Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2nd year help prt 3 > second yr help prt 3 > Flashcards

second yr help prt 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the definition of pyrexia?

A

a temp of 38.3 or above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What disease causes a bullseye rash?

A

borreliosis or lymes disease. the rash is also called erythema migrans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What disease are koplik spots associated with?

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

erythamatous macules and papules begin on the face and spread cephalocaudaly and centrifugally. koplik spots.

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

puritic pink to red macules and papules wich begin on the face and spread to the neck and extremities over 24 hours. Forchheimers sign.

A

Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pink macules and papules surrounded by white halos. begins on trunk and spreads to neck and to proximal extremities.

A

roseola infantum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does IgA do?

A

Found in Mucosal linings, Sliva, mothers milk and tears. 15% of immunoglobulin produced on a daily basis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does IgG do?

A

Is the main antibody accounting for 75% of antibody. it plays a key role in the adaptive immune system. It can cross the placent and confers immmunity in the child for the first 3-6 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does IgD do?

A

No one knows? posibily activates basophils and mast cells. Sticks to B cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does IgE do?

A

Parasite and allergies. 0.05%percent of all antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does IgM do?

A

Is the basic antibody and first to appear in an immune response. Can trap stray pathogens by “sticking” to them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which part of the G+ve bacteria retains stain during gram staining?

A

Peptidoglycan wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which part of the bacteria is responsible for conferring resistance?

A

the plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Run through all the parts of the immune system! do it!

A

mentally run through all the different cells systematically!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which nerve is damaged when someone presents with winging of the scapula?

A

the long thoracic nerve. It innervates Serratus anterior protracting the scapula. damage = retracted scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What muscles abducts the arm to 19°?

A

Supraspinatous. deltoid 19° - 90°, trapizius 90°-180°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what type of collagen is in articular cartilage?

A

type 2. Type II collagen is the basis for articular cartilage and hyaline cartilage. It makes up 50% of all protein in cartilage and 85-90% of collagen of articular cartilage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most abundant collagen in the body?

A

Type I collagen is the most abundant collagen of the human body. Type I: skin, tendon, vascular ligature, organs, bone (main component of the organic part of bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which collagen is in hair, placenta?

A

Type V: cell surfaces, hair and placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the Scarf test, the empty cup test, and the drop arm test test?

A

Torn AC joint, shoulder impingement and rotator cuff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does the thomas test test?

A

primary hip flexor muscles, including the rectus femoris, illiopsoas and illiotibial (IT) band.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does the Trendelenburg sign show?

A

Trendelenburg’s sign is found in people with weak or paralyzed abductor muscles of the hip, namely gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Patient with loss of sensation in the regimental badge area of the upper arm. which nerve root is affected?

A

Musculo cutaneous/median - C5/6
Axilliary/radial nerve C7.
Ulnar C8/T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most common cause of CAP Pneumonia with rusty coloured sputum? Abrupt onset, mutlilobar. G+ve.

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pneumonia, redcurrant jelly sputum? Alcoholic, COPD. G-ve.

A

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

pneumonia that is an opportunistic aerobic bacteria common in patients with Cystic Fibrosis + neutropenia, produces green sputum. G-ve.

A

Psudemona aeringosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pneumonia that presents as an upper resp. tract infection. can cause small pleural effusion. G+ve.

A

Hemophilus influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

pneumonia that often complicates viral illness. causes local destruction - septicemia, cavitation, empyema. Common in IVDU. G+ve.

A

Staphyloccocus Aureus. MRSA is noscomial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is CURB 65?

A

Confusion7mmol/l Resp >30/min B/P >90/60 Age >65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CURB score 1

A

Amoxicillin. manage in community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CURB score 2

A

Inpatient or supervised outpatient. Amoxicillin + clarythromicin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CURB score 3

A

severe Pneumonia. ITU. IV Co-Amoxiclav (Augmentin) (or Cefuroxime or cefuroxione and clarythromicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

pneumonia transmitted via stagnant warm water (air conditioning) affects elderly and immunosuppresed. Causes oliguria, acute renal failure, Rhabdomyolisis.

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

pneumonia normally hospital acquired, affecting chronically ill patients. Often affecting lower lobes of the lung.

A

E. Coli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

pneumonia affecting closed population (schools, nurseries, nursing homes). A common cause in
children less than 4yrs old.

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

pneumonia caught from birds.

A

Chlamydia psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which lung cell produces suffecants?

A

type 2 pneumocyte.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does Hyaline membrane disease cause?

A

a condition in newborn babies in which the lungs are deficient in surfactant, which prevents their proper expansion and causes the formation of hyaline material in the lung spaces. Can be given steroids prior to delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Coarctation of the aorta

A

presents with poor perfusion of distal limbs and absent femoral pulses. Aortic coarctation is considered when a section of the aorta is narrowed to an abnormal width. It is a congenital heart condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is transposition of the great arteries?

A

presents cyanotic. All pulses are palpable and there is no murmur on auscultation of chest. 02 sats are 55% on room air. With Aorta coming off right ventricle and Pulmonary artery off left ventricle it is essentially a
swapping of the aorta and pulmonary arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Patent ductus arteriosis?

A

is a congenital heart defect wherein the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth. It presents with a “machine like” murmur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Fallots tetralogy

A

Presenting as Cyanotic with a murmur. It is the most common cyanotic heart defect and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome. TOF is usually a right-to-left shunt, in which higher resistance to right ventricular outflow results in more severe cyanosis symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Diagnostic test for Cystic Fibrosis?

A

CF characterised by falling Centiles, recurrent chest infections. +/- 6 months old. no GI problems. SWEAT TEST. looks for excess chloride ions in sweat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is downs syndrome?

A

3 copies of chromosome 21. Trisomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do you test for Down’s

A

Amniocentesis or chorionic vilus sampling (CVS) definite diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What appearence does a down’s syndrome child have?

A

Reduced muscle tone that results in loppiness (hypotonia)
A small nose and flat nasal bridge
A small mouth with a protruding tongue
Eyes that slant upwards and outwards
A flat back of the head
A big space between the first and second toe (sandal gap)
Broad hands with short fingers
Their palm may have only one crease across it (single transverse palmar crease)
A below-average weight and length at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the appearance of turners syndrome?

A

Some individuals with Turner syndrome have a short neck with a webbed appearance, a low hairline at the back of the neck, and low-set ears. Hands and feet of affected individuals may be swollen or puffy at birth, and often have soft nails that turn upward at the ends when they are older.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the cause of turners?

A

A girl with Turner syndrome only has one normal X sex chromosome, rather than the usual two (XX). Autosomy.

49
Q

What causes kleinfelters syndrome?

A

An extra X chromosome in males most often occurs when the genetic material in the egg or sperm splits unevenly. it is not a familial inherited trait. (xxy)

50
Q

What is the appearance of kleinfelters?

A

Kleinfelters affects testosterone so doesn’t usually show untill puberty (development affected by testosterone). they usually present with Infertility, Small testes, with the possibility of testes shrinking slightly after the teen
Lower testosterone levels, which lead to less muscle, hair, and sexual interest and function +
Breasts or breast growth

51
Q

What is foetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Foetal alcohol syndrome happens when a mother has been drinking alcohol while pregnant. It affects the baby’s development, particularly the brain and spinal cord.
It also damages the important cells in the baby’s body that are necessary for growth and disrupts the connection of the nerves in the brain. The damage to the cells by alcohol results in poor growth, smaller body size and a delay in development.

52
Q

What are the physical signs of foetal alcohol syndrome?

A

poor growth while in the womb and after birth, so the baby is shorter and smaller than average, sometimes with deformed limbs
small head and jaw
distinctive facial features, especially:
- small eyes set far apart
- a thin upper lip
- a smooth philtrum (ridge that runs below the nose to the top lip)

53
Q

What si the most likely cause of a childs growth tailing off between 6 months and a year?

A

Growth hormone deficiency.

54
Q

What does GHEN stand for?

A

Genetics, Hormones, Environment and Nutrition.

55
Q

When does Coeliac disease present in Babies? and what is the appropriate test?

A

At about 6 months (weening) and the appropriate test is a TTG IgA (tissuetransglutimase antibody test).

56
Q

How do you calculate mean parental height?

A

Find the mean parental height, then! for a boy add 7cm and minus 7 for girls. The last height is then subject to +/-8.5cm deviation.

57
Q

What is the pathology if bone age is delayed?

A

Growth hormone problem.

58
Q

If its gallstone or gall bladder related, what is the appropriate investigation?

A

Ultrasound as first line!

59
Q

What are the 3 types of Gallstone?

A

Cholesterol (above 80% cholesterol), Brown (mixed) and black (above 80%pigment and below 20%cholesterol)

60
Q

what is cholecystitis?

A

inflammation of the gallbladder. normally follows gallstones lodging in the cystic duct or biliary tree.

61
Q

What is cholangitis?

A

Cholangitis is an inflammation of the bile duct system that is usually related to a bacterial infection

62
Q

What is the test for Pancreatitis?

A

Serum Amylase (or serum lipase, more specific but not done as often), followed by computed tomography, magnetic resonance imaging, or ultrasonography

63
Q

What is the double duct sign?

A

Constriction of the pancratic and bile ducts near the head of the pancreas

64
Q

name 4 drugs that cause cholestasis?

A

Clavulanic acid
Oestrogens
Penicillin
Erythromycin

65
Q

What tumor marker is associated with pancreatic cancer?

A

CA 19-9 tumour marker

66
Q

What are symptoms of pancreatitis?

A

upper abdominal pain, which radiates to the back, gets worse with eating and better with leaning forward.it can include nausea and vomiting and weight loss.

67
Q

What is courvoisiers law?

A

states that in the presence of an enlarged gallbladder which is nontender and accompanied with mild jaundice, the cause is unlikely to be gallstones. It is likely cancer of the pancreas.

68
Q

what is charcots triad?

A

Most commonly Charcot’s triad is used with regard to ascending cholangitis. Definitions commonly describe three common signs and symptoms:

right upper quadrant pain,
jaundice, and
fever.

69
Q

what are the 2 major classification systems for depression?

A

ICD-10 (international classification of disease) + the DSM-5 (diagnostic system of mental disorders)

70
Q

Using the ICD-10, What are the key symptoms?

A

Low mood, Anhedonia (lack of finding pleasure in things previously enjoyed) + fatigue or low energy.

71
Q

what do you need to diagnose mild depression?

A

2 core symptoms + 2 others (4 total)

72
Q

what do you need to diagnose moderate depression

A

2 core symptoms + 3-4 others.

73
Q

what do you need to diagnose mild sever depression?

A

All core symptoms + 4 or more other symptoms.

74
Q

How many symptoms do you need to have to be classified as depressed?

A

At least 4 symptoms from ICD-10. Less is called a low mood or dysthymia.

75
Q

What are the 7 non core parts of depression diagnosis?

A 
I C DAGAS
Indecisiveness
Confidence loss
Disturbed sleep
Agitation
Guilt
Appetite change
Suicidal thoughts
76
Q

What is first line treatment for mild depression?

A

CBT

77
Q

What is the first line treatment for depression and anxiety?

A

TCAs amitriptyline

78
Q

what is Hematopoiesis?

A

the production of blood cells and platelets, which occurs in the bone marrow.

79
Q

What are 3 contraindications to vaccination?

A

Egg allergy - do not give yellow fever vaccine
Live vaccines delayed if possible till after pregnancy
Immunosuppression - live vaccination contra-indicated

80
Q

What is the primary pathological process in early primary OA

A

Disorganisation of the collagen matrix in the cartilage.

81
Q

What ligament does the varus test test?

A

Lateral colateral ligament.

82
Q

What ligament does the valgus test test?

A

Medial colateral ligament

83
Q

If someone’s knee hit a dashboard during an accident, what test for which ligament would you conduct?

A

Posterior draw test for the PCL (posterior cruciate ligament)

84
Q

If someone’s knee is damaged when they stop suddenly, what test for which ligament would you conduct?

A

anterior draw or lachman test for the anterior cruciate ligament.

85
Q

What is the unhappy triad?

A

This is an injury to the anterior cruciate ligament, medial collateral ligament, and the medial meniscus.

86
Q

What are the diagnosing criteria in primary (idopathic/unknown cause) OA?

A

Diagnose OA clinically in anyone who:
Is over 45
Activity related joint pain
No morning stiffness (seen more in RA)

87
Q

What drugs lower colesterol?

A

Statins. Simvastatin.

88
Q

What is the first line treatment for stable angina?

A

GTN spray Glyceryl trinitrate

89
Q

name 3 B-blockers?

A

Atenolol, bisoprolol, metoprolol

90
Q

Name 4 Calcium channel blockers?

A

amlodipine, nifedipine,

verapamil, diltiazem

91
Q

What is the mechanism of action in GTN spray?

A

Glyceryl trinitrate works by being converted to nitric oxide. This has the effect of making the veins and arteries dilate.

92
Q

What is stable angina?

A

Stable angina is chest pain or discomfort that most often occurs with activity or emotional stress. Angina is due to poor blood flow through the blood vessels in the heart.

93
Q

What is the first line SSRI?

A

citalopram

94
Q

Name one selective tricyclic?

A

Nortryptaline

95
Q

Name one non-selective tricyclic antidepressant?

A

Amitryptaline

96
Q

Name a mono amineoxidase inhinitor antidepressant?

A

Maclobemide

97
Q

What is the major interaction of MAOI’s?

A

Tyramine → NO cheese, beer, soy, herring or chocolate. causes htpertensive crisis.

98
Q

What is the major contraindication of taking an SSRI?

A

Age.

99
Q

What Antidpressant should be used post MI?

A

Sertraline

100
Q

What is one major sideeffect of cirtalopram and other SSRI’s?

A

Hyponatraemia!!!

101
Q

Name one receptor blocker?

A

Mirtrazipine → Major depressive disorder

102
Q

What is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain?

A

Glutamate → blocked by glutamate and alcohol causing sedation

103
Q

What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?

A

GABA (gamma-amino butyric acid)→ activated by benzodiazepines and alcohol

104
Q

What are astrocytes?

A

Support cells in the brain

105
Q

What are oligodendrocytes?

A

They myelinate the nerves in the brain

106
Q

What are microglia?

A

the macrophages of the brain

107
Q

What are Ependymal cells?

A

They line the ventricles and make CSF

108
Q

What are Glia?

A

General term for brain cells.

109
Q

What is the only ionotropic inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

Glycine

110
Q

What are the 2 main methods of action of neurotransmitters?

A
  • ionotropic →quick response

* Metabatropic →long response

111
Q

What receptors are targeted by drugs trying to affect serotonin?

A

5-ht

112
Q

What is the principle neurotransmitter of the chiolinergic system?

A

Acetylcholine

113
Q

What is the serotonin hypothesis of major depression?

A

↓serotonin =depression
SSRI’s ↑serotonin
therefore! SSRI’s stop depression

114
Q

What is parkinsons disease associated with?

A

Lack of Dopamine

115
Q

What is another major site of serotonin production?

A

The GI/stomach.

116
Q

What is the major adrenergic neurotransmitter?

A

Noradrenaline

117
Q

What are endogenous opioids called?

A

endorphines

118
Q

What neurotransmitter is sythesized in the hypothalmus?

A

Histamine

2nd year help prt 3 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions