Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SAM > Second exam > Flashcards

Second exam Flashcards

1
Q

What does disruption of nerve roots C6 and C7 lead to?

A

Denervation of the extensors and flexors of the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does the lateral thoracic nerve to the cutaneous trunci muscles exit?

A

C8 and T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What will occur if the lateral thoracic nerve was lost?

A

loss of the panniculus reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does injury to T1 ventral nerve roots often lead to?

A

damage to preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers –> Horner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome?

A

Ptosis, enphthalmos and protrusion of the membrana nictitans

Droopy upper eye lid, backward displacement of the eyeball into orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How would you treat Brachial plexus avulsion?

A

Pred.
Protect limb. Physiotherapy
Amputate if no improvement in 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does MPNST stand for?

A

Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some nerve sheath tumors?

A

Neurofibromas
Neurofibrosarcomas
Schwannomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where do most nerve root or peripheral nerve neoplasia occur?

A

Caudal cervical area - brachial plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is occurring when you see chronic progressive monoparesis with neurogenic muscle atrophy, hyperesthesia and root signature?

A

Nerve root or peripheral nerve neoplasia - MPNST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A history of a slowly progressive monoparesis with root signs is very suggestive of ________

A

Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you make a diagnosis of Nerve root or peripheral nerve neoplasia?

A

Myelograms, CT/MRI identify the site

Histopathology definitive diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How would you treat a nerve root or peripheral nerve neoplasia?

A

Surgical resection - but high rate of recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What kind of emboli are the most common cause of spinal cord injury?

A

Fibrocartilaginous emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do fibrocartilaginous emboli cause in the cord?

A

Ischemic myelopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fibrocartilaginous emboli are most common in

A

Large breed dogs - Irish wolf hounds

and Miniature schnauzers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Clinical signs are developing peracutely, frequently during or after vigorous exercise, its non progressive, non painful, paresis or paralysis occurs and LMN signs, whats going on?

A

Fibrocartilaginous emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How would you diagnose fibrocartilaginous emboli?

A

Signalment, history, clinical signs, CSF (no inflammatory dz)
MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is albuminocytological dissociation?

A

When albumin levels are increased in the CSF but everything else is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How could you treat Fibrocartilaginous emboli?

A

Acutely - Dexamethasone or methylprednisolone succinate
(to reduce edema and inflammation)
There after, supportive therapy. animals will improve on their own
If LMN - phenylpropanolamine, urecholine
If UMN - phenoxybenzamine, prazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Degenerative myelopathy occurs due to

A

Degeneration of axons and their myelin sheaths in the thoracolumbar spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F. Degenerative myelopathy occurs in large breed dogs mainly, aberrant immune responses can be found, its an inflammatory reaction and respond well to immunosuppressive therapy

A

False - its non inflammatory and response to immunosuppressive therapy is poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

You see progressive paresis and ataxia, knuckling, dragging of the toes, crossing of the legs when walking/turning, dysmetria, ataxia of pelvic limbs, muscle atrophy, most commonly in large breed dogs, whats going on?

A

Degenerative myelopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F Urinary and fecal incontinence and pain occur early on in degenerative myelopathy

A

False - they are usually spared until very late in the progression of the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how could you diagnose degenerative myelopathy?

A

Only possible by histopathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

You have a dog present to you with back leg ataxia, you do radiographs and they are normal, normal myelogram, no tumors, no inflammation, no fractures, CSF normal, and normal front legs, what is going on?

A

Degenerative myelopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What gene mutation has been identified and linked to degenerative myelopathy?

A

Superoxide dismutase 1 protein (SOD1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What test could you do to evaluate degenerative myelopathy?

A

Myelin basic protein (MBP) in CSF. usually elevated in this disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do you treat degenerative myelopathy?

A

No treatment! Good nursing and intensive physiotherapy. Euthanasia might be necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What could the instability at the L7/S1 area cause?

A

Spinal cord compression
Proliferation of the interarcuate ligament
Formation of osteophytes on articulation facets
Hansen type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T/F Lumbosacral malarticulation- malformation causes pain and UMN signs in the sciatic and pudendal nerves, the femoral nerve is spared

A

False - causes LMN signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

You have a 7 yr large breed, working dog with lumbosacral pain, has a difficult time rising and negotiating stairs. what is going on?

A

Lumbosacral malarticulation-malformation
Caudal equina syndrome
Lumbosacral stenosis
Spondylolisthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How could you differentiate hip pain from lumbosacral malarticulation-malformation pain?

A

Hyperextension of the tail head (Tail jack) - this is specific for lumbosacral problems as opposed to hip pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why might you see pseudohyperreflexia of the patellar reflex with lumbosacral malarticulation-malformation?

A

The sciatic nerve inhibits the femoral nerves actions, when the sciatic isnt working, it makes it seem as if there is hyperreflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How would you diagnose lymbosacral malarticulation malformation?

A

Myelography 1st - if it doesnt work (cuz the subarachnoid space ends with L6 or cranial edge of L7) do an epidurography.
MRI/CT - best, but too expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How would you treat lumbosacral malarticulation malformation (caudal equina syndrome)

A

Lumbosacral dorsal laminectomy, removal of ligaments and bone putting pressure on the nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F. Surgery (lumbosacral dorsal laminectomy) improves incontinence

A

False - it usually doesnt improve incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

You have a 8 yr old dog, hunched back, flaccid tail, has a hard time getting up, going up stairs, whats the likely cause?

A

Caudal equina syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F. all vertebrae have disks between them

A

False - C1/C2 doesnt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does a disk consist of?

