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PERS 1500 > second half of final exam > Flashcards

second half of final exam Flashcards

1
Q

3 functions of the cardiovascular system

A

Supplies muscles and organs with O2 and nutrients

Removes metabolic by-products from tissues

Critical for performance
Enhanced by training

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2
Q

what are the 3 layers of the heart?

A
  • endocardium
  • myocardium
  • epicardium
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3
Q

function of the endocardium

A

(within)

  • Lines heart chambers
  • Allows smooth blood flow
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4
Q

function of the myocardium

A

(middle)

  • Thick and muscular
  • Pumps blood
  • Heart muscle itself
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5
Q

function of the epicardium

A

(upon)

  • Thin
  • Protection
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6
Q

function of the pericardium

A 
(around)
-Protective sac containing
	pericardial fluid (reduces friction)
-Loosely surrounds heart
-Reduces friction
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7
Q

function of the ventricles

A

pump blood to the body

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8
Q

function of the right ventricle

A

-Deoxygenated blood to lungs via pulmonary artery

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9
Q

function of the left ventricle

A

-Oxygenated blood to body via aorta

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10
Q

function of the atria

A

pumps blood into ventricles

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11
Q

function of the right atrium

A

-Deoxygenated blood from body via superior/inferior vena cava

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12
Q

function of the left atrium

A
  • Oxygenated blood from lungs via pulmonary vein

- Only vein that carries oxygenated blood

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13
Q

function of semilunar valves

A
  • Open when ventricles contract to direct blood flow into arteries
  • Close when ventricles relax to prevent backflow of blood
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14
Q

what are the 2 semilunar valves?

A

Pulmonary valve

Aortic valve

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15
Q

function of the pulmonary valve

A

connects the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery

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16
Q

function of the aortic valve

A

connects the left ventricle to the aorta

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17
Q

what is the function of the atrioventricular valves

A
  • Open when atria contract to direct blood flow into ventricles
  • Close when atria relax to prevent backflow
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18
Q

what are the 2 different atrioventricular valves?

A

Tricuspid valve

Bicuspid / mitral valve

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19
Q

function of the tricuspid valve

A

connects the right atrium to the right ventricle

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20
Q

function of the bicuspid/mitral valve

A

connects the left atrium to the left ventricle

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21
Q

what is the sinus node (sinoatrial node)

A

Bundle of nerve fibres that control heart rate

Called the “pacemaker of the heart”

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22
Q

where is the sinus node located?

A

Located inside right atrium wall

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23
Q

what is the function of the sinus node?

A

Generate a nerve impulse (action potential)
Cause muscle walls to contract
Atria 1st, ventricles 2nd

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24
Q

what are the 2 components of blood pressure?

A
  • systolic blood pressure

- diastolic blood pressure

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25
Q

systolic blood pressure

A
  • During ventricular contraction (systole)
  • How hard the heart works
  • Strain against arterial walls during contraction
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26
Q

what is normal for systolic bp

A

120 mm Hg

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27
Q

diastolic blood pressure

A
  • During heart relaxation (diastole)
  • Indicates peripheral BP (outside the heart)
  • Ease with which blood flows from arterioles to capillaries
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28
Q

what is normal for diastolic bp

A

70-80 mm Hg

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29
Q

cardiac output

A
  • The amount of blood pumped into the aorta each minute

- Representative of the quantity of blood flowing to peripheral circulation

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30
Q

stroke volume

A
  • Amount of blood (ml) pumped out of left ventricle per heartbeat
  • Resting: 70 ml
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31
Q

define heart rate. What is considered resting heart rate and what is considered the max heart rate?

A

-Rhythmical contraction of the heart walls (beats per minute, bpm)
Resting: 40-70 bpm
Maximum: 220 – age (years)

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32
Q

what are the 3 functions of the peripheral circulatory system?

A

Consists of blood vessels made up of layers of tissue

Smooth muscle cell layer allow vessels to contact

This regulates blood flow throughout the body

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33
Q

Arteries carry blood _____ from the heart while

veins carry blood _____ the heart

A

away, towards

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34
Q

Small vessels that branch from arteries

A

arterioles

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35
Q

capillaries

A

Tiny vessels that branch from arterioles

Allow O2 and nutrient exchange; waste and CO2 removal

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36
Q

Small vessels that branch from veins

A

venules

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37
Q

what are the 4 components of blood?

