraft is not moved from its pre-planned flight
path because this could render it operationally ineffective. If, for any reason, it is
anticipated that adequate separation cannot be maintained between other aircraft and
the NDS flight, controllers are to seek co-ordination with the agency providing the
service to the NDS aircraft.
68
Police Flights
A Police flight is defined as a flight by an aircraft operating under a Police Air
Operator’s Certificate, the purpose of which is to facilitate police operations, where
immediate and rapid transportation is essential, which includes the following:
a) Responding to a 'Police Emergency'. The pilot of a police aircraft is likely to declare
a 'Police Emergency' in situations where an immediate response is required when
life is at immediate risk, or a serious crime or major incident is in progress.
b) Supporting ground personnel in often sensitive and serious operations.
c) Non-standard and other flights.
69
The flight categories relevant to Police flying operations are:
a) Flight Category A: authorised for use by aircraft which have declared a 'Police
Emergency';
b) Flight Category B: normal operational priority. The operation will not wish to draw
attention to itself. The pilot will expect controllers to suggest a new altitude or
minor changes to the police flight operating area in the event that the flight would
cause a delay to other traffic;
c) Flight Category Z: authorised for training, test and other flights involving police
aircraft.
70
The flight categories relevant to HEMS operations are:
a) Flight Category A: applies to all HEMS flights on emergency operational tasks;
b) Flight Category E: is authorised for use by an aircraft positioning for the purpose of
conducting HEMS duties, e.g. returning to its base after delivering a casualty to
hospital. It is afforded priority over normal flights;
c) Flight Category Z: authorised for training, test and other flights involving HEMS
aircraft.
71
Surveillance services comprise:
a) separation of arriving, departing and en route traffic;
b) vectoring;
c) position information to assist in the navigation of aircraft;
d) monitoring traffic to provide information to the procedural controller;
e) assistance to aircraft crossing controlled airspace
72
Before a controller provides any of the above services he shall either:
a) identify the aircraft, using a method appropriate to the surveillance system in use;
or
b) have had the identity of the aircraft transferred from another controller.
The act of identifying an aircraft does not imply that a service is being given.
73
Pilots must be advised if a service commences, terminates or changes when:
a) outside controlled airspace;
b) entering controlled airspace;
c) leaving controlled airspace, unless pilots are provided with advance notice in
accordance with paragraph 1.2.3 below.
74
Departing Aircraft Method
By observing and correlating the Position Indication of a departing aircraft to a known
airborne time. Identification is to be achieved within one mile of the end of the runway
unless otherwise authorised by the CAA.
3.1.2.2 Particular care should be taken to avoid confusion with aircraft overflying the
aerodrome, making a missed approach, departing from an adjacent runway or holding
overhead the aerodrome.
75
When using Mode A to identify aircraft, one of the following methods is to be
employed:
a) Observing the pilot’s compliance with the instruction to select a discrete four digit
code;
b) Recognising a validated four digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign.
When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing
can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish
and maintain identity;
c) Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested. Caution must be
exercised when employing this method because simultaneous requests for SPI
transmissions within the same area may result in misidentification. Aircraft
displaying the conspicuity code 7000 are not to be identified by this method.
76
Controllers are to assign Mode A codes to aircraft according to the Code Assignment
Plan, which comprises:
a) Discrete codes comprising:
i) domestic codes which are assigned to aircraft flying within the areas of
responsibility of a unit;
ii) ORCAM codes which are assigned to international flights and will normally be
retained beyond the area of responsibility of the assigning unit.
b) Special purpose codes allocated internationally.
c) Conspicuity codes, allocated nationally, or to specific users/units.
77
Validation of Mode A Codes The code must be checked by one of the following methods:
a) Instructing the aircraft to squawk the assigned code and observing that the correct
numbers appear on the situation display;
b) Instructing the aircraft to “squawk IDENT” and simultaneously checking the code
numbers associated with the SSR response;
c) Matching an already identified Position Indication with the assigned code for the
flight.
78
The Mode A code and associated Mode C data of conspicuity codes must be
considered unvalidated and unverified. Pilots are required to squawk conspicuity code
7000 when operating at and above FL100 and are advised to do so when below FL100
unless:
a) they have been assigned a discrete code;
b) they are transponding on one of the special purpose codes or on one of the other
specific conspicuity codes assigned in accordance with the Code Assignment
Plan;
c) they are flying below 3000 feet in the aerodrome traffic pattern and have been
instructed to select the aerodrome traffic pattern conspicuity code (7010); or
d) on grounds of safety the aircraft has been instructed to squawk standby. In view
of the associated reduction in protection from ACAS, such circumstances are to be
regarded as exceptional. ATSUs shall log the circumstances and duration of any
such occurrences. Records are to be made available to the CAA on request.
79
0024
Radar Flight Evaluation or
| Calibration
80
0033
Para Dropping
81
7001
Military Fixed Wing Low
Level Conspicuity And
Climbout
82
7002
Danger Areas General
83
7003
Red Arrows Display/Transit
84
7004
Aerobatics and Display
85
7005
High Energy Manoeuvres
86
7006
Autonomous Operations
| within TRA and TRA (G)
87
7010
Aerodrome Traffic Pattern
| Conspicuity Code
88
Pilots should be informed of their position in the following circumstances:
a) Following identification of the aircraft using the turn method;
b) When the pilot requests the information;
c) When the aircraft is flying off the correct track;
d) When an aircraft estimate differs significantly from the controller’s estimate based
on ATS surveillance system observation;
e) When the pilot is instructed to resume his own navigation following vectoring, if
considered necessary by the controller.
89
Minimum vertical separation may be applied between verified Mode C transponding
aircraft provided the intentions of both aircraft are known to a controller because
either:
a) they are under his control;
b) they have been co-ordinated; or
c) they are operating in accordance with established agreements.
10.1.4 Aircraft Under Radar Control Service. If the intentions of Mode C transponding aircraft
are not known, the minimum separation must be increased to 5000 feet. Unverified
Mode C data may be used for separation purposes provided a minimum vertical
separation of 5000 feet is maintained and radar returns, however presented, are not
allowed to merge.
10.1.5 Aircraft Under Deconfliction Service. If the intentions of the Mode C transponding
aircraft are not known, the vertical deconfliction minima must be increased to 3000
ft, and unless the SSR Mode 3A indicates that the Mode C data has been verified, the
surveillance returns, however presented, should not merge.
90
The following criteria apply when assessing the vertical position of a Mode C
transponding aircraft:
a) An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C
readout indicates 200 feet or less from that level;
b) An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be
considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400
feet or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction;
c) An aircraft climbing or descending may be considered to have passed through a
level when the Mode C readout indicates that the level has been passed by 400
feet or more and continuing in the required direction;
d) An aircraft may be considered to have reached an assigned level when three
successive Mode C readouts indicate 200 feet or less from that level.
10.3.2 Mode C information is normally displayed as a Flight Level but on some ground
equipment the vertical position of an aircraft flying below a pre-determined datum is
displayed as an altitude.
91
Traffic information to aircraft shall include the following:
• Bearing from the aircraft in terms of the 12-hour clock (when the aircraft is turning,
direction of the unknown aircraft by compass points);
• Distance from the aircraft in miles;
• Direction in which the unknown aircraft is proceeding, e.g. “traffic is opposite
direction/crossing left to right”, etc.
• Height information when available, this may include the unverified Mode C of
unknown aircraft;
92
A correctly calibrated pressure altimeter when set to:
a) QNH altimeter setting will indicate altitude;
b) QFE altimeter setting will indicate height above the reference datum.
Both of these settings are rounded down to the nearest whole Hectopascal before
being passed to the pilot. However, they are given to the nearest tenth of a
Hectopascal if requested.
93
DEFINE RPS
The Regional Pressure Setting is a forecast of the lowest QNH value within an ASR.
The values which are made available hourly for the period H + 1 to H + 2, are given in
whole Hectopascals.
94
DEFINE TRANSITION ALTITUDE
Transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft
is normally controlled by reference to altitude.
95
Transition level is the lowest Flight Level available for use above the transition
altitude. It is determined from the table in Appendix A as follows:
a) Within controlled airspace by the controlling authority and it will normally be based
on the QNH of the major aerodrome;
b) Outside controlled airspace by the Aerodrome Operator and based on the
aerodrome QNH.
96
TRANSITION LAYER
Transition layer is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.
97
VERTICAL POSITION
1013.2 hPa FLIGHT LEVEL 1. At, or above, the transition level.
2. Climbing through the transition layer.
3. Above 3000 feet amsl and not in the vicinity
of an aerodrome.
QNH ALTITUDE 1. At, or below, the transition altitude, i.e. in the
vicinity of an aerodrome or beneath specified
TMAs and CTAs listed in ENR 1-7-2.
2. Descending through the transition layer.
3. During final approach.
QFE HEIGHT During final approach, as local procedures require
or when requested by the pilot.
REGIONAL
PRESSURE
SETTING
ALTITUDE At, or below, 3000 feet amsl when outside
controlled airspace and not in the vicinity of an
aerodrome.
98
DEFINE ROYAL FLIGHT
A Royal Flight within UK airspace is defined as the movement of an aircraft specifically
tasked to carry one or more members of The Royal Family afforded such status by
the Head of Royal Travel, The Royal Household.
1.2 Flights within UK airspace by members of other Royal Families, other reigning
Sovereigns, Prime Ministers and Heads of State of Commonwealth and foreign
countries, may also be afforded Royal Flight status by the CAA.
99
Regardless of the prevailing meteorological conditions, aircraft shall only fly within
CAS-T when an ATC clearance has been obtained from the controlling authorities
specified as follows: CAS-T TEMP CONTROL ZONE
a) Temporary Control Zones. Class D temporary control zones will be established
around aerodromes of departure and destination where no permanent control
zones exist. Control zones for Royal Flights will extend between a 5 and 10 NM
radius from the centre of the aerodrome from ground level to an upper level
designated for each Royal Flight dependent upon the Royal aircraft type and the
aerodrome’s surrounding airspace. The control zone will be established for a
period (for outbound flights) of 15 minutes before, until 30 minutes after, the ETD
of the Royal aircraft or (for inbound flights) for a period of 15 minutes before, until
30 minutes after, the ETA of the Royal aircraft at the aerodrome concerned. Overall
control of these control zones is to be exercised, as appropriate, by the
Commanding Officer of a military aerodrome or the ATS authority of a civil
aerodrome
100
Regardless of the prevailing meteorological conditions, aircraft shall only fly within
CAS-T when an ATC clearance has been obtained from the controlling authorities
specified as follows: CAS-T TEMP CONTROL AREA
Temporary Control Areas. Class D temporary control areas, dimensions and
duration thereof, will be established to meet the specific requirements of a Royal
Flight. The controlling authority will be the appropriate civil or military ACC.
101
Regardless of the prevailing meteorological conditions, aircraft shall only fly within
CAS-T when an ATC clearance has been obtained from the controlling authorities
specified as follows: CAS-T PERMANENT CONTROL ZONE AND AREAS
Permanent Control Zones and Areas. The controlling authority will be the
designated controlling authority for the permanent zone or area and the duration
will be as laid down in sub-paragraphs 2.1.4 a) and b). Where an aerodrome has its
own control zone, then the requirement to establish a temporary control zone of
the dimensions specified in sub-paragraph 2.1.4 a) may be waived.
102
Regardless of the prevailing meteorological conditions, aircraft shall only fly within
CAS-T when an ATC clearance has been obtained from the controlling authorities
specified as follows: CAS-T TEMP CONTROL AIRWAYS
d) Temporary Controlled Airways. Class D temporary controlled airways will be
established to join temporary or permanent control zones or control areas, as
appropriate, for 15 minutes before ETA at the start point of the temporary airway
until 30 minutes after ETD from the end/departure point of the temporary airway.
The lateral dimensions of such airways will be 5 NM each side of the intended
track of the Royal Flight and vertical limits will be designated. The controlling
authority will be the appropriate civil or military ACC.
103
Promulgation of Royal Flight Information
Dissemination of information concerning a Royal Flight is made via a Notification
Message on a Royal Flight Collective, giving full flight details. Information on the
establishment of CAS-T, including vertical limits, is promulgated by NOTAM.
104
Royal Flights in Helicopters
CAS-T is not normally established for Royal Flights in helicopters. Normal ATC
procedures apply to a Royal helicopter within, or wishing to join, controlled airspace.
For Royal helicopter flights outside controlled airspace, a Royal Low Level Corridor
will be promulgated by NOTAM, details of which are contained in the UK AIP (ENR)
section.
105
Selected Helicopter Flights
Selected Helicopter Flights are flights carrying members of The Royal Family other
than those listed in paragraph 1, or other VVIPs. The routes and timings of these
flights, together with preferred Delegated ATSUs in each of the Safeguard Areas
affected by the helicopter’s routes, will be promulgated by LATCC (Mil) as information
to all Safeguard Units, Delegated Units and military flying units.
106
SSR Code ROYAL FLIGHT
SSR code 0037 has been allocated for the exclusive use of helicopters engaged on
Royal Flights and code 0035 has been allocated for Selected Helicopter Flights. These
codes will be displayed from take-off to landing, whether or not an ATS surveillance
service is being provided; consequently, they are to be treated as unvalidated and
unverified.