A

Outer fibrous ring (annulus fibrosis)

Inner gelatinous mass (nucleus pulposus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most breeds, replacement of the nucleus pulposus is with _____ as they get older, but in chondrodystrophic dogs, replacement is with ______

A

Fibrocartilage

Hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does dorsal displacement of the nucleus pulposu result in?

A

stretching of the dorsal longitudinal ligaments and spinal cord damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of displacement has an explosive extrusion of nuclear pulposus material into the spinal cord through the annulus fibrosis?

A

Hansen type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What form of disc displacement has small tears appear in the annulus fibrosis, which causes slow protrusion of the nucleus pulposus?

A

Hansen Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T/F. Calcification of disks is common in cats, most often occur in the upper cervical and mid lumbar (L4/L5) areas. Mostly the condition is subclinical but there may be back pain and difficulty in walking?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

There are seldom disc protrusions between T2 and T10 because of the ________ and most occur in the __________ area, between _______, giving _____ signs to the hind limbs

A

Intercapital ligament
Thoracolumbar area
T11-L2
UMN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How could you diagnose Thoracolumbar intervertebral disk disease?

A

Myelography

MRI/CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What grade would you give a dog that has paresis but ambulatory with intervertebral disk disease?

A

Grade 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what will classify a dog grade 3 with intervertebral disk disease?

A

Paresis but non-ambulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What grade will you give a dog that is paralyzed with deep pain sensation intact that has intervertebral disk disease?

A

Grade 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What will classify a dog with Grade 5 that has intervertebral disk disease?

A

Paralysis with loss of deep pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How would you treat Grade 1, 2, 3 dogs with intervertebral disk disease?

A

Strict cage rest for 2 weeks, and 2 weeks after complete resolution of clinical signs.
NSAID/Pred/opioid
Diazepam/methocarbamol - relieve muscle spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How would you treat a dog with Grade 4 of intervertebral disk disease?

A

Dorsolateral hemilaminectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does disruption of nerve roots C8 and T1 lead to?

A

Denervation of the extensors and flexors of the elbow and carpus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How do you treat Grade 5 intervertebral disk disease?

A

Dorsolateral hemilaminecoty or Durotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

50% of dogs will recover post intervertebral disk disease surgery as long as the surgery is performed within ___ hrs of signs developing

A

48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is diskospondylitis?

A

Infection of the cartilaginous endplates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is spondylitis?

A

Vertebral osteomyelitis- infection where only the vertebrae are involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the most common causes of diskospondylitis and how are they usually spread?

A

S. Intermedius, Brucella canis, Streptococcus spp.

usually spread hematogenously (from skin, UTI, endocarditis, mouth, resp tract, orchitis (testes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the most common sites affected with diskospondylitis?

A 
Caudal Cervical (C6-C7)
Mid thoracic (T4-6)
Lumbosacral (L7/S1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What signs will you see on an animal with diskospondylitis?

A

Hyperesthesia, pyrexia, depression, weight loss

UTI, endocarditis, orchitis, epididymitis, infertility, leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How would you treat a dog with diskospondylitis and minimal neurological dysfunction?

A

Analgesics and antibiotics (sensitivity test on blood or urine cultures. FNA/ core needle biopsies if previous two come back neg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What antibiotics are often used and effecting against staphylococcus?

A

Cephalexin
Cephazolin
Cloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How long should antibiotic treatment for diskospondylitis be carried out?

A

until there are no radiographic sings of active infection (disappearance of the lytic focus and bridging of fusion of the vertebrae involved).
Mean duration ~ 54 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How should you treat a dog with diskospondylitys and neurological dysfunction?

A

Hemi-laminectomy to decompress/stabilize

Vertebral currettage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

T/F. prognosis for diskospondylitis is good for both bacterial and fungal infections

A

False - not for fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Spinal neoplasms may be found:

A

Intramedullary / Metastatic intramedullary
Intradural-extramedullary
Extradural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In dogs, most tumors are ______ (50%), the rest are _____(30%) or _____ (10%)

A

Extradural
Intradural-extramedullary
Intramedullary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the most common tumors in dogs and cat?

A 
Vertebral osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
Multiple myeloma
Hemangiosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma or metastases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the most common primary spinal cord tumor in dogs and most frequently found in the thoracolumbar area?

A

Meningiomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the most common spinal cord tumor in cats and mainly occur in the thoracolumbar area?

A

Extradural lymphosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Where do meningiomas most often occur in cats?

A

In the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

‘Root signs’ with slowly progressive neurological deficits should raise a high level of suspicion for

A

Tumors involving the meninges and nerve roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Spinal cord edema is best reduced with

A

20% mannitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

T/F. You could give mannitol IV quickly

A

False- give over 30 mins! vomiting and severe hemolysis may occur if given too rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

King Charles Spaniels and other small breed dogs develop _____ as a result of caudal occipital malformation syndrome (COMS)

A

Syringomyelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What signs will you see with Syringomyelia?

A

Sensitivity to touch on the neck/head/shoulder and scratching at the area, vestibular signs, tetra paresis, torticollis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What four general causes lead to tetraparesis/tetraplegia?

A

Spinal cord lesions between C1 and T2
Muscle and end plate conditions
Neuropathies
Brain conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Hansen type I cervical disk prolapse is seen most commonly in

A

Chondrodystrophic breeds and Poodles

May also occur in large breed dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Where does the Hansen type I disc prolapse usually occur in chondrodystrophic breeds?

A

C3/C4 and between C5 and C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where does Hansen type I disc prolapse usually occur in large breed dogs?

A

C6/C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Hansen Type II cervical disc prolapse at ____ occurs most commonly in Dobermans and Rottweilers

A

C6/C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is Hansen Type II cervical disc prolapse described as?

A

Canine wobbler syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What clinical signs will you with cervical disc disease?

