SEC+ Flashcards
1
Q
What are the Two types of commonly referenced network security?
A
- Information Security
- Information Systems Security
2
Q
What are the The CIA Triad + two?
A
Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability, + Authentication & Non-repudiation
3
Q
What is the AAA of Radius?
A
Authentication, Accounting, and Authorization
4
Q
What measures or mechanisms are put in place to mitigate risks and protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information systems and data?
A
Security Controls
5
Q
What are the four categories that Security Controls are grouped with?
A
1.Technical
2.Managerial
3.Operational
4.Physical
6
Q
What are the six different types of security controls?
A
1.Preventative
2.Detective
3.Compensation
4.Deterrent
5.Corrective
6.Directive
7
Q
What is the security model that operates on the principle that no one, whether inside or outside the organization should be trusted by default?
A
Zero Trust
8
Q
What plane consists of the adaptive identity, threat scope reduction, policy-driven access control, and secured zones?
A
Control Plane
9
Q
What plane is focused on the subject/system, policy engine, policy administrator, and establishing policy enforcement points?
A
Data Plane
10
Q
What is considered a threat in Cyber security?
A
Anything that can cause harm, loss, damage, or compromise IT systems
11
Q
Finding different ways to minimize the likelihood of an outcome occurring and achieving the desired outcomes is referred to as ___________.
A
Risk Management
12
Q
What two conditions must exist at the same time to be considered a RISK?
A
Threat and Vulnerability
13
Q
What element of backup strategy involves making data copies regularly at set intervals?
A
Frequency
14
Q
When a tech company wants to partner with a vendor, what should they look for to verify security is met to their internal cyber security standards?
A
Evidence of internal audits
15
Q
What encryption standard uses one key to encrypt and decrypt?
A
Symmetric encryption
16
Q
Symmetric encryption is also called ______.
A
Secret Key
17
Q
What is a method in cryptography by which cryptographic keys are exchanged between two parties, allowing use of a cryptographic algorithm?
A
Key exchange
18
Q
What encryption standard uses two keys instead of one?
A
Asymmetric encryption
19
Q
What is the process of using a public key from a public/private key pair to encrypt plaintext, and then using the corresponding private key to decrypt the ciphertext?
A
Asymmetric encryption
20
Q
What does DAC stand for?
A
Discretionary access control
21
Q
What is Discretionary access control (DAC)?
A
is an authorization model where the owner of the resource decides who is allowed to access it.
22
Q
What does MAC stand for?
A
Mandatory Access Control
23
Q
What is Mandatory Access Control (MAC) for?
A
is an authorization model where access to resources is determined by a set of rules defined by a central authority.
24
Q
Where is MAC most commonly used?
A
Large organizations, government and military settings
25
What does RBAC stand for?
Role Based Access Control
26
What is RBAC?
Is an authorization model that assigns permissions to roles, rather than individual users.
Ex. Accountants have access to financial docs, but not personal HR docs.
27
What does ABAC stand for?
Attribute Based Access Control
28
What is ABAC?
* It determines access through a combination of contexts and system wide attributes.
* It sets sets and enforces policies based on characteristics, such as department, location, manager, and time of day.
29
What asymmetric encryption technique provides a comparable level of security with shorter key lengths, making it efficient for cryptographic operations?
ECC
30
What is ECC?
A asymmetric encryption technique that is a type of trapdoor function and is efficient with shorter key lengths.
31
What does ECC stand for?
Elliptic curve cryptography
32
What does DSA stand for?
Digital Signature Algorithm
33
What is Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA)?
is an algorithm used for digital signatures, but it doesn't inherently offer the same efficiency in terms of key length as ECC.
34
What is RSA?
a type of asymmetric encryption, which uses two different but linked keys. Longer keys needed than ECC.
35
What is Diffie-Hellman (DH) key exchange?
a mathematical method of securely exchanging cryptographic keys over a public channel
36
Is RSA symmetric or asymmetric
Asymmetric
37
Is ECC symmetric or asymmetric?
asymmetric
38
Is DSA symmetric or asymmetric?
asymmetric
39
What is a method of encrypting or signing data with two different keys and making one of the keys available for anyone to use?
Public Key
40
When sending an encrypted message to Facebook, a client would use which of the following to ensure only Facebook can decrypt and read the message?
Public Key
41
What is also known as a secret key?
Private key
42
What keys should be shared only with the key's generator or parties authorized to decrypt the data?
Private keys
43
what is Key escrow?
refers to the secure storage of cryptographic keys, ensuring they can be accessed under specific conditions
44
Can key escrows encrypt or decrypt?
No
45
What is a private key used for?
It is kept secret by its holder and is used to decrypt messages that are encrypted with its corresponding public key
46
What secures multiple subdomains under a main domain but doesn't directly involve message encryption or decryption?
wildcard certificate
47
What is a function that is easy to perform one way, but has a secret that is required to perform the inverse calculation efficiently?
Trap Door
48
When considering the RSA algorithm, what best captures its underlying mathematical property used for public key cryptography?
Trap Door
49
What Encryption standard relies on the trap door function for its efficiency?
RSA encryption
50
What is a Hash function?
It is a mathematical algorithm that takes a variable number of characters called a ”message”, and converts it into a string with a fixed number of characters called a hash
51
What feature produced by a SIEM can provide insight into system and process behaviors?
Event Logs
52
What is a process of understanding and mapping potential threats but doesn't validate vulnerability remediation?
Threat modeling
53
What vulnerability is present in a situation where a threat actor can manipulate data after it has been verified by an application, but before the application uses it for a specific operation?
Time-of-check (TOC)
54
What is Time-of-check (TOC)
is a software bug caused by a race condition involving the checking of the state of a part of a system (such as a security credential) and the use of the results of that check.
55
What is a Race Condition vulnerability?
is a software bug that allows these unexpected results to be exploited by malicious entities.
56
What vulnerability occurs when an attacker exploits the time gap between the verification of data and its use, potentially leading to unauthorized or malicious activities?
TOC (Time-of-Check)
57
______ are when a program doesn't release memory that it no longer needs, leading to potential system slowdowns or crashes.
Memory Leaks
58
What refers to the overuse of system resources, be it CPU time, memory, or others, which can lead to denial of service?
Resource Exhaustion
59
Which cyber security attacker is likely to accidentally cause harm to the system?
Shadow IT
60
What is the use of IT-related hardware or software by a department or individual without the knowledge of the IT or security group within the organization?
Shadow IT
61
Which layer of the OSI model is an network appliance primarily operating at when it focuses on filtering traffic based on source and destination IP addresses, and port numbers?
Layer 4
62
What does XSS stand for?
Cross Site Scripting (XSS)
63
What attacks are a type of injection, in which malicious scripts are injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites?
XSS
64
What attack occurs when the amount of data in the buffer exceeds its storage capacity?
Buffer Overflow attack
65
What is the practice of installing mobile apps on a device that are not from the official app stores?
Sideloading
66
What are a type of vulnerability that arises when the interaction between users and cloud services through interfaces and APIs is not secure, exposing systems to potential unauthorized access and manipulation of data?
Insecure Interfaces and APIs
67
What is Port 21? Is it UDP or TCP?
FTP (File Transfer Protocol)- used to transfer files from host to host. TCP
68
What Port number uses SSH to provide a secure remote terminal access? UDP or TCP?
Port 22, TCP
69
What Port number uses SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) to provide secure copy functions? TCP or UDP?
Port 22, TCP
70
What port number provides secure file transfers? TCP or UDP?
Port 22, TCP
71
What port Provides Insecure remote control of another machine using a text-based environment and is Unencrypted?
Telnet
72
What port number is telnet? TCP or UDP?
23, TCP
73
What does port number 25 provide? TCP or UDP?
Provides the ability to send emails over the network. TCP
74
What port is SMTP?
25
75
What port translates domain names into IP addresses? TCP or UDP?
Port 53, Both TCP and UDP
76
What port does DNS operate under? TCP or UDP?
Port 53
77
What port is used as a lightweight file transfer method for sending configuration files or network booting of an operating system? TCP or UDP?
Port 69, UDP
78
What port number is TFTP and what does it stand for?
Trivial File Transfer Protocol, Port 69
79
What is the Hyper Text Transfer Protocol used for? What port does it use?
Port 80, Insecure web browsing
80
What port number is used for HTTP? TCP or UDP?
Port 80, TCP
81
What Port number does Kerberos operate in? UDP or TCP?
Port 88, UDP
82
What is keberos used for?
It is a network authentication tool
83
What is POP3 responsible for?
Responsible for retrieving email from a server
84
What port number does POP3 use? UDP or TCP?,
110, TCP
85
What does POP3 stand for?
Post Office Protocol Version 3
86
What protocol is used for accessing new groups?
NNTP (Network News Transfer Protocol)
87
What port number does Network News Transfer Protocol use and is it TCP or UDP?
Port 119, TCP
88
Which port facilitates communication between different system processes? TCP or UDP?
Port 135, Both TCP & UDP
89
What three ports are used in NetBIOS?
137, 138, and 139
90
What does ports 137, 138, and 139 provide? TCP or UDP?
NetBIOS, a network protocol suite, Both TCP & UDP
91
Which port allows access to email messages on a server?
Port 143
92
What does IMAP stand for?
Internet Message Access Protocol
93
What does port 143 provide? TCP or UDP?
IMAP, TCP
94
What port does SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) work on?
Port 161
95
What does port 161 provide? TCP or UDP?
SNMP, UDP
96
What does SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) allow the user to do?
Manage network devices
97
What port would a SNMP Trap use to send its message? TCP or UDP?
Port 162, UDP
98
What does Port 162 provide and what is it responsible for?
SMNP Trap, sending SNMP Trap messages
99
What is Port 389 for? TCP or UDP?
LDAP, TCP
100
What port does the Light Weight Directory Access Protocol use and what is it for?
Port 389, facilitates directory services
101
What port does secure web browsing use?
443
102
What type of web browsing protocol usually utilizes the certificate system and provides a lock icon in the search bar if the website is recognized as secure?
HTTPS
103
Which port provides secure web communication and is it TCP or UDP?
Port 443, TCP
104
What Port number is used for file and printer sharing over a network? What is it called?
Port 445, SMB Secure Message Block
105
Secure Message block uses what port number? TCP or UDP?
Port 445, TCP
106
What provides secure SMTP communication?
SMTPS (SMTP Secure)
107
What port numbers use SMTPS? UDP or TCP?
465, 587 TCP
108
What does port 465 and 587 provide?
SMTPS
109
What is Syslog used for in a cybersecurity environment?
Used for sending Log messages
110
What port number does SYSlog operate through? TCP or UDP?
514, UDP
111
What is Port number 514 used for?
Syslog
112
What is the acronym used for a secure version of LDAP communication sent over SSL/TLS?
LDAPS (LDAP Secure)
113
What Port number does LDAPS use? TCP or UDP?
Port 636, TCP
114
What protocol is used for secure email retrieval over TLS/SSL?
IMAPS
115
What port number does IMAPS utizilize? TCP or UDP?
993, TCP
116
What is the acronym for "Internet Message Access Protocol over SSL/TLS"?
IMAPS
117
What is POP3S (POP3 over SSL/TLS) used for?
Used for secure email retrieval
118
What is the secure version of POP3? TCP or UDP?
POP3S, TCP
119
What Port number does POP3S utilize?
995
120
What port number would be used to facilitate communication with Microsoft SQL Server? TCP or UDP?
Port 1433, TCP
121
RADIUS TCP, used for remote authentication, authorization, and accounting, uses which ports?
1645 and 1646
122
What protocol is used for remote authentication, authentication, authorization, and accounting? TCP or UDP?
RADIUS TCP, TCP
123
What protocol is used for authentication and accounting as defined by the internet engineering task force (IETF)? TCP or UDP?
RADIUS UDP, UDP
124
What Port Number is used by RADIUS UDP?
Ports 1812 and 1813
125
What protocol uses ports 1812 and 1813?
RADIUS UDP
126
What protocol allows for remote desktop access?
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
127
What port does RDP utilize? TCP or UDP?
Port 3389, TCP
128
What protocol does Port 3389 provide?
RDP
129
What is used in a secure syslog that uses SSL/TLS to encrypt the IP packets using a certificate before sending them across the IP network to the syslog collector?
Syslog TLS
130
What does Port number 6514 provide? TCP or UDP?
Syslog TLS, TCP
131
What port number does Syslog TLS use?
Port 6514
132
What network security and connectivity framework integrates network security and wide area networking into a cloud-based service?
SASE
133
What does SASE stand for?
Secure access service edge
134
What system prioritizes performance, sometimes at the expense of security features like buffer overflow protections, potentially leaving the system susceptible to certain attacks?
RTOS, real-time operating system
135
When considering user interactions with a web service, what are the security measures that involve the secure creation and transfer of identifiers as well as enforcing inactivity limits to prevent unauthorized access?
Session management
136
What policy contributes to the practice of defining when an inactive session should end, but does not include the secure transmission and generation of identifiers?
Time Out Policy
137
An attacker entered a lot of data into the the area of memory in the API that temporarily stores user input. What type of attack was used?
Buffer Overflow
138
___________ NACs use additional software to authenticate users
Agent based
139
__________ NACs use network level protocols to authenticate users.
Agentless
140
What characteristic of a cloud architecture model describes a model that can quickly recover from failures due to adverse conditions?
Resilience
141
What is a level of uncertainty and impact from risk below which an organization an organization will accept a risk and above which an organization will not accept a risk?
Risk Threshold
142
What is the amount of loss an investor is prepared to handle while making an investment decision?
Risk Tolerance
143
What is the term to refer to the specific laws and regulations set by a country's government that dictate how the personal data of its citizens should be collected, stored, and processed?
National legal implications
144
A network appliance capable of filtering traffic based on URL, HTTP headers, and specific web application functionalities operates at which layer of the OSI model?
Layer 7
145
A ___________ is an individual or entity that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data.
Data Controller
146
What mitigation technique can help protect a device from unauthorized network traffic solely by using software that can control network traffic based on predefined rules and policies?
A Host-based Firewall
147
What term emphasizes the mathematical structure used to scramble data so that only a specific key can unscramble it?
Encryption algorithm
148
A security analyst wants to implement a system that will selectively block or allow traffic based on the nature of the communication. Which firewall type would be MOST effective for this purpose?
Layer 7 Firewall
149
What refers to the unique characteristics of an organization's infrastructure that can affect vulnerability assessments and risk analysis?
Environmental Variables
150
A network protocol developed by Cisco for collecting IP traffic information and monitoring network flow is known as what?
NetFlow
151
What feature was introduced on Cisco routers around 1996 that provides the ability to collect IP network traffic as it enters or exits an interface?
NetFlow
152
What protocol superseded NetFlow by providing the same services, but for all network devices as open source instead of the proprietary version offered by Cisco?
IPFIX
Internet Protocol Flow Information eXport
153
What does IaC stand for?
Infrastructure as Code
154
What is IaC?
is the embedding of consistent, scalable cloud security coverage. helps detect misconfiguration in code early in software development life cycle to prevent vulnerabilities at runtime.
155
What describes an approach where the foundational systems are set up and overseen using scripts and automated instruments instead of hands-on methods?
IaC
156
What does RTOS stand for?
Real Time Operating System
157
What is RTOS mainly used for?
Autmomation of time sensitive machines like automotive vehicle creation machinery
158
What type of risk sets a specific maximum amount of risk that can be accepted; a financial or quantitative boundary?
Risk Limit
159
A point at which risk becomes unacceptable or needs action; a decision-making cutoff is known as what?
Risk Threshold
160
The overall willingness to accept risk in pursuit of objectives is known as?
Risk Tolerance
161
The degree of risk based on likelihood and impact; used for prioritization and risk assessment is known as what?
Risk Level
162
What refers to the process of formally validating and verifying certain aspects of a system, process, or set of controls?
Attestation
163
The admin wants to implement a system that will selectively block or allow traffic based on the nature of the communication. What layer firewall should be used?
Layer 7
164
What describes a cloud model that can quickly recover from failures due to adverse conditions?
Resilience
165
What is a Buffer Overflow?
occurs when data exceeds the boundary of a fixed-size buffer and overwrites adjacent memory.
166
What effects can be caused by a buffer overflow attack?
This can lead to unexpected behavior, crashes, or security vulnerabilities
167
What is a Memory Leak?
A memory leak occurs when a program allocates memory but fails to release it back to the system after use. This causes the memory to be wasted and unavailable for other processes.
168
What can lead to increased memory usage, reduced system performance, or application crashes due to failing to release memory resources back to the system after use?
Memory leaks
169
Periodic evaluations, like ______ _________, are a managerial security control that involves regularly evaluating the threats to systems and networks.
Risk Assessments
170
What is an example of a managerial security control that the company could implement?
Risk Assessments
171
What is the process of identifying and fixing security vulnerabilities in software, firmware, and operating systems to prevent potential exploits?
Patching
172
A network appliance capable of filtering traffic based on URL, HTTP headers, and specific web application functionalities operates at which layer of OSI?
Layer 7
173
What are the layers of the OSI model?
Physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
174
What is needed to complete the authentication process used in WPA2 Personal mode?
Password to generate PMK (Pairwise Master Key)
175
What is the individual or entity that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data?
Data Controller
176
What is an individual or entity that processes personal data on behalf of the data controller, without deciding the purposes or means of the processing?
Data Processor
177
Who is typically responsible for ensuring the safety and maintenance of data assets through its various stages of storage, but doesn't decide on processing methods?
Data Custodian
178
What term refers to a critical predictive metric that organizations monitor to foresee potential risks and their impact on operations?
Key risk indicators
179
What are specific variables used within risk assessment processes, not predictive indicators?
Risk parameters
180
What term emphasizes the mathematical structure used to scramble data so that only a specific key can unscramble it?
Encryption algorithm
181
What does TCO stand for?
Total cost of ownership
182
What term not only includes the initial purchase price of the tool but also the ongoing expenses related to maintenance, updates, and other associated costs over its lifecycle?
TCO Total cost of ownership
183
What term refers to the effectiveness and productivity of operations but doesn't directly address the financial impact of a tool over its lifecycle?
Operational Efficiency
184
What does CAPEX stand for?
Capital Expenditure
185
What term pertains to the initial costs to purchase the asset or tool, not the ongoing or total costs throughout its lifecycle?
CAPEX, Capital Expenditure
186
What term evaluates the profitability or benefit of a particular investment, it doesn't primarily focus on the entire financial impact over a tool's lifecycle?
ROI (Return on Investment)
187
What does DMARC stand for?
Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance
188
What uses the results of DKIM and SPF checks, but on its own, it doesn't cryptographically sign emails?
DMARC
189
What does DKIM stand for?
DomainKeys Identified Mail
190
What does SPF stand for?
Sender Policy Framework
191
What is valuable in identifying which servers are authorized to send emails on behalf of a domain?
SPF (Send Policy Framework)
192
What standard is for sending emails, but it doesn't inherently provide a cryptographic signing mechanism for email authenticity?
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
193
True or False
SNMP ensures secure communication among software applications and allows security analysts to monitor these communications.
False
194
True or False
SNMP allows network administrators to monitor network performance, find and solve network problems, and plan for network growth.
True
195
Which metric specifies whether an attack can be executed solely by the attacker or if it necessitates user involvement to succeed?
User Interaction (UI)
196
Which metric measures the level of privileges an attacker must have to exploit the vulnerability, not user interaction?
Privileges Required (PR)
197
What term specifies the context of an exploit, like local or network-based, rather than user involvement?
AV (Attack Vector)
198
Which metric describes the conditions that must be met for an exploit to work but doesn't revolve around user behavior?
AC (Attack Complexity)
199
What is a free and open industry standard for assessing the severity of computer system security vulnerabilities?
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)
200
During a digital investigation, which phase has the goal to obtain data in a way that doesn't alter the original evidence?
acquisition phase
201
During a digital investigation, which phase is responsible for ensuring the integrity and authenticity of digital evidence?
Chain of Custody
202
Searching through electronic records to identify relevant emails for a court case is an example of which phase during a digital investigation?
E-discovery
203
Which of the architecture models involves creating multiple instances of a system to handle increased demand?
Scalability
204
Which of the architecture models involves ensuring that a system or service responds quickly and efficiently to user requests or inputs?
Responsiveness
205
Which of the architecture models refers to the simplicity and speed of launching a system or service into production which is an important consideration for designing and deploying applications and systems?
Ease of deployment
206
What method involves packaging an application and its dependencies into a lightweight and portable unit, which can run on any platform that supports containers?
Containerization
207
What can improve performance, scalability, and security of applications, but it's main purpose isn't specifically to deal with increasing or decreasing demand?
Containerization
208
Who is chiefly responsible for determining the purposes and means of processing personal data within an organization?
Data Controller
209
The _____________ is the entity that determines the purposes, conditions, and means of processing personal data.
Data Controller
210
A ________ collects and sells data to other organizations, but they do not typically decide the purposes and means of data processing for another organization.
Data Broker
211
_________ access and use the data but typically don’t decide on its processing purposes and means.
Data users
212
_________ are responsible for the data's classification and ensuring it meets organizational policies, but they do not typically decide on the purposes and means of data processing.
Data Owners
213
What is the proactive process of recognizing and recording potential threats that could adversely affect an organization?
Risk identification
214
________ is an activity that may be part of risk identification but does not encompass the entire scope of identifying a range of potential risks.
Policy review
215
What is a specific method used within risk identification to determine the weaknesses within an organization's IT infrastructure?
vulnerability assessment
216
____________ involves the collection and analysis of information about current and potential attacks that threaten the security of an organization but does not directly refer to the broader process of risk identification.
