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cyber > SecPlusP4 > Flashcards

SecPlusP4 Flashcards

1
Q

How does a DNS amplification attack exploit the DNS resolution process?

A

By sending spoofed DNS queries to open DNS servers

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2
Q

What is one way to mitigate the impact of DNS responses?

A

Limit the size of DNS responses

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3
Q

How can DNS tunneling be used to bypass firewall rules?

A

Encapsulates non-DNS traffic over port 53

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4
Q

What is one way to mitigate domain hijacking?

A

Monitor and analyze DNS logs for unusual patterns

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5
Q

What is a DNS Zone Transfer Attack?

A

Attempts to obtain an entire DNS zone data copy

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6
Q

What can a DNS Zone Transfer Attack expose?

A

Sensitive information about a domain’s network infrastructure

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7
Q

What can a Directory Traversal Attack allow access to?

A

Commands, files, and directories that may or may not be connected to the web document root directory

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8
Q

What character do Windows systems use as the default directory separator?

A

\

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9
Q

What character do Unix-like systems use as the directory separator?

A

/

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10
Q

What can directory traversals be used to do?

A

Access any file on a system with the right permissions

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11
Q

How can attackers hide directory traversal attempts?

A

Using encoding (%2e%2e%2f represents ../)

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12
Q

What is file inclusion vulnerability?

A

A web application vulnerability that allows an attacker to download or upload files

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13
Q

What is remote file inclusion?

A

Injecting a remote file into a web app or website

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14
Q

What is an example of remote file inclusion?

A

Attacker executing a script with a remote file URL

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15
Q

What is local file inclusion?

A

Adding a file to a web app or website that already exists on the server

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16
Q

What is an example of local file inclusion?

A

Attacker adding a file to the web app with server file URL

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17
Q

What do ../ in logs pertain to?

A

Directory traversals

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18
Q

What is a directory traversal attack?

A

Attacker tries to access files outside the target directory

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19
Q

How can input validation help prevent directory traversals and file inclusion attacks?

A

Verify and sanitize user input to ensure it conforms to expected formats

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20
Q

What is arbitrary code execution?

A

Running an attacker’s code without restrictions

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21
Q

What is remote code execution?

A

Executing code remotely, often over the internet

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22
Q

What is privilege escalation?

A

Gaining higher-level permissions than originally assigned

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23
Q

Why is privilege escalation dangerous?

A

Allows attackers to operate with elevated privileges, such as administrator or root access

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24
Q

What is vertical privilege escalation?

A

Going from normal user to higher privilege (e.g., admin or root)

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25
Q

What is horizontal privilege escalation?

A

Accessing or modifying resources at the same level as the attacker

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26
Q

Why is understanding privileges crucial for system security?

A

Applications inherit the permissions of the user running them

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27
Q

What is a rootkit?

A

Malware that conceals its presence by modifying system files

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28
Q

What is Ring Zero?

A

Highest privilege level for the kernel

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29
Q

What are Kernel mode rootkits?

A

More dangerous due to extensive control

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30
Q

What are Rings 1 to 3?

A

User-level components with decreasing privileges

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31
Q

Why are Ring Zero rootkits more dangerous?

A

Extensive control over the kernel

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32
Q

What is a kernel mode rootkit?

A

Rootkit embedded in the kernel with maximum control

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33
Q

What is a user mode rootkit?

A

Rootkit attached to user-level components with administrator-level privileges

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34
Q

What is a replay attack?

A

Malicious re-broadcasting or delaying of valid data transmissions

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35
Q

How is a replay attack different from a session hijack?

A

In a session hijack, the attacker alters real-time data transmission while in a replay attack, the attacker can decide later whether to retransmit the data

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36
Q

Where can replay attacks occur?

A

Banking, email, online shopping, social media, wireless authentication

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37
Q

What is a credential replay attack?

A

Capturing user’s login credentials and reusing them for unauthorized access

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38
Q

How can replay attacks be prevented?