A

Sever neck pain, dogs hold their neck in a fixed position with head down and often yelp in pain following minor movement, may not eat unless bowl is elevated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Neurological deficits due to spinal cord compression are seen in 64% of patients,_____ (less than or more than) the cases with thoracolumbar disk disease

A

Less than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How should you treat cervical disc disease?

A

Cage rest until 2 weeks after all signs have resolved, Pred with diazepam or methocarbamol.
Surgery if cage rest doesn’t work - ventral fenestration/ventral decompression (ventral slot)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is cervical spondylomyelopathy (CSM) also known as?

A

Caudal malformation-malarticulation syndrome

Canine wobbler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What leads to cervical spondylomyelopathy aka Canine wobblers?

A

Congenital stenosis
Hansen type II disk protrusion
Hypertrophy of the ligament flavor
Boney proliferation of articular processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Spinal cord compression occurs because of dorsal displacement of the axis by three potential mechanisms, what are they?

A

1) No dens (most common)
2) Dens fracture, at ossification center btw dens/C2
3) rupture of ligamentous support - dorsal atlanto-axial ligament and/or transverse ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What signs will you see with Atlanta-axial subluxation?

A

Vary, neck pain to tetraplegia (rare as animals die of respiratory paralysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

how would you treat atlanta-axial subluxation?

A

Hemilaminectomy to relieve compression

Wire/screwing vertebra together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

T/F Myopathies are characterized by generalized weakness, exercise intolerance, fatigue, stiff plodding gait, loss of conscious proprioception, sensory function and spinal reflexes

A

False - Conscious proprioception, sensory function and spinal reflexes are usually normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What causes myopathies?

A

Inflammatory - infectious and immune mediate

Degenerative - inherited or acquired 2ndary to systemic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What causes infectious myopathies in dogs?

A 
Toxoplasmosis
Neosporosis
Borrelia burgdorferi
Hepatozoonosis 
Leptospirosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What causes infectious myopathies in cats?

A

Toxoplasma
FeLV
FIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the most common inflammatory myopathy in dogs?

A

Autoimmune polymyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What signs will you see in an animal with autoimmune polymyositis?

A 
Generalized weakness
Stiff gait
Rapid fatigue
Muscle atrophy
muscle pain
Pyrexia
regurgitaion form megaesophagus
Dysphonia/dysphagia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

T/F hypergammaglobulinemia is common with autoimmune polymyositis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How do you diagnose autoimmune polymyositis?

A

Muscle biopsie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How could you treat Autoimmune polymyositis?

A

Immunosuppressive doses of pred (long term) and Azathioprine (used concurrently for its steroid sparing effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What condition is also a common inflammatory myositis, seen mostly in larger breed dogs, under 4 yrs, with inflammation of the muscles of mastication, swollen painful muscles and pain upon opening the mouth

A

Masticatory muscles myositis (MMM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The masticatory muscled contain type ___ fibers against which there is a humoral autoimmune response

A

2M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How would you diagnose masticatory muscle myositis?

A

seroloty or immunohistochemistry of muscle biopsies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How could you treat masticatory muscle myositis?

A

Prednisone with Azathioprine (for its steroid sparing effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Extraocular myositis occurs in ____ dogs especially, but also in other large breed dogs

A

Golden retrievers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Dogs with extra ocular myositis are usually ____ of age, it usually causes bilateral _____, but may also be unilateral

A

6-18 m of age

Exophthalmos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How could you treat extra ocular myositis?

A

oral corticosteroid therapy for a few weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Exertional myopathy is seen in ____ and ____ dogs a day or two after a race

A

Greyhounds and sled dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

T/F With exertional myopathy, serum CK levels are markedly elevated, which causes myonecrosis and inflammation, so treatment with fluids, bicarbonate, analgesics and rest should carried out, which has good prognosis

A

False - most animals die of renal failure despite treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Hypokalemic myopathy occurs in older cats with ____ and excessive ______ loss in the urine

A

Renal disease and excessive K loss in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Hypokalemic myopathy could occur in cats with

A 
Diets deficient in potassium
Acidifying diets
hyperthyroidism
Polyuria
Rarely with Conn's syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What clinical signs will you see on a cat with hypokalemic myopathy?

A

persistent ventroflexion of the neck, stiff stilted gait and resistant to move
No neurological deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is an uncommon and poorly characterized condition in cats that must be differentiated from inflammatory myopathies and hypokalemia?

A

Feline idiopathic inflammatory myopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How could you treat feline idiopathic inflammatory myopathy?

A

Prednisone - may require life long therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

______ refer to myopathies that are inherited, but probably should only refer to those characterized by inherited abnormalities of the cytoskeleton - dystrophin and dystrophin asccoiated proteins

A

Muscular dystrophies - dystrophic myopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is a critical cytoskeletal protein of skeletal and cardiac muscle that serves to maintain membrane integrity

A

Dystrophin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What occurs when there are dystrophin abnormalities?

A

Abnormal muscle contraction (weakness) and muscle cell degeneration, necrosis and fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are large glycoproteins that contribute to the basement membrane of various tissues?

A

alpha 2 laminin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Congenital muscular dystrophy due to alpha 2 laminin deficiency has been described in

A

Domestic short haired cats
Siamese
Maine coon
Brittany springer spaniel cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are the cause of metabolic myopathies?

A 
Hypothyroidism 
Hyperthyroidism in cats
Hyperadrenocorticism 
Various enzyme deficiencies 
Exercise intolerance and collapse (EIC) of labs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the first signs of exercise intolerance and collapse?

A

ataxia, rocking horse gait before the hind limbs become weak, unable to bear weight, and are dragged behind. Forelimbs occasionally affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What protein is important in sustaining neurotransmission during intense exercise with a high level of excitement

A

Dynamin 1- DYNM-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How would you treat an animal with exercise intolerance and collapse?

A

Avoiding intense exercise and excitement.
animals return to normal after 5-25 mins of rest.
Phenobarbital can prevent signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What condition is characterized by sustained depolarization of muscle fibers, has a characteristic sign in dimpling of a muscle after percussion, esp. the tongue, stiff and walk with difficulty

A

Myotonia congenita

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What drugs may alleviate signs of myotonia congenital?

A

Procainamide
Phenotoin
mexiletine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What condition causes fainting goats?

A

Myotonia congenita

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is known as an inflammatory disease of capillary walls in skin and to a lesser extent, muscle, which causes facial dermatitis at 2-6 m followed by weakness and megaesophagus

A

Dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What disease may resolve by 8 m but in some the disease has a chronic waxing/waning course

A

Dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How could you treat dermatomyositis?

A

Pentoxifylline
Prednisone
Vit. E

130
Q

What condition is seen particularly in cats5-8 yrs of age, Abyssinians, Siamese, burmese and have intermittent rippling and twitching of the dorsal skin and muscles with excessive grooming, liking, biting of area, vocalization, growling, hissing, running, aggression

A

Feline hyperesthesia

131
Q

What is feline hyperesthesia thought to be?

A

A degenerative myopathy with secondary autoimmune response

132
Q

T/F. Feline hyperesthesia is non progressive and prognosis is good with treatment

A

false - condition is progressive over one to several years and the prognosis is poor despite treatment with pred, anti-depressents, phenobarb, carnation, coenzyme Q

133
Q

In _____ myastenia gravis, motor end plate nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (AchR) are decreased

A

Congenital

134
Q

In ____ myasthenia gravis there are autoantibodies to the AchR

A

Acquired

135
Q

Acquired myasthenia gravis occurs in

A

Medium to large breed dogs 7 yrs

136
Q

Acquired myasthenia gravis might be focal or generalized, what occurs in focal?

A

No appendicular muscle weakness
Megaesophagus is major sign
Might be facial, pharyngeal or laryngeal muscle weakness

137
Q

There are two forms of generalized myasthenia gravis, what are they?

A

Acute fulminating generalized MG (16%)

Chronic generalized MG (48%)

138
Q

T/F. with acute fulminating generalized MG, there is generalized muscle weakness and can become severe over a few days leaving the animal recumbent and in resp. distress. Resting the animal usually alleviates the weakness

A

False - rest does not alleviate the weakness

139
Q

What would you consider if you see sudden onset of frequent regurgitation of large volumes of fluid due to severe megaesophagus?

A

Acute fulminating generalized myasthenia Gravis

140
Q

What is a common cause of death in an animal with acute fulminating generalized myasthenia gravis

A

Respiratory failure caused by aspiration pneumonia and loss of strength in muscles involved with respiration

141
Q

Animals with chronic generalized myasthenia gravis also have megaesophagus, aspiration pneumonia, facial, pharyngeal, laryngeal muscle weakness, yet how do they differ from acute MG?

A

In half the affected animals, muscle weakness is induced by exercise

142
Q

T/F. Myasthenia gravis is common in cats and seem to have thymomas concurrently

A

False - myasthenia gravis is rare in cats and generalized weakness is most prevalent. 26% of cats have thymomas concurrently

143
Q

How could you diagnose myasthenia gravis?

A

Clinica sings and by detection of AchR antibodies or immune complexes at the motor end plate

144
Q

T/F. The tensilon test (edrophonium- an anticholinesterase agent) can be used to detect the focal form of myasthenia gravis

A

false - does not work with the focal form

145
Q

The tensilon test should reverse exercise induced weakness, yet can cause diarrhea, vomiting and salivation, how could you prevent these side effects?

A

Give atropine before the test (blocking muscarinic receptors)

146
Q

How could you treat myasthenia gravis?

A

Give anti cholinesterase drugs - prolong the action of acetylcholine PYRIDOSTIGMINE

147
Q

What drug would you give in a dog with myasthenia gravis with megaesophagus issues?

A

Neostigmine injection

148
Q

What could neostigmine injections cause and doses must be titrated to avoid these effects?

A

Parasympathetic effects - GI signs, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, depolarizing blockade with resp. arrest

149
Q

Prednisones anti inflammatory effects can improve patients survival with myasthenia gravis, but it can also

A

exacerbate muscle weakness and aspiration pneumonia

150
Q

What other drugs could be considered to suppress the autoimmunity of myasthenia gravis?

A

Azathioprine

Cyclosporine

151
Q

What should you do in dogs with thymomas and not responding well to the myasthenia gravis therapy?

A

thymectomy

152
Q

What toxin blocks acetylcholine release from presynaptic membranes at somatic and autonomic neuromuscular junctions?

A

Botulism - exotoxin from Clostridium botulinum

153
Q

T/F. A definitive diagnosis of botulism is made by demonstrating exotoxin in feces or serum. Polyvalent antisera may help if given early. Neostigmine/physostigmine may help and the animal can develop immunity

A

False- No immunity, all else is true

154
Q

What ticks commonly cause tick paralysis in dogs?

A 
Dermacentor andersoni (Rocky mountain wood tick)
Dermacentor variabilis (American dog tick)
155
Q

How does the Tick neurotoxin work?

A

Blocks conduction of impulses along distal portions of motor nerves or inhibiting presynaptic release of acetylcholine at motor end plates

156
Q

T/F. Not all ticks produce toxins but all dogs are susceptible

A

False- not all dogs are susceptible

157
Q

After the tick has been attached for ___ days, signs develop rapidly and cary from mild paresis to tetraplegia with ___ signs

A

5 days

LMN signs

158
Q

T/F. Cranial nerves, sensation and continence is also lost with tick paralysis

A

False - they are usually spared

159
Q

T/F. Dogs are 300 more sensitive to tetanus than horses and people.

A

False - dogs are 300 times LESS sensitive

160
Q

How does the neurotoxin from clostridium tetani growing in anaerobic wounds, which migrates within the interstitial fluid of peripheral motor neurons to the brain work?

A

They block the input of inhibitory interneurons on spinal motor neurons (similar to strychnine)

161
Q

What signs might you see with tetanus?

A 
Wrinkling of the skin between ears
pricking of the ears
Enophthalmos 
Sardonic grin 
Increased extensor tone -> saw horse stance
162
Q

How could you tell the difference between tetanus and strychnine?

A

Strychnine has a more rapid onset, is made worse by stimulation and may be associated with seizures

163
Q

How would you treat tetanus?

A

Tetanus antitoxin IV
Penicillin/Metronixazole (10 days)
Clean wounds with peroxide
Valium/ace/pentobarb to lessen muscle contractions

164
Q

What should you be aware of when giving tetanus antitoxin?

A

Anaphylaxis may occur - give small amount SC first and monitor for an hr

165
Q

How does the tetanus antitoxin work?

A

binds circulating neurotoxins only, which prevents further signs. Cant do anything about the toxins already in the brain

166
Q

T/F. Cats are more susceptible to tetanus than dogs and develop generalized tetanus

A

False - cats are even more resistant to infection that dogs and may only develop localized tetanus after incubation period of up to 3 weeks

167
Q

Saliva inoculated into dogs with raccoon bites is suspected to cause changes in nerve antigenicity that results in inflammation, degeneration and demyelination of the _____ nerve roots in particular, but also _____ nerves

A

Ventral

Peripheral

168
Q

What signs will you see in Coonhound paralysis?

A

LMN paralysis progressing to tetraplegia and hyporeflexia/hypotonia

169
Q

T/F. Dogs with coonhound paralysis have cranial nerves affected, sensory nerves lost and are incontinent (pudendal nerve affected?

A

False - Cranial nerves are usually spared, as are sensory nerves and pudendal nerve (continent)

170
Q

How is Coonhound paralysis treated?

A

NO definitive treatment,
Supportive therapy
Clinical signs resolve spontaneously in weeks to months

171
Q

What causes protozoal polyradiculoneuritis?

A

Toxoplasmosis may be involved, but more commonly is due to Neospora caninum

172
Q

How are neospora infections usually acquired?

A

Transplacentally

173
Q

What does neospora cause?

A 
Dermatitis
Trigeminal neuropathy
Pneumonia
Necrotizing cerebellitis
Encephalitis with tetraparesis/tetraplegia
174
Q

How would you treat protozoal polyradiculoneuritis?

A

Trimethoprim-sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

of Clindamycin

175
Q

Peripheral vestibular disease occurs with lesions in the vestibular portion of cranial never _____, of the vestibular sensing apparatus in the labyrinth of the ____

A 
VIII
Inner ear (most common)
176
Q

Where do central vestibular disease lesions occur?

A

In the vestibular nuclei in the medullar oblongata

177
Q

What signs will you see with peripheral vestibular disease?

A

No CP deficits or paresis
NO depresssion
Facial nerve paralysis and Horner’s maybe
Nystagmus - Horizontal/rotary (no change with head movement and eyes move together)

178
Q

What signs will you see with central vestibular disease?

A

Tetar or hemiparesis
Depression (RAS)
Other cranial nerves affected
Nystagmus Horizontal/rotary and vertical (can be elicited by head movement and eyes move in different directions)

179
Q

What causes peripheral vestibular disease?

A

Otitis media-interna

180
Q

What causes central vestibular disease?

A

Neoplasia and encephalitis (distemper, FIP) mainly!
Hypothyroidism, metronidazole, aminoglycoside toxicity, RMSF, ehrlichia, cryptococcus, blastomyces, toxoplasma, neosporum, thiamine deficiency, GME, thromboembolism, etc.

181
Q

What could a lack of inhibition of the vestibular nucleus on the side of the lesion in the cerebellum cause?

A

Increased extensor muscle tone on that side of the body and this causes head tilt, circling, falling to the opposite side, mimicking a vestibular lesion on the opposite side.

182
Q

What happens in paradoxical central vestibular syndrome?

A

Animal has proprioceptive deficits on the side of the cerebellar lesion but vestibular signs on the opposite side

183
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

Coordinates motor activity and helps maintain equilibrium and control posture

184
Q

What are the major signs of cerebellar disease?

A

Wide base stance
Truncal ataxia (swaying)
Intention tremor
Dysmetria (inability to properly direct or limit motions)

185
Q

What is hypermetria?

A

Over reaching

186
Q

What may severe lesions in the cerebellum result in?

A

Decerebellate rigidity - opisthotonos
Extended thoracic limbs
Flexed pelvic limbs

187
Q

What do midbrain lesions result in?

A

Decerebrate rigidity - opisthotonos

Extension of all 4 legs

188
Q

What does Schiff Sherrington syndrome result in?

A

Rigid extension of the thoracic limbs with severe spinal cord injuries between T2-L6/7

189
Q

What causes cerebellar hypoplasia in cats?

A

Intrauterine infections with panleukopenia parvovirus

190
Q

How could you treat cerebellar hypoplasia in cats?

A

No treatment, cats could live “normal” lives if mildly affected.
Its non progressive

191
Q

What is responsible for cerebellar hypoplasia in dogs?

A

Parvo virus

192
Q

What is abiotrophy?

A

The premature death of neurons due to disruption of the metabolic processes in the cells

193
Q

What primary tumors may occur in the cerebellum?

A

Medullablastomas

gliomas

194
Q

You have a maltese dog present with tremors in all 4 limbs and head, which get worse with exercise or excitement and resolves when the animal sleeps, what is going on?

A

Shaker dog disease - Corticosteroid responsive tremor syndrome

195
Q

How could you treat shaker dog disease?

A

Glucocorticoids

196
Q

What is a hypertonicity syndrome caused by a deficiency of serotonin inhibitory neurotransmitter and a prostaglandin abnormality probably?

A

Scotty cramp - episodic muscle hypertonicity

197
Q

You have a dog that has its thoracic legs abducted due to exercise and pelvic limbs stiff, facial muscles maybe contracted but no loss of consciousness, what is going on?

A

Scotty cramp - episodic muscle hypertonicity

198
Q

Dogs with Scotty cramp recover in ___ mins or so, the condition is ______ and can be treated with _____

A

10 mins
Non-progressive
Ace and tryptophan

199
Q

What syndrome is seen in Cavalier king charles spaniels which signs begin at 3-7 months after variable periods of exercise, hypertonicity in all 4 legs and consciousness is maintained?

A

Episodic falling

200
Q

What condition is marked by dilatation of the ventricular system in the brain because of reduced absorption or excessive secretion of CSF?

A

Hydrocephalus

201
Q

Most hydrocephalus cases are congenital and occur in toy, small, and brachycephalic breeds, what progressive signs will you see?

A 
Altered metal attitude
slow learners
Seizures
Dilated pupils 
Auditory impairment 
Tetraparesis (circling/head pressing) 
Vetrolateral strabismus
202
Q

What should you be aware of when collecting CSF fluids from an animal with hydrocephalus?

A

May cause herniation

203
Q

What drugs could you use to decrease CSF pressure and temporarily improve hydrocephalus signs?

A 
Prednisone
Dexamethasone
Omeprazole 
Acetazolamide 
Furosemide
204
Q

What are the most common primary brain tumors in dogs?

A

Gliomas

Meningiomas

205
Q

What breeds are predisposed to gliomas?

A

Brachyoceplaic breeds

206
Q

What breeds are predisposed to meningiomas?

A

German Shepherds and Golden retrievers

207
Q

T/F. Primary tumors are more common than secondary brain tumors

A

False - secondary brain tumors are more common

208
Q

What are the common primary brain tumors in cats?

A

Meningiomas (most common)
Lymphomas
Gliomas

209
Q

What signs might you see with cerebrocortical tumors?

A

Contralateral vision and postural reaction deficits

Circling to the affected side

210
Q

What drug may reduced edema around a mass and shrink the tumor, resulting in temporary alleviation of clinical signs?

A

Dexamethasone

211
Q

What should you avoid in patients with increased intracranial pressure?

A 
Volatile anesthetics (cerebral vasodilation and increase brain blood volume/pressure) 
CSF tap - increase pressure gradient
212
Q

What signs will you see on animal with brain herniation?

A

depressed/stuporous mentation, miotic
Non responsive
Slow pupillary light reflexes

213
Q

What drug reduces brain edema and may reverse herniation?

A

Dexamethasone

214
Q

Traumatic neurological dysfunction may occur with no demonstrable brain lesion, known as

A

Concussion

215
Q

A traumatic neurological dysfunction with focal subpial hemorrhage and minimal malacia is known as

A

contusion

216
Q

Do intra or extra cerebral hematomas result in progressive neurological dysfunction hours after the injury?

A

Extra cerebral

217
Q

If you have asymmetry in the menace response, in the nostril stimulation response, or in limb proprioception without other cranial nerve deficits, what does this indicate?

A

Lesion in the contralateral cerebral hemisphere

218
Q

What is Cheyne-strokes respiration?

A

Alternation between hyperventilation and apnea

219
Q

Extensor rigidity is a form of ____ presentation

A

UMN

220
Q

If all 4 limbs are extended and there is opisthotonus and stupor/coma, what hemisphere is involved?

A

both!

Decrebrate rigidity

221
Q

If there is no loss of consciousness and the forelimbs are extended and the rear limbs flexed, where is the lesion?

A

Cerebellum

Decerebellate rigidity

222
Q

When should increased intracranial pressure be suspected?

A

When pupillary light reflexes are abnormal, deterioration of consciousness, extensor rigidity, and abnormal respiratory pattern

223
Q

Miotic pupils suggests

A

Thalamic lesion, this is where the sympathetic innervation begins

224
Q

Transition from mitosis to mydriasis suggests

A

a progressive lesion in the brainstem

225
Q

Bilateral unresponsive mydriasis is usually indicative of

A

Irreversible midbrain damage or cerebellar herniation

226
Q

Unilateral mydriasis can be due to

A

Unilateral cerebellar herniation or Unilateral hemorrhage into the brain stem

227
Q

What induces peripheral or central vestibular signs that may result in the animal rolling continuously?

A

Petrosal bone or internal ear injury

228
Q

What type of fluids should you use in a patent with cranial trauma?

A

Crystalloids - hypertonic saline or hetastarch

229
Q

In animals with cranial trauma, ____ and ___ must be avoided as they induce vasodilation and increases intra cranial pressure!

A

Hypercapnia and Hypoxia

230
Q

If an animal continues to have CNS signs, yet no longer in shock, what can you give to decrease intracranial pressure?

A

Mannitol

231
Q

What could occur is you give more than 3 doses of mannitol in 24 hrs?

A

acute renal failure

232
Q

What drugs should you use to treat seizures?

A

Diazepam
Midazolam
Phenobarbital

233
Q

What drugs and inhalant would you use to perform surgery on an animal with cranial trauma?

A

Short acting barbiturates or propofol

Iso

234
Q

What condition of the brain is marked by sudden recurring attacks of sleep?

A

Narcolepsy

235
Q

Episodes of suddenly falling asleep and loss of muscle tone usually occur with

A

Excitement, especially eating

236
Q

What causes narcolepsy?

A

Due to a mutation in the orexin receptor gene which stops orexin activity - keeps animals awake and stops REM sleep

237
Q

How do you treat narcolepsy?

A

Amphetamines (Methylphenidate-ritalin)

Antidepressants (Imipramine)

238
Q

What causes feline ischemic encephalopathy?

A

Cuterebra larva entering the nasal passages

239
Q

What signs will you see with feline ischemic encephalopathy?

A

Circling, hemiparesis, unilateral blindness, anisocoria, head tilt, behavior changes, seizures

240
Q

How could you treat feline ischemic encephalopathy?

A

Ivermectin to kill parasite
Prednisone
Antihistamine to prevent anaphylactic reaction

241
Q

What form of granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis acts as a slowly enlarging mass causing progressive sings over months?

A

Focal form

242
Q

What form of granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis has an acute onset of multifocal signs which are progressive?

A

Disseminated form

243
Q

Without treatment of granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis, the disease is progressive and fatal after

A

A week (multifocal) to around 4 months (focal)

244
Q

What drugs could you use to treat granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis, which will extend survival times to over a year.

A

Cystosine arabinoside
Cyclosporin
Procarbazine**

245
Q

Neurological signs are seen most commonly with the ___ form of FIP, which occurs in cats with humoral and partial cell mediated immunity

A

Dry form

246
Q

T/F. Dry form of FIP is more common that the wet form

A

False - Dry form is less common

247
Q

Anterior uveitis and chorioretinitis is common with ____ in cats

A

FIP

248
Q

What does Feline leukemia virus occasionally cause?

A

Degenerative myelopathy

249
Q

What is feline polio encephalomyelitis also known as?

A

Staggering disease

250
Q

What does Borna virus cause?

A

Feline polioencephalomyelitis

251
Q

What fatal, progressive disease of domestic and wild cats results from ingestion of infected nervous tissue form cattle infected with BSE?

A

Feline spongiform encephalopathy (FSE)

252
Q

Bacterial meningitis is a rare condition in dogs and cats, it results form _____ spread of bacteria, most often ______

A

Hematogenous spread

S. intermedius

253
Q

A young dog, less than 2 yrs old has peripheral neutrophilic, CSF has increased protein and neutrophilic pleocytosis, elevated IgA in serum and CSF, what is most likely going on?

A

Steroid responsive meningitis arteritis

254
Q

How do you treat meningitis arteritis?

A

Prednisone

Azathioprine

255
Q

How could you differentiate bacterial meningitis from meningitis arteritis?

A

Elevated IgA in serum and CSF with meningitis arteritis

256
Q

What is protothecosis?

A

algal infection of the brain - very rare

257
Q

What condition is associated with degeneration of neurons in sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia and dysfuction of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Dysautonomia

258
Q

What causes dysautonomia?

A

Toxicoinfection with Clostridium botulinum type C

259
Q

What are the main clinical signs with dysautonomia?

A

anorexia, weight loss, obtunded, parasympathetic dysfunction, mydriasis, prolapsed third eyelid, reduced lacrimal secretions, regurgitation, constipation

260
Q

How do you treat dysautonomia?

A

No specific treatment

261
Q

What are the three types of deafness?

A

1) conductive
2) central
3) sensorineural

262
Q

What type of deafness is a result from conditions such as chronic otitis externa/media which prevent sound being transmitted to the inner ear

A

Conductive deafness

263
Q

What type of deafness is generally associated with brain stem lesions?

A

Central deafness - damage to central auditory pathways

264
Q

What type of deafness results from congenital or acquired abnormalities of the cochlear?

A

Sensorineural deafness

265
Q

Congenital sensorineural deafness occurs in 80 breeds, especially in which one?

A

Dalmatians
English cocker spaniel
English setter
Bull terrier

266
Q

What is sensorineural deafness usually associated with?

A

Pigment associated with white, merle and piebald dogs

267
Q

Congenital deafness is most common in

A

Dalmatians

268
Q

Cats with ____ coats and ___ eyes are frequently deaf

A

White

Blue

269
Q

What drugs affect the vestibular system, which might cause deafness

A

Streptomycin

Gentamicin

270
Q

What drug has most effect on the auditory receptors

A

neomycin

271
Q

What are some ototoxic antibiotics

A

polymyxin B

Chloramphenical

272
Q

What antiseptic solutions are ototoxic?

A

Iodine
Iodophores
Chlorhexidine

273
Q

T/F. Chlorhexidine 0.2% is safe to use in dogs with perforated tympanic membranes

A

True

274
Q

What agents used in otic preparations cause ototoxicity

A

Propylene glycol
Ceruminolytic agents
Detergents

275
Q

Acquired sensorineural deafness is also associated with

A

normal aging - Presbycusis (atrophy of neurons of the cochlear)

276
Q

How can you diagnose a deaf animal?

A

Evaluation of brainstem auditory evoked potentials (BAEP)

277
Q

____ is a disease condition characterized by recurrent partial or generalized seizures

A

Epilepsy

278
Q

What causes primary or idiopathic epilepsy?

A

Unknown cause

279
Q

What cause secondary or symptomatic epilepsy?

A

intracranial or extracranial disease

280
Q

What causes partial or focal seizures?

A

post traumatic lesions
Space occupying lesions
Cortical developmental disorders

281
Q

What are the most common seizures that are caused by a lesion in the motor cortex resulting in brief episodes of abnormal movement in the contralateral body part - jerking of one or both limbs, chewing gum fits, flexing to one side of the body, head turning, head bobbing.