A

plasma, platelets, white blood cells, red blood cells

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38
Q

1) infection fighting cells (leukocyte)=?
2) transport fluid=?
3) oxygen-carrying cells (erythrocyte)=?
4) clot-forming component=?

association: red blood cells, plasma, platelets, white blood cells

A

1) white blood cells
2) plasma
3) red blood cells
4) platelets

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39
Q

Most abundant cell type in blood

A

red blood cells

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40
Q

what do we call the percentage of blood made up of RBCs (usually 45% of blood volume)

A

hematocrit

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41
Q

Protein and iron molecule inside RBCs that binds to up to four O2

A

hemoglobin

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42
Q

partial pressure of O2

A 
Determines hemoglobin-oxygen binding
High pressure (e.g., lungs):	 O2 binds
Low pressure (e.g., muscle): O2 unbinds
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43
Q

arterial-venous oxygen difference

A

Difference between O2 level in blood leaving and returning to the lungs
Measure of O2 being used by the body tissues
Rest: 4-5 ml O2 /decilitre blood
Exercise: 15 ml O2 /decilitre blood

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44
Q

reticulocytes

A

Immature RBCs with more hemoglobin
Produced in bone marrow (red marrow of large bones)
Tightly controlled with a hormone erythropoietin (EPO) produced by the kidneys

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45
Q

order of transport of CO2

A

tissues, blood, lungs, then air

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46
Q

the transport of CO2 is useful for what?

A

Helps regulate body’s:

  • Ionic equilibrium (chloride shift)
  • pH balance (bicarbonate)
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47
Q

explain the 3 different ways CO2 is transported to the lungs

A

1) 10% is dissolved in plasma
2) 20% is combined with hemoglobin to form carbaminohemoglobin
3) 70% binds with hemoglobin and is then transported in plasma

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48
Q

what are the 2 factors affecting O2 delivery and uptake?

A

1) central component: amount of O2 delivered by the cardiovascular system
2) peripheral component: amount of O2 extracted by skeletal muscles

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49
Q

factors affecting O2 delivery

A

1) Cardiac output
Amount of blood pumped by the heart each minute (into the aorta)
Determines O2 volume delivered to tissues

2) Hematocrit
Concentration of red blood cells
Determines amount of O2 per a volume of blood

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50
Q

factors affecting O2 uptake

A

1) O2 extraction
Ability of tissues to extract O2
Affected by mitochondria number and enzyme efficiency

2) Capillarization
Number of capillaries in tissue
Affects the ability of cardiovascular system to place RBCs close to the working tissues

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51
Q

3 main functions of the respiratory system

A

Delivers oxygenated air to blood

Removes CO2 from blood

Regulates acid-base balance

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52
Q

what are the 2 zones within the lungs and what are their function?

A

Conduction zone: filters, humidifies and adjusts air to body’s temperature

Respiratory zone: gas exchange

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53
Q

The alveolar duct, alveolar sac, alveolus, and alveolar capillaries are all part of the ________ zone of the lungs

A

respiratory zone

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54
Q

The trachea, right bronchus, bronchioles, left bronchus, and terminal bronchiole are all part of the _______ zone of the lungs

A

conduction zone

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55
Q

what are the 3 aspects of respiration?

A

ventilation, gas exchange (via diffusion), and oxygen utilization

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56
Q

ventilation in the respiratory system is achieved by __________ and _________.

A

thoracic diaphragm and intercostal muscles

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57
Q

where does gas exchange occur in the respiratory system?

A

Between air and blood (at alveoli)

Between blood and other tissue

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58
Q

The cardiorespiratory system adjust to the demands of exercise to ensure what 2 things?

A

That there is an adequate supply of blood (and O2) that reaches brain, heart and muscles

That heat and waste produces generated by muscles are dissipated and removed

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59
Q

What happens to your cardiac output while exercising?

ventricle size, stroke volume, wall thickness, etc.

A
  • increased atria and ventricles size
  • increased amount of blood pumped per heart beat (stroke volume)

Wall thickness

  • increased rate of contraction
  • increase in ventricles emptying

Result:

  • increase in maximal cardiac output
  • increase in pumping efficiency
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60
Q

what happens to your capillary supply while exercising?

A

-increase the number of muscle capillaries and their blood flow

  • increased surface area and decreased distance between blood and tissues
  • increased O2 and CO2 diffusion
  • more transport of nutrients

-more O2 extraction

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61
Q

what happens to your blood volume while exercising?

A

1) -increased number of RBCs
- increased erythropoiesis (formation of new RBCs) in bone marrow

2) -increase in total blood volume

  • increased O2 amount extracted
  • increased O2 carrying capacity
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62
Q

how does exercise affect our ventilation process?

A
  • increase breath depth
  • increase breathing rate
  • more gas exchange
  • 150 L/min vs. 6 L/min at rest
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63
Q

what are the immediate effects of PA in high altitudes?

A

1) Hyperventilation (immediate)
- increased breathing rate
- increased O2 delivery
- increased CO2 removal and acid-base balance changes

2) increased heart rate (immediate)

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64
Q

what are the long term effects of PA in high altitudes?

A

increased O2 carrying capacity (long-term)

 * More RBCs
 * More Hb per RBC
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65
Q

___% of energy is released through heat

A

80

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66
Q

Victorians used ______ explanations to justify ______ differences between women and men

A

biological, cultural

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67
Q

Many (but not all) of our current sports come from ______________, where they were played by ‘gentleman amateurs’ = “Sportsmanship”

A

late 19th century Britain

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68
Q

Sport was modernized through 5 things:

A
  • written rules
  • regulated spaces and times
  • organized competitions
  • international diffusion
  • creation of national teams/ international governing bodies
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69
Q

was what the main focus of sport in the indigenous communities?

A

focused around ceremonial and religious practices and teaching of survival skills

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70
Q

What impact did the industrial revolution have on sport?

A

it increased leisure time and engagement in sport and games because people worked in more urban areas instead of moving around so they had more spare time

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71
Q

What values were promoted by these clubs and associations created by the Brits?

A
  • Pleasure and conviviality
  • Excellence in competition
  • Skill—‘scientific play’—rather than brute strength
  • Respectable ‘manliness’—courage, self-reliance and self-discipline, respect for others
  • Canadian nationalism (pro-British variant)
  • Sports as education for citizenship
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72
Q

when did the emergence of women’s sport begin? what kind of exercise did this comprise of? what was the goal of this?

A
  • Begun predominantly in 1880s
  • Light exercise concentrated on making women both strong and graceful
  • Goal: protecting women, based on the assumption that they were weak, fragile
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73
Q

explain the effect of the bicycle craze on women and sport in the 1890’s

A
  • Invention of the pneumatic tire and the safety bicycle
  • Mass production
  • Revolutionary impact on women’s access to physical activity
  • Aided by the introduction of the “bloomer”, bifurcated skirt
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74
Q

what was the main reason in the 19th century that it was not acceptable for women to participate in sport?

A
  • fears were that a woman should not run too fast or jump too high because her uterus might fall out
  • ”weaker” sex needs to conserve their energy
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75
Q

when was the first time women were allowed to compete a the Olympic games? what sport did they compete in?

A

Women competed at Paris, 1900 for the first time, women were allowed to play tennis

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76
Q

what political changes were said to have an impact on women and sport and why?

A
  • Suffragette movement (women winning the vote)
  • Prohibition (importation of alcohol)
  • Person’s Case (1929) (women allowed in the senate)
  • Connection to sport and physical activity?

-because women are now allowed to work in factories and are considered people

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77
Q

Who is Fanny (Bobby) Rosenfeld?

A

-Gold and silver medals in track and field, 1928 -Olympics
-Hockey and softball star
-Journalist at the Globe and Mail
-Named Canada’s female athlete of the half century in 1950
(pretended to be a guy so she could compete)

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78
Q

Celebrated Women’s Teams: Preston Rivulettes

A

women’s hockey team:
348 wins – 2 losses
8 consecutive Ontario championships
6 consecutive national titles

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79
Q

What was the most successful team in Canadian sport history and what did they accomplish?

A 
The Edmonton Grads- women's basket ball team:
502 wins – 20 losses (1915-1940)
18 consecutive Canadian titles
17 consecutive North American titles
Winning streaks of 147 and 78 games
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80
Q

women organizing sport for women: Alice Milliat’s accomplishments

A

-Created an international federation:
Fédération Sportive Féminine Internationale (FSFI)
-Hosted women’s only international games

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81
Q

what was included for women at the 1928 Olympics

A
  • IOC agrees to add women’s track and field events to the program for Amsterdam 1928
  • FSFI fought for 12 events
  • Final IOC program included five events: 100m, 800m, high jump, discus, 4 x 100m relay
  • 12.8% of all Olympic events were for women
  • Women comprised 9.6% of competitors
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82
Q

How did the group “Matchless six” do at the 1928 Olympics?

A
  • gold in high jump (Ethel Catherwood)
  • gold (WR) in 4 x 100 m relay
  • silver (Fanny “Bobbie” Rosenfeld) and bronze (Ethel Smith) in 100m
  • unofficial team points championship
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83
Q

why was the women’s 800m race removed from the Olympics in 1928? when was this reincluded in the Olympics and when was the first women’s marathon?

A
  • Competitors fell to the infield grass, at the conclusion of the 800m
  • Male observers, including Coubertin and Pope Pius (who commented on the event from Rome), were aghast at such “un-feminine” display
  • removed from the Olympic program and women did not run that far again until 1960
  • Women’s marathon refused until 1984
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84
Q

Did the impact created by the inclusion of women in the Olympics last? Why or why not?

A
  • Wartime mobilization (beginning in 1939) closed facilities to women’s teams
  • Post-war reconstruction emphasized household responsibilities
  • Many institutions discontinued girls’ and women’s competitions
  • Example of the first wave’s achievements lost to the next generation
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85
Q

Biomechanics

A

the science that examines the forces acting upon (external) and within (internal) a biological structure and the effects produced by such forces

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86
Q

Biomechanics is an interdiscipline of what 6 disciplines?

A
  • health sciences
  • kinesiology
  • medicine
  • mathematics
  • engineering
  • natural sciences
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87
Q

quantitative analysis

A

Using high-tech instrumentation

Usually intended for researchers

Measuring variables to optimize athletic performance

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88
Q

qualitative analysis

A

Using sight and hearing

Usually done by coaches and teachers
Who typically do not have access to complex equipment or specialized knowledge

To identify and correct errors: “Observe, analyze and correct.”

Requires framework and a set of principles

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89
Q

what is the difference between kinetics and kinematics?

A

Kinematics: without reference to forces causing motion

Kinetics: describing motion in terms of forces that cause it

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90
Q

what is the main focus of kinematics?

A

Focusing on motion’s spatial and timing characteristics

Measurements:
Position
Displacement
Velocity
Acceleration
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91
Q

what is the main focus of kinetics?

A

Internal forces
Muscles pulling on bones
Bone-on-bone, inside joints

External forces acting on the body
Without contact (e.g., gravity)
From contact with ground, opponent or equipment

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92
Q

what are the 3 models that simplify the study of human movements?

A

Particle model
Stick figure model
Rigid body segment model

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93
Q

what is the particle model?

A
  • dots represent the center of mass
  • used when body or object are airborne or in flight
  • ex: projectile motion
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94
Q

what is the stick figure model?

A
  • body segments represented as sticks
  • used when body is in contact with other objects
  • describes gross motor skills in 2D
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95
Q

what is the rigid body segment model?

A
  • body segments=irregular 3D volume
  • used for sophisticated 3D analyses
  • can include shape deformation of body segments
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96
Q

Mass

A
  • Quantity of matter in an object
  • Reluctance of an object to change state of linear motion
  • A measure of linear inertia
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97
Q

Moment of inertia

A
  • Reluctance of rotating object to change state of angular motion (rotation)
  • Depends on mass and its distribution around axis of rotation
How well did you know this?
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Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

gravity

A

-Force of attraction between two bodies
Newton’s Universal Law of Gravitation
E.g., human body and planet earth

99
Q

what is the difference between weight and mass?

A

mass is a measure of inertia (kg) while weight is a measure of the force of gravity (N)

100
Q

what are the 3 types of motion?

A
  • linear motion
  • angular motion
  • general motion
101
Q

what is linear motion?

A

all body parts move the same distance in the same direction at the same time
ex: bobsled

102
Q

what is angular motion?

A
  • body moves on a circular path and rotates around the axis of rotation
  • body segments rotate about their joints
    ex: twisting sumersault
103
Q

what is general motion?

A

body/segments move linearly and rotate at the same time

  • true for most athletic and every day activities
    ex: walking
104
Q

Force

A

is any action, push or pull, that tends to cause an object to change is state of motion by experiencing acceleration

105
Q

What is a lever system?

A

-Mechanical device performing angular motion

Components:
Axis of rotation/fulcrum (aka pivot point)
Lever attached to fulcrum

-Human muscles, bones and joint work together as lever systems

106
Q

how do levers work?

A

Force is applied and if the turning effect of the force is greater than resistance

Then: Rotation at the axis / fulcrum occurs

107
Q

With a longer force arm:
_____ force is needed
_____ torque is produced

A

less, greater

108
Q

what are the 3 types of basic levers?

A
  • first class
  • second class
  • third class
109
Q

what is a first class lever? Give an example.

A

Applied force and resistance on opposite side of axis, at un/equal distance from one another

Example: crowbar

Human body: head flexion

110
Q

what is a second class lever? Give an example.

A

Applied force and resistance on same side of axis; resistance closer to axis

Example: wheelbarrow

Human body - rare: toe raise

111
Q

what is a third class lever? Give an example.

A

Applied force and resistance on same side of axis; force closer to the axis

Example: fishing

Human body – many: forearm flexion

112
Q

Newton’s law of inertia

A

“Objects will not change their state of motion unless acted on by an unbalanced external force”

113
Q

Newton’s law of acceleration

A

“Objects will experience a change in velocity or acceleration proportional to the unbalanced external force”

114
Q

Newton’s law of action-reaction

A

“For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction; forces act in pairs that are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction”

115
Q

what are the 4 different tissue types?

A

epithelial, muscle, connective, nervous

116
Q

To best understand the bio-mechanical characteristics of tissue, we examine its behavior under _______.

A

physical load (force)

117
Q

Elasticity

A

capacity of a tissue to return to its original shape after removal of a load

118
Q

plastic region in the load deformation curve

A

tissue no longer possesses elastic properties

119
Q

ultimate failure in load deformation curve

A

tissue becomes completely unresponsive to loads

120
Q

what does the area under the load deformation curve represent?

A

the strength of the material

121
Q

what does the slope represent in the load deformation curve?

A

stiffness (resistance to deformation) of the material

122
Q

The shape of the load-deformation curve is affected by the ______ properties
The shape of the stress-strain curve is affected by the ______ properties

A

structural, material

123
Q

A training load that is smaller than the elastic limit results in:

A
  • micro-failure and building new tissues

- positive training effect

124
Q

A training load that is bigger than the elastic limit results in:

A
  • permanent failure

- injury

125
Q

Wolff’s law of functional adaptation

A

Cancellous bone is arranged along principal lines of stress

126
Q

4 characteristics of treatment

A
  • Received by patient from a health care professional
  • Promotes healing
  • Improves quality of injured tissue
  • Allows quicker return to activity
127
Q

2 characteristics of rehabilitation

A
  • Therapist’s restoration of injured tissue + patient’s participation
  • Individualized for each person
128
Q

what are the 3 healing phases and their length

A
  • inflammatory response phase (2-4 days)
  • fibroblastic repair phase (hours-6 weeks)
  • maturation-remodeling phase (3 weeks-years)
129
Q

what are the 5 signs of the inflammatory response phase?

A
  • Redness
  • Swelling
  • Pain
  • Increased temperature
  • Loss of function
130
Q

5 treatments of the inflammatory response phase

PRICE treatment

A

-Protect
-Rest
-Cryotherapy
Decreases swelling, bleeding, pain, and spasms
-Compression
Decreases swelling
-Elevation
Decreases swelling

131
Q

3 treatments of the fibroblastic repair phase

A 
-Rehab-specific exercises
        Restore range of motion and strength
-Manual massage therapy and ultrasound
        Help break down scar tissue
-Protective taping and bracing
132
Q

what is the fibroblastic repair phase?

A
  • Repair and scar formation
  • Granulation tissue fills the gap “scab”
  • Collagen fibres are deposited by fibroblasts
  • Inflammatory response seen in phase 1 subsides
133
Q

maturation remodeling phase

A

realignment of scar tissue

134
Q

2 treatments of the maturation remodeling phase

A

-More aggressive stretching and strengthening
organizes the scar tissue along the lines of tensile stress

-Include sport-specific skills and activities

135
Q

one of the best indicators of when it is best to resume play

A

pain

136
Q

what are the 2 ways people tend to mask pain and what are the results of these

A

1) masking with medication
- can result in gastrointestinal complications or addiction

2) continued participation
- pushing injured tissue closer to yield-level point

137
Q

what is a contusion?

A
  • bruise
  • when a compressing force crushes the tissue
  • ex: charley horse
138
Q

what is myositis ossificans?

A

abnormal bone formation resulting from a severe contusion

-can be life threatening if the affected tissue is a vital organ

139
Q

how do we treat a contusion? (PRICE)

A

-Protect
-Rest
-Cryotherapy
Decreases swelling, bleeding, pain, and spasms
-Compression
Decreases swelling
-Elevation
Decreases swelling

140
Q

what is the difference between a strain and a sprain?

A

SPRAIN
Ligament or joint capsule is stretched or torn
STRAIN
Tendon or muscle tissue is stretched or torn

141
Q

characteristics of a grade 1 strain or sprain

A
  • slightly stretched or torn

- few muscle fibres

142
Q

characteristics of a grade 2 sprain or strain

A
  • moderately stretched or torn

- more muscle fibers than grade 1 strain/sprain

143
Q

characteristics of a grade 3 sprain/strain

A
  • Complete rupture
  • Surgery required
  • E.g., ACL tear
144
Q

what are the 5 most common strains?

A

quadriceps, adductors, hip flexors, hamstrings, and rotator cuff

145
Q

what is the most frequently strained muscle?

A

hamstrings

146
Q

a strained hamstring is usually due to what?

A

quadriceps being stronger than the hamstrings

147
Q

most common ankle sprain

A

lateral ankle sprain

-inversion

148
Q

proprioception:

A

ability to sense where your foot is in space

149
Q

what are the 3 ligaments in the ankle that can be sprained? (PAC)

A
  • posterior talofibular ligament
  • anterior talofibular ligament
  • calcaneofibular ligament
150
Q

dislocation

A

High enough forces push the joint beyond its normal anatomical limits

Joint surfaces come apart

151
Q

Subluxation

A
  • When supporting structures (e.g., ligaments) are stretched or torn enough to allow boney surfaces to separate
  • A subluxation is a partial dislocation
152
Q

most common dislocations

A

fingers, followed by shoulders

153
Q

simple fracture

A

stays within the surrounding soft tissue

154
Q

compound fracture

A

protrudes from the skin

155
Q

stress fracture

A

results from repeated low magnitude loads

156
Q

avulsion fracture

A

involves tendon or ligament pulling small chip of bone (more frequent in kids)

157
Q

overuse injuries

A
  • Non-sufficient recovery
  • Repeated and accumulated microtrauma
  • Most common are tendonitis, bursitis, shoulder impingement, and stress fractures
158
Q

overuse injuries result from:

A
  • Poor technique
  • Poor equipment
  • Too much training
  • Type of training
159
Q

tendonitis

A

inflammation of the tendon as a result of a smaller tear in the tendon

160
Q

symptoms of tendinitis (3)

A
  • pain (aggrivated by movement)
  • tenderness
  • stiffness near joint
161
Q

3 main causes of tendonitis

A
  • excessive, repetitive motion
  • age
  • improper technique
162
Q

Tennis elbow (Lateral epicondylitis)

A

Affects forearm extensors

  - Attached to lateral epicondyle
  - Extend wrist and fingers
163
Q

contributing factors to tennis elbow (7)

A
  • Excessive forearm pronation and wrist extensor muscle use
  • Gripping racket too tightly
  • Improper grip
  • Excessive string tension
  • Excessive racket weight
  • Top spins
  • Hitting ball off-center
164
Q

Golfer’s and little league elbow (Medial epicondylitis)

A

Affects tendons of forearm flexors

  - Attach to medial epicondyle
  - Flex wrist and fingers
165
Q

Jumper’s knee (Patellar tendonitis)

A

Affects infrapatellar ligament

166
Q

Jumper’s knee in caused by:

A

Caused by:

  • Repetitive eccentric knee actions
  • Eccentric load during jump preparation&raquo_space;> body weight
167
Q

what are bursae?

A
  • Tiny fluid-filled sacs

- Lubricate and cushion pressure points between bone and tendons

168
Q

What is bursitis?

A

inflammation of the bursae

-results form overuse and stress

169
Q

what are the most common forms of bursitis?

A

shoulder, elbow, and hip

170
Q

what is the difference between a stress fracture and shin splints?

A

Shin splints

  • Pain along medial tibial surface
  • Involves pain and inflammation
  • NO disruption of cortical bone

Stress fracture

  • Results from repeated low-magnitude forces
  • Small disruption of the outer bone layer
  • Weakened bone
  • Cortical bone fracture
171
Q

what is the purpose of philosophical research?

A

-To engage in reflective examination
Ideas and ideals, meanings, lived experiences, values, logical relationships, and arguments

  • To fill in the gaps of empirical methodologies and makes connections
  • To acknowledging and embracing the complexity of ideas
172
Q

what are 5 major disciplines of philosophy?

A

1) Metaphysics
- Study of what is real
2) Epistemology
- Study of knowledge (how we know what we know)
3) Aesthetics
- Study of beauty
4) Ethics
- Study of how we ought to live (how we distinguish right from wrong)
5) Logic
- Study of argument analysis

173
Q

philosophy of sport

A

to think more intentionally, seriously, rigorously, and thoroughly about physical activity and leisure

174
Q

metaphysical dualism

A
  • Clear distinction between the body and the mind

- Separation of our being / existence into 2 substances

175
Q

PA in the dark ages (middle ages)

A

PE was not needed except for to prepare for war

176
Q

scholaticism

A
  • Privileging of mind over body in education
  • Physical activity only to keep the body healthy, not for enjoyment
  • Remains prevalent in Western universities
    - Is there a perceived or actual hierarchy among the degrees offered at the University of Manitoba?
  • Do we see a “harmonious balance of body and mind” ?
177
Q

asceticism

A
  • Privileging of mind over body in religion
  • Self-denial of physical pleasure and indulgence emphasized
  • “Pursuits of the flesh” viewed as detrimental to religious respect
  • At odds with sensory-based belief systems highlighting physical experiences
  • Training of body degraded and ignored, because considered repulsive
  • Damaging to PE and KIN
178
Q

Dualism in medicine

A
  • Disease as mental or physical, not in combination
  • Emphasis on treating the body OR treating the mind, rarely in unison
  • More recent move toward holistic medicine that rejects the dualist separation of mind and body
179
Q

The decline of dualism: the renaissance

A

-Period classified by the shift toward humanism and naturalism ~14 c.

  • Key ideas:
    • Intellectual curiosity
    • Harmonious development and (w)holism
    • “A sound mind in a sound body”

-Attention removed from the divine and placed on human experience

180
Q

realism

A
  • The move toward scientific observation and experimentation
  • Shift from faith to evidence
  • Realization that bodily movement could be studied scientifically
181
Q

PA in the 17th and 18th centuries

A
  • Early precursors to modern ideas about politics, sociology, religion, and education
  • Jean Jacques Rousseau’s contributions against inequality and in favour of holisitic education of mind and body
  • Johann GutsMuth’s innovative physical education system:
    - Taught that growth and development of the body was integral to education
    - Good health promoted through gymnastics-based exercises
    - Physiology and medicine used to promote health through ‘fun’ exercises
182
Q

Lingering implications of dualistic views

A
  • Scientization of sport and leisure
  • Low status in hierarchy of education
  • Fighting the ‘fun’ (negative) and jock stereotypes
  • Emphasis on utility (health and fitness, not play)
  • Name changes reflect these views
183
Q

who were most often drug addicts in the 19th century?

A
  • middle to upper-class women

- doctors/business men accidentally addicted

184
Q

athletes’ use of drugs

A

-Open culture of drug use already present in endurance sports

-E.g. Dorando Pietri– strychnine and atropine in 1908 Olympic marathon
Required help to finish the race
“three times after the doctors had poured stimulants down his throat he was dragged to his feet, and finally was pushed across the line with one man at his back and another holding him by the arm” (New York Times, 25 July 1908)

-Disqualification of “doped athlete” infuriated fans
Indicates no moral opposition to drugs in early Olympic games

185
Q

when did the first drug testing take place in the Olympic games?

A

1967 panam games

186
Q

after the beginning of drug testing before athletic events, what did people use to supplement the use of drugs?

A

dietary supplements

  • ingredients found in food
  • micro and macro nutrients
187
Q

ergogenic aids

A
  • Substances that enhance work output, particularly as it relates to athletic performance
  • Include drugs, dietary supplements, and mechanical aids (fancy socks or running gear that might enhance performance)
  • Common, permitted ergogenic aids: Vitamins and minerals, carbohydrate loading (“Super”- loading of muscle glycogen stores)
188
Q

what are 3 common everyday drugs?

A

1) caffeine
2) nicotine
3) alcohol

189
Q

what are the 2 types of ergogenic aids?

A

1) substances (legal drugs, illegal drugs, nutritional supplements)
2) methods

190
Q

The _________________ maintains a list of banned substances (drugs) and methods (chemical and physical manipulations)

A

World Anti-Doping Agency

191
Q

blood testing begins in the year ____

A

1994

192
Q

what does WADA do?

A

1) Establish a single list of banned substances
2) Coordinate standards to collect/analyze samples
3) Push for unified drug sanctions
4) Promote research
5) Coordinate standards for Random Unannounced Testing (RUT) and Therapeutic Use Exemptions (TUE)

193
Q

What criteria does WADA set to determine if a substance/method belongs on the banned list?

A

1) Enhances performance
2) Causes harm
3) Violates the spirit of sport
(2 of 3 criteria)

194
Q

ways to improve VO2 max without drugs

A

1) Train the muscle
- Optimize muscle condition to utilize oxygen better
- Trained muscle requires less oxygen to produce the same amount of energy = more efficient
2) Improve blood circulation
- Train the heart
3) Improve the capacity of blood to carry oxygen
- Increase RBC concentration / hematocrit

195
Q

what are 5 ways to increase hematocrit?

A

1) blood transfusions
2) Exogenous stimulation of increased RBC production
3) altitude acclimatization
4) supplementation
5) gene therapy

196
Q

what are the only 3 blood boosting methods that are not banned by WADA?

A

1) actual altitude acclimatization
2) simulated altitude acclimatization
3) supplementation with iron

197
Q

Who is Eero Mantyranta?

A

-A Finnish hero
-7 Olympic medals
-Suspected of blood doping
-Cleared after DNA testing of 200 family members showed genetic mutation of erythropoietin receptor (EPOR) gene
-20% higher RBC production
up to 50% increase in oxygen carrying capacity in blood

198
Q

what is movement pedagogy?

A

The method and practice of teaching movement (including physical activity, exercise, and sport)

199
Q

curriculum

A

explains what and why something is to be learned and provides some coherent structure

200
Q

lesson plan

A

structured learning tasks” that “briefly list and describe what is to occur during the lesson or practice

201
Q

what is the historical approach?

A

A discipline-focused approach to education: get people aligned, following directions, listening to authority

Centered around calisthenics for girls and military drill and gymnastics for boys

202
Q

what are the physical health benefits of play?

A
  • Playground structures encourage multiple forms of movement
  • Can promote muscle growth and develop different muscle groups
  • Vigorous play (e.g., running games) can promote cardiovascular health
203
Q

what are the psycho-social benefits of play?

A
  • Doing well in playground games garners children attention, social acceptance, and offers them opportunities to be leaders
  • Children with poor movement competence can often feel lonely, isolated, and excluded
204
Q

what is ethics?

A

Practical Reasoning

  • questions of good, right, duty, obligation, virtue
  • what we should or ought to do in a particular situation with reasons why
205
Q

what are 3 sub-disciplines of ethics that are related PE and Kin?

A
  • Meta-ethics: Specifying the parameters of ethical theories
  • Research ethics: Agreed upon guidelines for the responsible conduct of research
  • Applied ethics: Applying theories of ethics to practical problems
206
Q

what are the 5 different approaches in ethics?

A
  1. The Utilitarian Approach – best consequences
  2. The Rights Approach – intentions and respecting rights
  3. The Fairness/Justice Approach – equal/equitable
  4. The Common Good Approach – community
  5. The Virtue Approach – values
207
Q

utilitarian approach to ethics

A

From John Stuart Mill

“The greatest good for the greatest number”

Based on perceived consequences

The ethical action is the one that causes the most good and does the least harm

208
Q

rights approach to ethics

A

Developed by Immanuel Kant (1724-1804)
The Foundations of the Metaphysics of Morals

Focus is on our duties / intentions

“The ends do not justify the means”

The ethical action is the one that is consistent and respects autonomy

209
Q

the fairness/justice approach to ethics

A

Equality (sameness) and equity (fairness)

Metaphor of veil of ignorance (John Rawls)

Ethical actions treat all human beings equally, or if unequally, then fairly based on a defensible standard

210
Q

common good approach to ethics

A

Based on relationships and contributions to community life

Upholding the social contract

Ethical actions respects community relationships and treats people with compassion

211
Q

virtue approach to ethics

A

4 Ancient virtues: Justice, Wisdom, Courage, Self-control

Why?
A virtuous person will achieve Eudaimonia

The right action is the one that the Virtuous Person would choose

212
Q

standard decision making model of ethics includes:

A
  1. Recognizing an ethical issue
  2. Gathering facts
  3. Evaluating options
  4. Making and testing a decision
  5. Reflecting on outcomes
213
Q

Under what conditions does commercial sport grow and prosper?”

A
  • A market economy
  • Large, densely populated cities
  • Areas with a relatively high standard of living
  • Large amounts of capital
214
Q

what is the difference between professional and amateur sport?

A

Professional sport: privately owned, paid participants

Amateur sport: Managed by governing bodies, volunteer driven

215
Q

sociologist approach to sport

A

Sport sociology studies sports as parts of social and cultural life. For example, why have sports in particular groups been organized in certain ways? And how are sports related to important spheres of social life, such as politics, the economy, family, education, and the media?

216
Q

what are 3 current social issues in sport?

A
  • concussions
  • doping (are people doping using drugs that are less detectable?)
  • gender testing
  • access (training, nutrition, sport science)
  • protests (national anthem)
  • should athletes be held to a higher standard than their peers?
217
Q

social class

A

“categories of people who share a position in society based on a combination of their income, wealth, education, occupation, and social connections”

-is relevant for any sport participation rate in Canada

218
Q

social stratification

A

“persisting patterns of inequality in which certain categories or strata of people repeatedly get more or less of the valued resources in society” (Howard Nixon, sport sociologist)

219
Q

class relations

A

Organized sport requires economic resources

People or institutions that provide these resources do so in a way that reflects and maintains their values and interests.

They have the power to influence the organization of sport and physical activity, not only at the commercial level but also at the grassroots recreational level

220
Q

define sex vs gender

A

Sex: biological aspects of male and female existence: anatomy, physiology, genetics, hormones
-Woman and man are biological markers of chromosomal, chemical, and anatomical different

Gender: the non-biological aspects of difference between women and men; gender performativity
-Masculinity and femininity are social science notions of gender

221
Q

equality

A

refers to ‘sameness’ and treating everyone alike, regardless of conditions

222
Q

equity

A

refers to treating people fairly, and may require unequal treatment of some people to create a fair playing field

223
Q

inclusion

A

goes beyond and equality and equity and involves a culture of respect, tolerance, welcoming, and belonging

224
Q

race

A

a category of people who are regarded as socially distinct because they share genetically transmitted physical traits, such as skin colour or hair colour

225
Q

ethnicity

A

cultural heritage of a particular group of people

226
Q

what athletic games helped to include indigenous people?

A
  • north american indigenous games

- arctic winter games

227
Q

what athletic games helped include homosexual people?

A
  • Gay games 1982

- out games 2006

228
Q

what athletic games helped include older aged people in sport?

A

-world masters games 1985

229
Q

what is intersectionality?

A

overlapping and interdependent systems of disadvantage and discrimination created by interconnected social categories

230
Q

To take positive steps forward, we must first understand the current problems (sociology), where they came from (history), what we can do about them (management), and what ideal solutions might entail (philosophy)

A

(no answer)

231
Q

what is psychology?

A

the scientific study of the human mind and its functions, especially those affecting behaviour in a given context

232
Q

How do we account for the differences in performance between athletes who share similar physiological profiles? (same commitment to nutrition, training, and physical fitness?)

A

1) personality
2) anxiety and performance
3) motivation

233
Q

what differs from the personality of an athlete and that of a non-athlete?

A 
Sport psychology researchers report that compared to non-athletes, athletes are more:
Competitive
Dominant
Self-confident
Achievement oriented
Psychologically well adjusted
Have higher self-esteem
More authoritarian
Persistant
234
Q

arousal

A

physiological state of readiness and psychological activation

235
Q

stress

A

“un-emotional bodily response to some type of stressor” … non-specific response of the body to any demand made upon it

236
Q

anxiety

A

tension and worry that results from distress

237
Q

trait anxiety

A

“personality characteristic that is relatively stable over time, predisposing the individual to be anxious across a wide variety of situations”

238
Q

state anxiety

A

situation-specific anxiety (e.g., sport)

239
Q

cognitive state anxiety

A

psychological component of state anxiety, caused by fear of failure or negative consequences (results in worrying)

240
Q

somatic state anxiety

A

physical component of state anxiety, including perception of physiological responses such as muscular tension, increased heart rate

241
Q

what are 3 things you can do to lower cognitive state anxiety?

A
  • Progressive muscular relaxation (PMR)
    - Controlled breathing in peaceful surroundings, with the focus shifting from one muscle group to another
  • Positive imagery
    - With eyes closed, imagine performing well in the performance environment that is the source of anxiety
  • Positive self-talk
    - Re-assuring oneself with positive thoughts and statements (training oneself to think positively)
242
Q

the negative side of sport psychology

A

The same techniques and interventions can provide insight into uncomfortable questions, connected to over-adherence to the sport ethic

243
Q

why study the psychology of PA?

A

1) Can help us to understand the psychological antecedents of physical activity participation and performance (Adoption, Adherence,Noncompliance)

2) There is a need to understand the psychological consequences of participation
- Reduce negative acute and chronic states
- Promote positive acute and chronic states

244
Q

what is the Strathcona Trust?

A

An endowment of $500,000 in 1909

To “encourage physical and military training in the schools”

PERS 1500 (2 decks)

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