Threat intelligence
217
____________ attacks occur when an application receives more data than it's allocated to handle, causing the excess data to overflow into adjacent memory locations. This can lead to application crashes or potentially allow an attacker to execute arbitrary code.
Buffer overflow
218
_______ attacks aim to make a system or network resource unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic. While it can cause system disruptions, it doesn't operate through buffer overflows.
DoS
219
A _________ is a type of malware that hides itself and other malicious programs from detection and allows an attacker to gain persistent access and control over a system.
rootkit
220
What type of attack allows the attacker to gain persistent access and control over a system by hiding itself and its other malicious programs from detection?
Rootkit
221
A ______ is a type of malware that disguises itself as a legitimate or benign program, but performs malicious actions when executed.
Trojan
222
Malware has installed a hidden program that allows an attacker to remotely execute commands on the infected system. The malicious program has also given the attacker local admin privileges. What type of attack is this?
Rootkit
223
A user sees a dolphin icon of a program they dont recognize. They click it, grant it permissions by clicking allow, and suddenly malware has taken over the system. What type of attack is this?
Trojan
224
A ___________ is a report generated at regular intervals, such as weekly, monthly, or quarterly, to keep stakeholders updated on ongoing security metrics, trends, and concerns. A policy review is a periodic assessment of the organization's security policies to ensure they remain current and effective.
Recurring report
225
A _________________ is a specialized report highlighting current and emerging threats, often sourced from external threat intelligence providers.
threat intelligence briefing
226
An incident report is a detailed account of a specific security breach or event, outlining what occurred, its impact, and the steps taken in response.
incident report
227
What type of connections use GSM or CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) technologies to provide wireless communication between devices and provide connections that are more secure than Wi-Fi or Bluetooth because they use encryption and authentication mechanisms to protect the data?
Cellular
228
What is the first step in the risk management process that involves determining what potential threats and vulnerabilities exist within an organization's environment?
Risk identification
229
What are the steps in a risk management process?
Fill this out from notes
230
Who is the entity that processes personal data on behalf of the data controller?
Data Processor
231
_________ is an indicator of malicious activity that shows that an attacker or malware has compromised an account and is using it simultaneously with the legitimate user, creating multiple sessions from different locations or devices.
Concurrent session usage
232
True or False
The significance of inventory in managing hardware, software, and data assets effectively.
true
233
What type of document is used to define the measurements of quality and performance an organization wants from the vendor?
SLA Service Level Agreement
234
_________ is a comprehensive document that establishes the overall framework for a long-term business relationship between Magnetic Island and the vendor.
MSA Master Service Agreement
235
What document provides detailed instructions and requirements for specific tasks or projects to be carried out by the vendor?
WO (Work Order)
or
SOW (Statement of Work)
236
What outlines the terms of a partnership between two organizations and how they will collaborate on specific projects or initiatives?
MOU (Memorandum of Understanding)
237
What role involves developing and managing the company's information security program and is also responsible for defining and implementing information security policies and procedures to protect sensitive data and IT systems from cyber threats?
Security Officer
238
What type of attack does the attacker target multiple accounts by trying a few common passwords across them?
Horizontal Attack
239
Two different hashing algorithms produce the same output for the same input. What is this called?
A Collision
240
A ___________ is a type of password attack that involves trying common passwords against multiple accounts, hoping to find a match.
spraying attack
241
What is used to protect web applications by monitoring, filtering, and blocking HTTP/HTTPS traffic that can exploit any vulnerabilities in the application?
Web Application Firewall (WAF)
242
What layer of the OSI does a WAF operate in?
Layer 7
243
What kind of protective measures are based on where the data is stored?
Geographic restrictions
244
What process is the hiding or camouflaging of information to prevent access to it? Its often hidden in plain sight but encrypted in a way that only one with a key can put the data together in the correct way.
Obfuscation
245
What benefit does a monolithic application have over micro services?
Singular deployment cadence,
Consolidation of data storage.
Reduced monitoring endpoints.
Access Control is much easier to set up
246
What are some benefits of micro services?
distribute data storage needs across services instead of a single source
allow for independent deployments
247
What are some downsides to consider with the use of micro services?
increased monitoring endpoints
need for access controls to be set for each service.
248
What standard allows data to be processed without being decrypted, effectively securing data-in-use?
Homomorphic encryption
249
What type of hackers use automated hacking tools to exploit vulnerabilities instead of having the technical knowledge to do it manually?
Unskilled hackers
250
What type of penetration testing means that a significant amount of information has been given to the tester?
Known environment
251
If a penetration tester is given credentials to access the system prior to attempting to gain access, what type of condition would this be known as?
Known Environment
252
What type of penetration testing requires some reconnaissance, but are given a few details before starting?
Partially known environment
253
What is the initial phase of a penetration test, where information gathering and data collection occur without directly engaging the target?
reconnaissance
254
When would you classify an unknown environment in pen-testing?
Means the tester if given zero knowledge or information.
255
When pen-testing in an unknown environment, what would be the first step?
Reconnaissance
256
What is the significance of key length in encryption standards?
determines minimum key length to be used
257
What term refers to the determination of the minimum key length to be used in encryption?
Key Length
258
What accrues from not maintaining technology devices, such as computers, servers, and applications, at a state where the organization and technology landscape requires them to be?
Technical Debt
259
What is the term to describe information about data?
Metadata
260
What type of information is included in metadata?
File's creator, File size,
Date and time of last modification
261
Who is most likely to make unauthorized copies of sensitive data they were initially granted access to for a specific project?
Contractor
262
What is a simple solution to avoid account compromises?
Long complex passwords
263
What should be used when a long complex password may not be enough?
MFA
264
What is the are the steps in digital forensics?
1. Identify
2. Preservation of evidence
3. Analysis
4. Documentation
5. Presentation
265
What step in digital forensics include finding the evidence and noting where it is stored?
1. Identification
266
What step in digital forensics includes isolating, securing, and preserving the data?
2. Collection (Preservation)
267
What step in digital forensics includes drawing conclusions based on the evidence found?
3. Analysis
268
What step in digital forensics includes creating a record of all the data to recreate the crime scene?
4. Documentation
269
What step in digital forensics includes summarizing and drawing a conclusion?
5. Presentation
270
Generating and documenting cryptographic hashes of digital evidence to verify its integrity would be an example of which phase in digital forensics?
Preservation
271
Performing keyword searches on electronic documents to identify pertinent information would be an example of which phase in digital forensics?
E-Discovery
272
What is the main danger that comes from Shadow IT?
A larger attack surface
273
What implementation offers a more flexible access control system that can adjust to changing user behavior?
Adaptive identity
274
What does SRTP stand for?
Secure Real-time Transport Protocol
275
Which protocol would provide encryption specifically for voice traffic over IP?
SRTP
276
What is a technique used in cryptography that adds random data to the input of a hash function to increase security?
Salting
277
What system allows cybersecurity professionals to talk about vulnerabilities in a consistent manner, ensuring everyone is on the same page?
CVEs
278
What system evaluates the risk of vulnerabilities and rates them?
CVSS
279
What system doesn't evaluate or rate risks/vulnerabilties, but does identify them?
CVE
280
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures are a standard used for what specifically?
A glossary to classify vulnerabilities.
281
Common Vulnerability Scoring System is a standard mainly used for what specifically?
Evaluating and Rating risks/vulnerabilities
282
Why are CVE identifiers important for cybersecurity professionals?
Provides a standardized scoring created by the CVSS
283
What term refers to a formal examination of an organization's procedures, controls, and operations, ensuring they comply with established guidelines, standards, or regulations?
System/process audit
284
What leverages publicly available data sources to gather intelligence on targets, providing valuable insights without breaching any laws?
OSINT
285
What does OSINT stand for?
open source intelligence
286
What involves identifying, evaluating, and analyzing risks to an organization’s assets and operations, with the aim of implementing measures to control and mitigate those risks?
Risk assessment
287
What comes hand in hand with employee retention?
Retention of knowledge and expertise
288
What describes a system that allocates permissions and access based on pre-defined organizational guidelines, strategies, codes, roles, or requirements?
Policy-driven access control
289
An access control system that gives permissions based on your job title would be referred to as what?
Role Based Access Control
290
What is the format of a CVE identifier?
Year-CVE Number
XXXX-XXXXX
291
0.0-AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N represents an example of wht scoring vector?
CVSS
292
What service combines network security and WAN capabilities in a single cloud-based service, making it an ideal solution for ensuring secure and reliable access to data and applications irrespective of user/device location?
SASE
293
What does SASE stand for?
Secure access service edge
294
What does ESP stand for?
Encapsulation security payload
295
When someone wants to combine network and security services, what should they use?
SASE
296
What does CSP stand for?
account Configuration Service Provider
297
Is a Root CSP a highly valuable target?
yes
298
What does ARO stand for?
Annual Rate of Occurence
299
What is a quantitative risk analysis metric that represents the expected number of times a specific risk occurs in a year?
ARO
300
What is the process of substituting a sensitive data element with a non-sensitive equivalent called?
Tokenization
301
What port number is the MSRPC endpoint mapper?
135
302
What is steganography?
concealing information within another message or physical object to avoid detection
303
What ports number is TFTP?
69
304
What does NGFW stand for?
Next Gen Firewall
305
What is a integrated firewall solution that surpasses traditional firewall capabilities?
NGFW
306
What encryption standard is primarily used for securing data at rest and in transit through symmetric key cryptography?
AES
307
Which encryption standard is used for hashing to ensure data integrity and authenticity?
SHA Encryption
308
What does HMAC stand for?
Hash-Based Message Authentication Code
309
What encryption standard is used for encryption and decryption to protect data confidentiality?
AES
310
What is used to specify which mail servers are authorized to send emails on behalf of the company's domain?
SPF (Sender Policy Framework)
311
What verifies email senders by building on the Domain Name System (DNS), DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM), and Sender Policy Framework (SPF) protocols?
DMARC (Domain based Message Authentication Reporting and conformance
312
What protocol is utilized for retrieving emails from a server and isn't designed to specify authorized sending servers for a domain?
IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)
313
What provides validation of the domain name identity associated with a message through cryptographic authentication, but it doesn't dictate authorized servers?
DKIM (Domain-based Key Identified Mail)
314
What is the concept that the laws of the country in which the data is collected will control the ways in which the data can be used, processed, and stored?
Data Sovereignty
315
What legislation mandates the implementation of risk assessments, internal controls, and audit procedures for ensuring transparency and accountability in financial reporting in the US?
SOX
316
A _________ ______ is a type of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack that involves sending requests with spoofed source IP addresses to servers that generate large responses, amplifying the traffic sent to the target server.
Amplified Attack
317
___ __ _____ _______ is an indicator of malicious activity that shows that an attacker or malware has generated or modified logs outside of the normal schedule or frequency, indicating a possible compromise or tampering.
Out of Cycle Logging
318
An ______ ______ is a type of network attack that involves intercepting or modifying data in transit between two parties, such as by using a packet sniffer or a proxy server.
On-path attack
319
A _________ ________ is a type of DDoS attack that involves sending requests with spoofed source IP addresses to servers that redirect the responses to the target server, reflecting the traffic back to it.
reflected attack
320
The _____ _____ is responsible for making access control decisions based on pre-defined policies and contextual information about the subject/system.
policy engine
321
The _____ _______ is responsible for defining and managing the access control policies used by the policy engine.
policy administrator
322
The ____/____ refers to the entity (user or device) that is requesting access to a resource.
subject/system
323
The _____ _________ _____ is responsible for enforcing the access control decisions made by the policy engine.
policy enforcement point
324
What monitoring tech is used to gain a comprehensive overview of the health and security status of foundational IT components, including network traffic and interactions between servers?
Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)
325
Analyzing current capabilities of IT infrastructure and forecasting future needs is the essence of ______ _____.
capacity planning
326
Does NIST suggest Enforcing specific password complexity rules?
No
327
Does NIST suggest Blocking common passwords like dictionary words?
yes
328
Does NIST suggest Allowing users to decide when to change their password?
Yes
329
Does NIST suggest Disallowing the use of the username within the password?
Yes
330
The tester possesses complete knowledge of the target environment, including its architecture, design, and source code. It offers a deep dive into the system to unearth vulnerabilities that might remain hidden in other types of tests. What is this test called?
White Box Test
331
The tester approaches the system from an outsider's perspective, similar to an external attacker with no insight into the system's inner workings. What is this test called?
Black Box Test
332
They have some information about the system's inner workings but don't have access to all data and documents. This testing approach strikes a balance, offering a view between an insider and an external attacker. What is this test called?
Grey Box Test
333
In an IoT architecture, which of the following is the MOST critical consideration to secure connected devices from vulnerabilities?
Patch Availability
334
What term refers to computer systems that are integrated into larger devices?
Embedded Systems
335
____ __________ is a form of cyberattack that involves registering domain names that are similar to legitimate ones but have spelling errors or variations.
Typosquatting
336
337
What does RAT stand for?
Remote Access Trojan
338
What type of malware can give attackers access to a device's hardware and software, including the webcam?
RAT