A

Use session tokens, implement multi-factor authentication, use security protocols like WPA3

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39
Q

What is the purpose of a cookie?

A

To store information about a user when they visit a website

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40
Q

Why must cookies be protected?

A

They contain client information transmitted across the Internet

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41
Q

What are session cookies?

A

Non-persistent, reside in memory, deleted when browser is closed

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42
Q

What are persistent cookies?

A

Stored in browser cache, deleted by user or expiration date

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43
Q

What should be done to cookies that store confidential information?

A

Encrypt them

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44
Q

How can session hijacking attacks occur?

A

Theft or modification of cookies

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45
Q

What is a session prediction attack?

A

Attacker predicts session token to hijack a session

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46
Q

What is the requirement for generating a session token?

A

Non-predictable algorithm and no session information

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47
Q

What is cookie poisoning?

A

Modifying a cookie to exploit web app vulnerabilities

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48
Q

What is an on-path attack?

A

Attacker positions between hosts to intercept communication

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49
Q

What are some methods for On-Path Attacks?

A

ARP Poisoning, DNS Poisoning, Rogue Wireless Access Point, Rogue Hub or Switch

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50
Q

What is ARP Poisoning?

A

Manipulating ARP tables to redirect network traffic

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51
Q

What is DNS Poisoning?

A

Altering DNS responses to reroute traffic

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52
Q

What is a Rogue Wireless Access Point?

A

Creating a fake wireless access point to intercept traffic

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53
Q

What is a Rogue Hub or Switch?

A

Introducing a malicious hub or switch to capture data on a wired network

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54
Q

What is a Replay Attack?

A

Capturing valid data and replaying it immediately or with a delay

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55
Q

What is a relay attack?

A

Attacker becomes part of conversation

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56
Q

What is the role of the attacker in a relay attack?

A

Serves as a proxy to read or modify communication

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57
Q

What is one challenge faced by attackers in relay attacks?

A

Difficulty in intercepting and crafting communication due to encryption

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58
Q

What encryption scheme can pose significant challenges for attackers in relay attacks?

A

TLS 1.3

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59
Q

What is SSL stripping?

A

An attack that tricks the encryption application into presenting an HTTP connection instead of HTTPS

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60
Q

What does SSL stripping enable attackers to do?

A

Capture unencrypted data when the user believes they are using a secure connection

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61
Q

What is a downgrade attack?

A

An attacker forces a client or server to abandon a higher security mode in favor of a lower security mode

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62
Q

What is the scope of downgrade attacks?

A

Downgrade attacks can be used with various encryption and protection methods, including Wi-Fi and VPNs

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63
Q

What situations are vulnerable to a downgrade attack?

A

Any situation where a client agrees to a lower level of security that is still backward compatible

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64
Q

What are injection attacks?

A

Unspecified

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65
Q

What is LDAP?

A

An open application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services

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66
Q

What is LDAP Injection?

A

An application attack that targets web-based applications by fabricating LDAP statements

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67
Q

How to protect against LDAP injection?

A

Use input validation and input sanitization

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68
Q

What is command injection?

A

Executing shell commands via a vulnerable web application

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69
Q

What is process injection?

A

Executing arbitrary code in a separate live process

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70
Q

What are some methods of process injection?

A

Injection through DLLs, Thread Execution Hijacking, Process Hollowing, Process Doppel Ganging, Asynchronous Procedure Calls, Portable Executable Injections

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71
Q

How can process injection be mitigated?

A

Endpoint security solutions, Security Kernel Modules, Least Privilege, Indicators of Compromise

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72
Q

What are indicators of compromise?

A

Forensic data that identify potentially malicious activity

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73
Q

What does IoC stand for?

A

Indicators of Compromise

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74
Q

What is account lockouts?

A

Locking an account due to multiple failed login attempts

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75
Q

Why is balancing security with usability crucial when implementing account lockout?

A

To avoid locking legitimate users out

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76
Q

What does concurrent session usage refer to?

A

Multiple active sessions from a single user account

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77
Q

What does blocked content involve?

A

Attempts to access or download content blocked by security protocols

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78
Q

What does blocked content suggest?

A

User trying to access malicious content or an attacker attempting to steal data

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79
Q

What are indicators of impossible travel in account logins?

A

Geographically distant locations and unreasonably short timeframe

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80
Q

What can unusual spikes in resource utilization indicate?

A

Malware infections or DDoS attacks

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81
Q

What is resource inaccessibility in relation to security attacks?

A

Inability to access files, databases, or network services

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82
Q

What does out-of-cycle logging indicate?

A

Attacker trying to hide activities during off-peak hours

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83
Q

What does missing logs suggest?

A

Logs have been deleted to hide attacker activities

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84
Q

What are some examples of published articles or documents that attackers can use to publicly disclose their actions?

A

Social media, hacker forums, newspaper articles, victim’s own website

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85
Q

What is the purpose of hardening in security?

A

Strengthen overall security posture and resilience against cyberattacks

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86
Q

What are some measures of hardening?

A

Apply security patches, configure access controls, disable unnecessary services

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87
Q

What are default configurations in security?

A

System or application settings that are pre-set by the vendor

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88
Q

What is the purpose of restricting applications in security?

A

Prevent unauthorized or malicious software from running

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89
Q

What is a method to identify unnecessary services?

A

System audit or vulnerability scanning

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90
Q

What are the risks and consequences of running unnecessary services?

A

Increased attack surface

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91
Q

How can disabling unnecessary services reduce the attack surface?

A

By reducing potential entry points for attackers

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92
Q

What are trusted operating systems?

A

Operating systems with rigorous security evaluations and certifications

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93
Q

What is the role of Group Policies in Windows environments?

A

Central management and control of user and computer settings

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94
Q

What is SELinux?

A

Security-Enhanced Linux, implementing mandatory access controls for enhanced security

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95
Q

What are the different levels of data encryption?

A

Full-disk, Partition, File, Volume, Database, Record Level Encryption

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96
Q

What is the purpose of secure baselines?

A

Establishing a secure starting point for minimizing security risks

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97
Q

Why should default passwords be changed?

A

To ensure security

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98
Q

How often should passwords be rotated?

A

Every 90 days

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99
Q

What should be used to manage passwords?

A

Password manager

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100
Q

What should be done with unneeded ports?

A

Close them

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101
Q

What should be done with enabled ports and protocols?

A

Audit them

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102
Q

What should be used instead of insecure protocols?

A

Secure versions

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103
Q

What should be done with extra open ports?

A

Close the insecure ones

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104
Q

What can be done to restrict applications?

A

Implement application restrictions

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105
Q

What is the goal of least functionality?

A

To provide only the necessary applications and services

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106
Q

Why should unneeded applications be restricted or uninstalled?

A

To reduce vulnerabilities

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107
Q

Why is keeping software up-to-date important for security?

A

To ensure the latest security patches and fixes are applied

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108
Q

What is the challenge with managing software in large networks?

A

Controlling excessive installations

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109
Q

What are secure baseline images used for?

A

To install new computers

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110
Q

What does a secure baseline image include?

A

OS, minimum required applications, and strict configurations

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111
Q

How should secure baseline images be updated?

A

Based on evolving business needs

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112
Q

Why is preventing unauthorized software installation important?

A

It poses security risks

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113
Q

What are application allowlisting and blocklisting used for?

A

To control which applications can run on a workstation

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114
Q

How does application allowlisting work?

A

Only approved applications are allowed to run

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115
Q

What happens to applications not on the approved list in application allowlisting?

A

They are blocked from running

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116
Q

What is a Trusted Operating System (TOS)?

A

Operating system that enforces stringent security policies

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117
Q

What is Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL)?

A

Security standard for assessing security controls in an OS

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118
Q

What is the highest level of assurance?

A

EAL 7

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119
Q

What is mandatory access control?

A

Access permissions determined by system administrators and enforced by operating system

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120
Q

What is security auditing?

A

Process of monitoring and analyzing computer systems to ensure they are operating securely

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121
Q

What is role-based access control?

A

Access permissions determined by roles assigned to users

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122
Q

What is an example of a trusted operating system?

A

SELinux

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123
Q

What does Trusted Solaris offer?

A

Secure multi-level operations with MAC and detailed system audits

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124
Q

How does Trusted OS enhance security?

A

By using microkernels and minimizing the trusted base

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125
Q

What should be considered when choosing an operating system?

A

Balancing security with usability, performance, and functional requirements

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126
Q

What are the two methods of patch management?

A

Manual and Automated

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127
Q

What is a hotfix?

A

A software patch that solves a security issue and should be applied immediately

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128
Q

What is an update?

A

Provides additional functionality but doesn’t usually patch security issues

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129
Q

What is a service pack?

A

Includes all hotfixes and updates since the release of the operating system

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130
Q

What are the risks of updates?

A

They can introduce new vulnerabilities

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131
Q

What does effective patch management involve?

A

Assigning a dedicated team to track vendor security patches

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132
Q

What is the importance of establishing automated system-wide patching for OS and applications?

A

1

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133
Q

How can cloud resources be included in patch management?

A

2

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134
Q

What are the categories for prioritizing patches?

A

2

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135
Q

Why is it important to create a test environment for critical patches before production deployment?

A

1

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136
Q

What is the purpose of maintaining comprehensive patching logs?

A

3

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137
Q

How can firmware updates be evaluated, tested, and deployed?

A

2

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138
Q

How can urgent patches be deployed to production?

A

2

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139
Q

What should be done periodically with non-critical patches?

A

2

140
Q

What is patch management?

A

Planning, testing, implementing, and auditing of software patches

141
Q

Why is patch management important?

A

Important for compliance

142
Q

What are the four steps in the patch management process?

A

Planning, Testing, Implementing, Auditing

143
Q

What is the purpose of planning in patch management?

A

Creating policies, procedures, and systems to track and verify patch compatibility

144
Q

What is the purpose of testing in patch management?

A

To prevent the patch from causing additional problems

145
Q

How can patch implementation be done?

A

Manually or automated

146
Q

Why should large organizations use a central update server?

A

Centralized control

147
Q

How can mobile devices be patched?

A

Using an MDM

148
Q

What are patch rings?

A

Implementing patches group by group

149
Q

What is auditing in patch management?

A

Scanning network and checking for issues

150
Q

Why should firmware versions be monitored and patched?

A

To maintain security and stability

151
Q

What are group policies?

A

Rules and policies for users or computers

152
Q

How can you access the Group Policy Editor?

A

Enter ‘gpedit’ in the run prompt.

153
Q

What is the purpose of the local Group Policy Editor?

A

To create and manage policies within a Windows environment.

154
Q

What are some examples of rules that can be applied using Group Policies?

A

Password complexity requirements, account lockout policies, software restrictions, application restrictions.

155
Q

What is a security template?

A

A group of policies that can be loaded through the Group Policy Editor

156
Q

What is the purpose of a security template in corporate environments?

A

To create security templates with predefined rules based on administrative policies

157
Q

What is a Group Policy Objective (GPO) used for?

A

To harden the operating system and establish secure baselines

158
Q

What is baselining?

A

A process of measuring changes in the network, hardware, or software environment

159
Q

How does the Group Policy Editor in Windows be accessed?

A

By entering ‘gpedit’ in the run prompt

160
Q

What can be done using the Group Policy Editor?

A

Create allow or block list rules for application control policies

161
Q

How do you navigate to the App Locker section in the Group Policy Editor?

A

Navigate to ‘Computer Configuration’ > ‘Windows Settings’ > ‘Security Settings’ > ‘Application Control Policies’ > ‘App Locker’

162
Q

What is the first step in creating an executable rule in App Locker?

A

Create an executable rule

163
Q

What are the two options to choose from when creating an executable rule?

A

Choose to allow or deny

164
Q

Who can you select for the rule to apply to?

A

Select who the rule applies to (e.g., everyone)

165
Q

What are the conditions you can define for the rule in App Locker?

A

Define the rule based on conditions like publisher, path, or file hash

166
Q

What are the steps to create a rule in Group Policy Editor?

A

Specify path, Name rule, Create default rules, Deploy policy

167
Q

What are the default allow rules in Group Policy Editor?

A

Program Files, Windows folder, Administrators

168
Q

What is an example of a deny rule in Group Policy Editor?

A

Block files in temp directory

169
Q

What does SELinux enforce?

A

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

170
Q

What are context-based permissions?

A

Permission schemes based on properties

171
Q

What are the two main context-based permission schemes in Linux that use MAC?

A

SELinux and AppArmor

172
Q

What is DAC?

A

Discretionary Access Control

173
Q

What does DAC allow object owners to do?

A

Directly control access using tools like ‘chown’ and ‘chmod’

174
Q

What does SELinux rely on for permissions and access control?

A

MAC

175
Q

What does SELinux enhance?

A

File system and network security

176
Q

What are the three main contexts in SELinux?

A

User Context, Role Context, Type Context

177
Q

What is remote work?

A

Employees work outside the traditional office

178
Q

What is hybrid work?

A

Combines traditional office work with remote work opportunities

179
Q

What are the security challenges of remote and hybrid work environments?

A

Increased risk due to lack of physical security controls outside the office, data exposure, weaker network security, cyberattacks, increased risk of device loss or theft

180
Q

What are some measures to address security challenges in remote work?

A

Establish comprehensive policies, use secure connections like VPN, implement multi-factor authentication, provide cybersecurity training and awareness, encourage reporting of incidents, use company-issued devices, define security measures for BYOD, set up automated backups, choose secure collaboration tools, maintain clear communication

181
Q

What is the recommended method for data access in remote work?

A

VPN

182
Q

What should be done to enhance security for data access in remote work?

A

Implement multi-factor authentication

183
Q

What should employees receive to improve their cybersecurity awareness?

A

Cybersecurity training

184
Q

What should be encouraged in the event of security incidents?

A

Reporting

185
Q

What is a secure option for device usage in remote work?

A

Company-issued devices

186
Q

How should personally owned devices be secured?

A

Define security measures for BYOD

187
Q

What should be done for data protection?

A

Set up automated backups

188
Q

What should be considered when choosing collaboration tools?

A

End-to-end encryption and administrative controls

189
Q

What is important for maintaining effective security measures in remote work?

A

Clear communication with the cybersecurity team

190
Q

How many IP addresses can computers understand?

A

270

191
Q

How can computers understand 270 https://www.DionTraining.com?

A

IP addresses

192
Q

How many domains can group policies be used to deploy and manage allowlists and blocklists?

A

286

193
Q

What allow centralized management of lists?

A

tory domain controllers

194
Q

What does the Optional Context Level Context describe?

A

sensitivity level of a file, directory, or process

195
Q

What is the Optional Context Level Context Describes the sensitivity level of a file, directory, or process?

A

a multi-level security context

196
Q

How many security techniques must you be able to apply to computing resources?

A

4.5

197
Q

What is the Security Techniques Objectives?

A

4.1

198
Q

What is the name of the study topic?

A

Wireless Infrastructure Security

199
Q

What is a Transport method selection?

A

Wireless Infrastructure Security

200
Q

What impacts network performance and security?

A

Placement of Wireless Access Points

201
Q

What is crucial for securing wireless networks in organizations?

A

Wireless Infrastructure Security

202
Q

What standards do WAPs use to connect wireless devices to a wired network?

A

Wi-Fi standards 300

203
Q

What does WAPs allow wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi standards 300?

A

Wireless Access Point Placement

204
Q

What is used on higher locations for better coverage?

A

Mount WAPs

205
Q

What is a site visit to test for radio frequency interference?

A

301

206
Q

What type of coverage does CompTIA Security+ provide?

A

Wireless coverage

207
Q

What is SY0-701?

A

CompTIA Security+

208
Q

What is a useful tool for visualizing the effectiveness of WAP placement and configuration?

A

Signal leakage

209
Q

What is the name of the device that helps in visualizing the effectiveness of WAP placement and configuration?

A

Wireless Security Settings

210
Q

What is essential for data confidentiality in wireless networks?

A

Wireless Encryption

211
Q

What types of services are offered?

A

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting

212
Q

What is the terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus?

A

TACACS+

213
Q

What is the purpose of TCP encryption?

A

enhanced security

214
Q

What is used for enhanced security?

A

TCP

215
Q

What is used to verify user identity and control network access?

A

Authentication Protocols

216
Q

How many websites are there for DionTraining?

A

308

217
Q

What is the name of the web filtering technique?

A

Agent-Based Web Filtering

218
Q

What type of security is often used by schools, universities, and organizations to ensure safe and educational internet usage?

A

Email Security

219
Q

What protects email content, accounts, and infrastructure from unauthorized access, loss, or compromise?

A

Encompasses techniques and protocols

220
Q

What is a protection against email spoofing?

A

Improved email deliverability

221
Q

Where does a receiving server check if the sender’s IP is authorized?

A

SPF record 310

222
Q

What does SY0-701 mean?

A

CompTIA Security+

223
Q

What is CompTIA Security+?

A

SY0-701

224
Q

What is the goal of preventing email spoofing?

A

Improving email deliverability

225
Q

How many UBA tools can identify potential threats before significant damage occurs?

A

315

226
Q

What is another example of HTTP vs. SFTP?

A

HTTPS

227
Q

What often indicate whether a protocol is secure?

A

Default port numbers

228
Q

What can add a layer of obscurity but not replace robust security measures?

A

Changing port numbers

229
Q

What layer of security can change port numbers add?

A

obscurity

230
Q

How many times does the program’s scope define?

A

324

231
Q

What is the definition of security weaknesses?

A

True

232
Q

What are valuable maps for attackers 330?

A

Vulnerability reports

233
Q

What can be used to share reports on a need-to-know basis?

A

Encrypt reports

234
Q

Importance Crucial for maintaining integrity, confidentiality, and availability of information systems Components Alerting (not

A

Monitoring

235
Q

What type of alerts are there?

A

True Positive

236
Q

What is a legitimate issue?

A

False Positive

237
Q

What is the name of the issue that indicates an issue when there isn’t one?

A

True Negative

238
Q

What is the name of the issue that does not exist in the absence of an issue?

A

False Negative

239
Q

What does False Negative mean?

A

Correctly recognizes the absence of an issue

240
Q

How many false positives do you want to avoid?

A

alert fatigue

241
Q

What software tool is used for scanning and analyzing?

A

Manual Monitoring

242
Q

What type of tools are used for scanning and analyzing?

A

Software tools

243
Q

What is the overview of monitoring systems, applications, and infrastructure?

A

Monitoring Resources

244
Q

What is a log Aggregation?

A

Monitoring Activities

245
Q

What is the name of the report that generates reports on system and network status?

A

Archiving

246
Q

What does Alert Response and Remediation/Validation do?

A

historical data

247
Q

What are historical data?

A

Alert Response and Remediation/Validation

248
Q

What is SIEM?

A

Security Information and Event Management

249
Q

What tools collects and aggregates log data?

A

Security Tools

250
Q

What are some sources of data collected from?

A

Antivirus, DLP systems, NIDS, NIPS, firewalls, Vulnerability scanner

251
Q

How many networks does DionTraining have?

A

Network performance 334

252
Q

What can indicate potential issues?

A

Deviations from the baseline

253
Q

What may indicate code problems or resource deficiencies?

A

Slower response times

254
Q

What does Observe physical and virtual infrastructure, including servers, networks, virtual machines, containers, and cloud services?

A

Infrastructure Monitoring

255
Q

What can be triggered based on thresholds or anomalies?

A

alerts

256
Q

What does CompTIA Security+ include?

A

Vulnerability scanning

257
Q

What is the name of the data that is stored at DionTraining.com?

A

Incident data 337

258
Q

What is one of the steps that should be taken to manage and resolve issues based on alerts or scans?

A

Investigating

259
Q

What changes alert parameters to reduce errors, false positives, and improve alert relevance?

A

Alert Tuning

260
Q

What is SNMP?

A

Simple Network Management Protocol

261
Q

What types of tools are included in the collection?

A

free and open-source SIEM tools

262
Q

What is the name of the software that protects systems against malware?

A

Data from Security Tools

263
Q

What is the name of the CompTIA that Generates malware detection logs, system scans, and updates?

A

Security+

264
Q

How many logs does DionTraining.com have?

A

344

265
Q

What are Network Intrusion Detection Systems and NIDS?

A

Network Intrusion Prevention Systems

266
Q

What is the name of the Simple Network Management Protocol?

A

SNMP

267
Q

What is the Multi Router Traffic Grapher?

A

MRTG

268
Q

How many people are detected by SPOG?

A

350

269
Q

What can security teams monitor the environment for suspicious signs?

A

Security teams can monitor the environment for suspicious signs like unusual traffic or failed logins

270
Q

What steps can be implemented as software or hardware?

A

Defining Requirements

271
Q

What are the steps for implementing SPOG Defining Requirements Defining Requirements

A

Software or hardware

272
Q

How many phases is Containment, Eradication, and Recovery divided into?

A

three

273
Q

How many phases is Detection and Analysis divided into?

A

two

274
Q

How many Phases of Incident Response focuses on making systems resilient to attacks by hardening systems?

A

355

275
Q

How many Phases of Incident Response are Preparation Get an organization ready for future incidents?

A

Seven Phases of Incident Response

276
Q

What is the name of the computer network that creates policies, procedures, and a communication plan?

A

CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701)

277
Q

What is the purpose of identifying an effective solution?

A

Implement and track the solutions

278
Q

What are the lessons learned?

A

Documents experiences during incidents

279
Q

What is the name of the team that collects formalized information about what happened?

A

incident response

280
Q

What is the name of the organization that has full-time incident response teams?

A

IT Support 357

281
Q

What is used to detect threats that haven’t been discovered by normal security monitoring?

A

Proactive cybersecurity technique

282
Q

What do Threat Actors and Activities do?

A

Create scenarios to understand how attackers might attempt an intrusion

283
Q

What is the purpose of CompTIA Security+?

A

Threat Hunting Process

284
Q

How many times is the root cause analysis?

A

359

285
Q

What is the name of the source device?

A

CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701)

286
Q

What are the data sources for an Incident Investigation?

A

Dashboards and Automated Reports

287
Q

What do you need to be able to use to support an investigation?

A

Data Sources

288
Q

What is a Role Foundation for understanding potential entry points?

A

Identify system vulnerabilities

289
Q

What type of traffic does Firewall Logs detect?

A

Monitor network traffic

290
Q

How many logs do DionTraining logs detect?

A

368

291
Q

What is the name of Study Notes?

A

CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701)

292
Q

Automated responses can include suspending user accounts, blocking IP addresses, and what?

A

resetting passwords

293
Q

The analysis of the report is essential to confirm what ity of identified vulnerabilities?

A

Valid

294
Q

What reduces the risk of burnout?

A

Reduces repetitive and mundane tasks

295
Q

How much does DionTraining reduce staffing needs and optimizes resource allocation?

A

Cost savings

296
Q

How many times does DionTraining.com have?

A

381

297
Q

What improves IT and customer support team efficiency?

A

Automating Support Ticket Management

298
Q

Automating SupportTicket Management Enhances what?

A

IT and customer support team efficiency

299
Q

What improves customer satisfaction?

A

Streamlines issue resolution

300
Q

How many steps does Automating Support Ticket Creation take?

A

Six steps

301
Q

What is the name of the six steps in the ticket creation process?

A

Automating Support Ticket Creation

302
Q

What reduces the risk of lost or overlooked tickets?

A

Accelerates response time to user needs

303
Q

What addresses complex or high-priority issues?

A

Ticket escalation

304
Q

What is Automation Involves using technology to execute repetitive tasks without continuous human intervention?

A

Automating Onboarding

305
Q

How many support ticket management processes does DionTraining have?

A

383

306
Q

How many platforms does Automation keep user information synchronized across?

A

384

307
Q

What are the resources included in Resource Provisioning Software licenses Communication tools Process involves Requirements analysis

A

Workstations

308
Q

How does Automating Security help prevent?

A

security vulnerabilities

309
Q

What is the name of the website that automates service access management to prevent unnecessary risks?

A

386

310
Q

What is the name of the system that manages permissions using Role-based Access Controls?

A

Automating Permissions Management

311
Q

What is the purpose of managing access rights using Role-based Access Controls?

A

Automate provisioning and de-provisioning

312
Q

What verifies each check-in and detects problems 387?

A

Automated build process

313
Q

What ensures software quality after integration?

A

Automated tests

314
Q

What is CI/CD?

A

Continuous Delivery

315
Q

What does CD stop short of automatic production deployment?

A

Automated testing and build processes

316
Q

What is automated only to a certain stage?

A

Full deployment process

317
Q

What is the purpose of deployment to production environment?

A

manual business decision

318
Q

How many times does DionTraining.com allow flexibility in timing, market conditions, and stakeholder readiness?

A

388

319
Q

What takes CI/CD further by automatically deploying code changes to testing and production environments?

A

Continuous Deployment

320
Q

How many years ago did DionTraining enable software developers to access functions or features of another application programmatically?

A

389

321
Q

What are APIs used to facilitate communication between different parts of a microservice or service-oriented architecture?

A

Common communication methods

322
Q

What is the name of the common communication method used by APIs?

A

REST

323
Q

What types of methods does REST use for interactions?

A

HTTP methods, status codes, URIs, and MIME types

324
Q

What is used for data transfer?

A

JSON

325
Q

What protocol is suitable for integration with existing websites?

A

Lightweight protocol

326
Q

What is a simple Object Access Protocol?

A

SOAP

327
Q

In what format does SOAP have a structured message format?

A

XML

328
Q

What is SOAP’s structured message format known for?

A

robustness, additional security features, and transaction compliance

329
Q

What has a structured message format in XML?

A

SOAP

330
Q

Suitable for what type of web services?

A

enterprise-level web services

331
Q

What type of requirements do web services have?

A

regulatory compliance requirements

332
Q

What type of transactions are required for enterprise-level web services?

A

complex transactions

333
Q

What are the commonly used protocols for API testing?

A

HTTP and HTTPS 390

334
Q

CURL allows sending data to an API and receiving what type of response?

A

JSON

335
Q

What is the goal of 5.6?

A

Security Awareness

336
Q

What is Knowledge and understanding of security threats and mitigation measures Goal Equip individuals to recognize and respond to threats for data protection?

A

Security Awareness

337
Q

How many passwords does DionTraining.com have?

A

392

338
Q

What is insider threat from individuals within an organization?

A

Security risk

339
Q

What are techniques Maintaining situational awareness, avoiding shoulder surfing, eavesdropping?

A

Social Engineering Attacks

340
Q

What does Organizational mindset prioritize security in daily tasks and decision-making?

A

Creating a Culture of Security

341
Q

What is essential in addressing insider threats?

A

Training employees

342
Q

How many items do Discreet investigations to rule out illicit activities, theft, or information selling?

A

394

343
Q

What do employees under financial stress express financial woes to coworkers?

A

Financial Struggles

344
Q

What is the name of the person who is responsible for detecting anomalous behavior while respecting employee privacy?

A

Password Managers

345
Q

What is a specialized tool, plugin, or extension used with web browsers?

A

Password Manager

346
Q

What are most usernames?

A

Email addresses

cyber (5 decks)

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