SECONDARY PERITONITIS Flashcards

1
Q

Pertinent Anatomy of a patient with Secondary Peritonitis.

A

(1) Recall the peritoneum is a serous membrane.
(2) It has two components:
(a) a portion that covers the abdominal wall,
(b) a visceral portion that covers the abdominal organs.
(3) The surface area of the peritoneum is approximately 150% of the total skin surface area
hence the entire ABD anatomy is involved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a potentially catastrophic illness caused by infectious organisms attacking the peritoneum.

A

Acute Peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The mechanisms of bacterial contamination of the peritoneal cavity are

A

(a) hematogenous spread of bacteria
(b) contiguous spread from extra- peritoneal infection,
(c) migration of intestinal bacteria
(d) an ascension via the female genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the five most common causes of acute peritonitis are

A

(a) appendicitis,
(b) cholecystitis,
(c) diverticulitis,
(d) pancreatitis,
(e) bowel perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
Symptoms
Vitals
Inspection
Auscultation
Percussion
Palpation
A

(1) Vitals: fever, tachycardia and possible hypotension
(2) Inspection: Patient often in fetal position, because any movement worsens pain. Visible
peristalsis suggests bowel obstruction.
(3) Auscultation: Absence of bowel sounds in all four quadrants suggests peritonitis. Always
auscultate before doing percussion or palpation.
(4) Percussion: Absence of dullness over the liver suggests free air and perforation.
(5) Palpation:
(a) Begin with very gentle palpation away from the area of maximal symptoms;
(b) board-like abdomen is unmistakable and indicates obvious peritonitis;
(c) shake the pelvis to assess rebound tenderness;
(d) iliopsoas and obturator signs are suggestive for retroperitoneal inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Differential Diagnosis

A

(1) Appendicitis
(2) Cholecystitis
(3) Pancreatitis
(4) Diverticulitis
(5) Perforated ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lab

A

(1) CBC/DIFF: Moderate leukocytosis (10-20K) and neutrophilia is common.
(2) Urinalysis
(3) Blood cultures for infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RAD

A

(1) Abdominal X-ray, especially upright may reveal
(2) Free air, dilated loops of bowel, air-fluid levels or
(3) Other findings suggestive of the etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment

A

(1) Broad spectrum IV antibiotics with Bacteroides, Enterococcus, Gram-negative and
Anaerobic coverage.
(a) Ertapenem 1g IV Q 24 hrs
(2) IV access- 2 large bore (18-16 gauge)
(3) Fluid replenishment- Require fluids to maintain adequate blood pressure and prevent cardiovascular collapse.
(4) NPO
(5) NG tube with intermittent suction
(6) Monitor I&O (foley), maintain urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hr
(7) Pain meds- narcotic (morphine) likely required
(8) Anti-emetics
(a) Promethazine (Phenergan) - 1st generation antihistamine, anti-nausea and
vomiting medication
1) Dose: 12.5-25mg IV Q 6 hrs
2) MOA: non-selectively antagonizes central and peripheral histamine H1 receptors;
possesses anticholinergic properties, resulting in antiemetic and sedative effects
3) Adverse Reactions: respiratory depression, seizures, hallucinations, heat stroke,
drowsiness, sedation, photosensitivity
4) Contraindications: comatose patients, respiratory depression, elderly patients,
seizure disorder, asthma
(b) Ondansetron (Zofran) – antiemetic
1) Dose: 4mg PO/IV q8 hours as needed
2) MOA: selectively antagonizes serotonin 5-HT3 receptors
3) Adverse Reactions: QT prolongation, Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, serotonin
syndrome, HA, diarrhea, agitation, pruritus
4) Contraindications: ventricular arrhythmias, recent MI, CHF, hepatic impairment
(9) PROPAQ monitor
(10) MEDEVAC
(11) Consult General Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Initial Care

A

(1) When detected, IV access, prevent further infection, pain control, and prep for surgery.
(2) Surgery is needed to treat disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly