Second Pretest Flashcards

1
Q

If a person subject to military law commits an offense over seas that person

A

Can be tried overseas or stateside

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2
Q

The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are

A

Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary and reciprocal

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3
Q

The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations

A

When government has exclusive jurisdiction

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4
Q

Under concurrent jurisdiction

A

Both state and federal government have authority

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5
Q

When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as a

A

Military government

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6
Q

Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government

A

Army

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7
Q

What are the two types of martial law

A

Qualified and absolute

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8
Q

Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority

A

Absolute

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9
Q

What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the armed forces through the UCMJ

A

Military

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10
Q

Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a sf member

A

Article 92 (2)

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11
Q

Who may requests a civil proceeding under federal tort law

A

Private citizens

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12
Q

I’m determining whether an individual is a suspect you should not base this decision on

A

Opinion and belief

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13
Q

Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement who or what office should you consult

A

The legal office

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14
Q

The fifth amendment of the constitution protects against

A

Self incrimination

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15
Q

MWD teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective

A

Psychological deterrent

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16
Q

When is a MWD detection ability more effective

A

During darkness or limited visibility

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17
Q

When conducting building checks the MWD is normally

A

On leash

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18
Q

The MWD teams boils always approach buildings from the

A

Downwind side

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19
Q

Under ideal conditions at what distance can the average MWD detect and respond to intruders

A

250 yards or more

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20
Q

The MWD primary mission is to

A

Deter detect and detain intruders

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21
Q

MWD should be kept on leash except when they must

A

Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building

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22
Q

Before releasing a MWD to search a suspected unoccupied building as the handler must

A

Give a verbal warning saying you are about to release the dog

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23
Q

If a personality conflict occurs during an interview the investigator should

A

Allow another investigator to do the interview

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24
Q

If a same sex sf member Connor be present during an interview why should you do

A

Have a second investigator present

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25
Which type of interviewee is normally interviewed to develop facts in an investigation
Victims
26
The goal of any interview is to
Obtain legally admissible statements
27
What are the types of interview approaches
Direct indirect and alternating
28
Which interview approach is primarily used to interrogate
Direct approach
29
If a victim becomes emotionally upset during an interview you should
Terminate an reschedule
30
AF personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released
To their supervisor first Sgt or commander
31
As a sf member what is the primary rule in court testimony
Tell the truth
32
As a sf member prior to testifying in court you should
Review the entire case file
33
What assembly is the support for all major components on the M249 AR
Receiver
34
What are the M249 AR evolution knob drum range settings
300-1,000
35
What type of M249 AR ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry fire exercises and function checks
M199 Dummy
36
Which round is used during training to simulate live fire
M200
37
Which round has a folding metal jacket lead alloy core bullet with a steel penetrator
M855
38
What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made
AF Form 3545
39
What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody
Interview
40
Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse
Mental abuse
41
Child porn and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse
Sexual
42
What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment deprivation of necessities and not providing appropriate shelter or clothing
Neglect
43
What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim
Your tact and poise
44
What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another whether successful or not provided the target is aware of the danger
Assault
45
What type of assault is punishable in all stars as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim
Aggravated assault
46
What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim/witness assistance program
Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement
47
What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together
Casual
48
The use of riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option
Commander
49
Which riot control formation is used as an offensive to penetrate and split crowds
Wedge
50
Which force protection measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations
Negate
51
Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint fore commanders or functional component commanders
Operation control (OPCON)
52
Which type of lighting is low illumination lighting used in nuclear restricted areas
Very near infrared (VNIR)
53
How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries
100 feet
54
What type of force is required at all installations supporting PL 1, 2, or 3 resources
Security Response team (SRT)
55
The letter E next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identify that an individual is authorized to
Escort personnel into those restricted areas
56
What type of sentries controls the entry into an aircraft when the aircraft is carrying specific protection level assets
Close in sentry CIS
57
How often must the approving authority review all permanent security deviations
Every year
58
What form is used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels
AF Form 116
59
At what level does the nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission
Operational
60
What concept was designed to prevent a lone individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function
Split knowledge
61
In the case of a nuclear security system three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals protestors and
Terrorists
62
Which nuclear weapon facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world
KUMMSC
63
Vegetation in clear zones will not exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapon storage facilities
8 inches
64
Up to how many persons can be escorted inside an exclusive area per escort official
6
65
Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and no lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistics air craft
Couriers
66
Only personnel verified through what program or host nation equivalent at a weapons storage and security system WS3 installations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or can perform escort duties within exclusion areas
Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)
67
(DCNI) what Security team is routinely dispatched with a middle maintenance team, provides security for a penetrated launch facility and establishes site security
Security Team Escort
68
Ammunition is fed into the M240B from a
100- round bandoleer disintegrating metallic split link belt
69
Wha is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with Tripp’s
800 M
70
When firing the M240B at a sustained rate of fire you must change the barrel every
10 mins
71
When firing the M240B at a rapid rate of fire you must change the barrel every
2 mins
72
How many ways can the M240B be loaded
2
73
How many steps does the M240B have in the cycle of operations
8
74
Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions
Crew served weapons operator
75
What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer
Greater distance
76
Based on terrain vegetation and visibility leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to
400 m
77
Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures
BDOC
78
What type of fire control measure do sf flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders
Direct
79
What is the most common means of giving fire commands
Visual signals
80
What is your first course of action when caught in an assault
Immediately return fire and take covered position
81
Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the
Primary sector from farthest to closest
82
Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid
Contrast with the background
83
When marking targets the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
Aiming point
84
The level performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of
Light
85
On the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular
Compass
86
How should pre-combat inspection be tailored
Specific unit and mission requirements
87
When should sf perform function checks of their individual issues items
Daily
88
I’m tactical deployment situations why movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique
High crawl
89
Selection of team movement techniques is based on
Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
90
Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team
Wedge
91
When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used
When enemy contact is expected
92
During bounding overwatch the bounding team should not movers than how many meters forward of the overwatching team
150
93
Which movement technique do you use when speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely
Traveling
94
What are the two types of ambushes
Point and area
95
What are the most common types of reconnaissance patrols
Area route and zone
96
What type of reconnaissance patrols involves a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes obstacles terrain and enemy forces within a defined sector
Some
97
To perform transition to a handgun drill with a 3 Point tactical sling you must first place the rifle on
Safe
98
How do you perform the hand and arm signal for attention
Extend the arm sideways slightly above the horizontal palm to the front wave the arm to and from the head several times
99
How do you perform the hand and arm signal for Line formation
Extend the arms parallel to the ground
100
When processing captives detainees and prisoners DCP at collection points which is NOT one of the principles of STRESS
Release
101
What convoy movement formation can only be used on multi lane roads
Staggered
102
What convoy movement formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes
Offset
103
Where will drivers position themselves during a short halt
Remain in vehicle
104
Who signals for rollout after a long halt and movement commences
Convoy commander