A

Partial motor seizures

282
Q

T/F. Partial motor seizures, such as head bobbing, might be stopped by distracting the dog, cause of them are unknown, and diagnosis is based on MRI or CSF tap

A

False - Diagnosis is based on clinical signs as there are no laboratory, MRI or CSF abnormalities

283
Q

What type of seizures are due to foci in the sensory cortex and dogs show signs of “fly-bitting” or tail chasing

A

Partial sensory seizures

284
Q

T/F. You could treat partial motor seizures and partial sensory seizures with anticonvulsants

A

False - There is no treatment for partial motor seizures

285
Q

What type of generalized seizures are there?

A

Generalized tonic-clonic seizure (Grand mal)
Tonic seizures
Clonic seizures
Atonic seizures - no muscular activity but conscious
Absence seizures - unconscious with not tonic/clonic phase

286
Q

What are the most frequently observed seizures in vet med?

A

Generalized tonic-clonic seizures

287
Q

What do generalized tonic clonic seizures often start with before the actual convulsion?

A

Preictal phase (aura - mins or prodromal - hrs)

288
Q

What is the actual seizure itself phase called?

A

Ictal period or ictus

289
Q

What phase follows the Ictal period?

A

Tonic phase

290
Q

How is the tonic phase characterized?

A

Lasts for 10-30 mins, widespread sustained muscle contractions - limbs extended rigidly, opisthotonos, apnea and cyanosis

291
Q

What follows the tonic phase?

A

Clonic phase

292
Q

What occurs during the clonic phase?

A

Limb movement, alternating contraction and relaxation of the body musculature. Animals appear to be running/paddling/chewing gum

293
Q

In what seizure phase will you see signs of autonomic involvement, including pupillary dilation, salivation, defecation and urination.

A

Clonic

294
Q

What phase occurs after the clonic phase?

A

Postictal period

295
Q

What signs will you see in the postictal period?

A

Gradual return to consciousness with varying degrees of depression, fatigue, fright, dazed, aimless pacing, thirst, hunger

296
Q

T/F. the duration of postictal depression correlates with the severity or duration of seizures

A

false - the duration of postictal depression does not correlate with severity or duration of seizures

297
Q

What is it called where a continuous seizure lasts for longer than 5 mins or where there are serial seizures between which there is not a full return to consciousness

A

status epilepticus

298
Q

What is the probably the most important cause of seizures in general practice?

A

Toxicity

299
Q

a history of neurological abnormalities - changes in personality and behavior, circling, unilateral proprioceptive defects - strongly suggests

A

intracranial disease

300
Q

What tests should you run on animals presenting for seizures?

A 
Physical / neurological exam
Full blood count
Biochemical profile 
UA
CT/MRI
CSF
301
Q

T/F.In all cases of primary or idiopathic epilepsy, CSF findings will come out abnormal

A

False - CSF is normal in primary epilepsy

302
Q

If you have increased proteins and white cells in the CSF, what is that indicative of?

A

inflammation

303
Q

If you have increased proteins in the CSF, what is that indicative of?

A

Neoplasia

304
Q

When starting pets on anticonvulsant therapy, what should you inform the owners with?

A

30-40% of animals will be free of seizures
50% will have reduction in the number of seizures
Should prepare to give medications for life

305
Q

What is the goal of anticonvulsant therapy

A

Reduce the frequency, duration or severity of seizures without intolerable side effects

306
Q

What is the drug of choice for seizures?

A

phenobarbital

307
Q

How does phenobarbital work?

A

Enhances GABA action and inhibits spread of seizures activity and elevates seizure threshold

308
Q

When do you not want to use phenobarb?

A

Liver disease

309
Q

Hyperactivity may be seen with low serum phenobarbital levels, how could you get rid of this?

A

increasing the dose

310
Q

What long term side effects will you see with phenobarb?

A 
Polyphagia
PU/PD
Elevated ALP/ALT
Lipemia --> pancreatitis 
Decreased TT4/FT4
311
Q

What does phenobarb induce? What does that mean?

A

cytochrome P450 - it enhances its own metabolism, so lower serum levels (may continue for 6 months)

312
Q

How would you be able to tell if phenobarb is causing hepatotoxicity if it normally increases ALP/ALT and can’t use those as indicators?

A

Increase in bile acids and bilirubin
Larger increase in ALT over ALP
Phenobarb levels elevated (liver not working)

313
Q

Dogs on phenobarb have very similar clinical and laboratory signs to dogs with

A

Hyperadrenocorticism, but adrenal function tests are normal

314
Q

when should you measure phenobarb levels fort the first time?

A

At three weeks

315
Q

T/F. Bilirubin, albumin, cholesterol, GGT, fasting bile acid levels, liver appearance by ultrasound and histopathology, and adrenal function test should remain normal when on phenobarn

A

True

316
Q

Why should you not use vacationer tubes that contain separator?

A

Its silicone absorbes penobarb, which leads to falsely low levels –> incorrect increase

317
Q

What should you be aware of when giving potassium bromide?

A

Chloride competes with bromide for reabsorption in the kidney, so high dietary levels of chloride (salty food) will increase bromide excretion and if low salty foods, increase in bromide levels will occur

318
Q

How could you treat Bromism toxicity?

A

Give high chloride diets/furosemide

319
Q

When should you not use bromide?

A

renal insufficiency

320
Q

If dogs aren’t responding to phenobarb and KBr, what other drug could you use?

A

Imepitoin (Pexion)

321
Q

What is the order of drugs you should use for seizures?

A 
Phenobarb
Imepitoin
KBR
Levetiracetam (KEPPRA)
Zonisamide (ZONEGRAN)

SAM (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions