sec 1 Flashcards
A security administrator currently spends a large amount of time on common security tasks, such aa report generation, phishing investigations, and user provisioning and deprovisioning This prevents the administrator from spending time on other security projects. The business does not have the budget to add more staff members. Which of the following should the administrator implement?
A. DAC
B. ABAC
C. SCAP
D. SOAR
D. SOAR
An organization is developing an authentication service for use at the entry and exit ports of country borders. The service will use data feeds obtained from passport systems, passenger manifests, and high- definition video feeds from CCTV systems that are located at the ports. The service will incorporate machine-learning techniques to eliminate biometric enrollment processes while still allowing authorities to identify passengers with increasing accuracy over time. The more frequently passengers travel, the more accurately the service will identify them. Which of the following biometrics will MOST likely be used, without the need for enrollment? (Choose two.)
A. Voice
B. Gait
C. Vein
D. Facial
E. Retina
F. Fingerprint
B. Gait
D. Facial
A small company that does not have security staff wants to improve its security posture. Which of the following would BEST assist the company?
A. MSSP
B. SOAR
C. IaaS
D. PaaS
MSSP- Managed Security Service Provider
An organization’s help desk is flooded with phone calls from users stating they can no longer access certain websites. The help desk escalates the issue to the security team, as these
websites were accessible the previous day. The security analysts run the following command: ipconfig /flushdns, but the issue persists. Finally, an analyst changes the DNS server for an impacted machine, and the issue goes away. Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred on the original DNS server?
A. DNS cache poisoning
B. Domain hijacking
C. Distributed denial-of-service
D. DNS tunneling
B. Domain hijacking
A cybersecurity manager has scheduled biannual meetings with the IT team and department leaders to discuss how they would respond to hypothetical cyberattacks. During these meetings, the manager presents a scenario and injects additional information throughout the session to replicate what might occur in a dynamic cybersecurity event involving the company, its facilities, its data, and its staff. Which of the following describes what the manager is doing?
A. Developing an incident response plan
B. Building a disaster recovery plan
C. Conducting a tabletop exercise
D. Running a simulation exercise
C. Conducting a tabletop exercise
A RAT that was used to compromise an organization’s banking credentials was found on a user’s computer. The RAT evaded antivirus detection. It was installed by a user who has local
administrator rights to the system as part of a remote management tool set. Which of the following recommendations would BEST prevent this from reoccurring?
A. Create a new acceptable use policy.
B. Segment the network into trusted and untrusted zones.
C. Enforce application whitelisting.
D. Implement DLP at the network boundary.
C. Enforce application whitelisting.
A security analyst is reviewing a new website that will soon be made publicly available. The analyst sees the following in the URL:
http://dev-site.comptia.org/home/show.php?sessionID=77276554&loc=us
The analyst then sends an internal user a link to the new website for testing purposes, and when the user clicks the link, the analyst is able to browse the website with the following URL:
http://dev-site.comptia.org/home/show.php?sessionID=98988475&loc=us
Which of the following application attacks is being tested?
A. Pass-the-hash
B. Session replay
C. Object deference
D. Cross-site request forgery
D. Cross-site request forgery
A network administrator has been asked to install an IDS to improve the security posture of an organization. Which of the following control types is an IDS?
A. Corrective
B. Physical
C. Detective
D. Administrative
C. Detective
Which of the following should be put in place when negotiating with a new vendor about the timeliness of the response to a significant outage or incident?
A. MOU
B. MTTR
C. SLA
D. NDA
C. SLA
A startup company is using multiple SaaS and IaaS platforms to stand up a corporate infrastructure and build out a customer-facing web application. Which of the following solutions would be BEST to provide security, manageability, and visibility into the platforms?
A. SIEM
B. DLP
C. CASB
D. SWG
C. CASB
The CASB identifies all cloud applications in use as well as affiliated employees. Classification . The CASB assesses each application, identifies its data, and calculates a risk factor. Remediation .
A root cause analysis reveals that a web application outage was caused by one of the company’s developers uploading a newer version of the third-party libraries that were shared among several applications. Which of the following implementations would be BEST to prevent the issue from reoccurring?
A. CASB
B. SWG
C. Containerization
D. Automated failover
C. Containerization
A security administrator suspects there may be unnecessary services running on a server. Which of the following tools will the administrator MOST likely use to confirm the suspicions?
A. Nmap
B. Wireshark
C. Autopsy
D. DNSEnum
A. Nmap
A company has drafted an insider-threat policy that prohibits the use of external storage devices. Which of the following would BEST protect the company from data exfiltration via removable media?
A. Monitoring large data transfer transactions in the firewall logs
B. Developing mandatory training to educate employees about the removable media policy
C. Implementing a group policy to block user access to system files
D. Blocking removable-media devices and write capabilities using a host-based security tool
D. Blocking removable-media devices and write capabilities using a host-based security tool
In which of the following common use cases would steganography be employed?
A. Obfuscation
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Blockchain
A. Obfuscation
To secure an application after a large data breach, an e-commerce site will be resetting all users’ credentials. Which of the following will BEST ensure the site’s users are not compromised after the reset?
A. A password reuse policy
B. Account lockout after three failed attempts
C. Encrypted credentials in transit
D. A geofencing policy based on login history
C. Encrypted credentials in transit
In which of the following risk management strategies would cybersecurity insurance be used?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Acceptance
D. Mitigation
A. Transference
An organization has implemented a policy requiring the use of conductive metal lockboxes for personal electronic devices outside of a secure research lab. Which of the following did the
organization determine to be the GREATEST risk to intellectual property when creating this
policy?
A. The theft of portable electronic devices
B. Geotagging in the metadata of images
C. Bluesnarfing of mobile devices
D. Data exfiltration over a mobile hotspot
D. Data exfiltration over a mobile hotspot
A security analyst is using a recently released security advisory to review historical logs, looking for the specific activity that was outlined in the advisory. Which of the following is the analyst doing?
A. A packet capture
B. A user behavior analysis
C. Threat hunting
D. Credentialed vulnerability scanning
C. Threat hunting
Which of the following would MOST likely support the integrity of a voting machine?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Blockchain
C. Transport Layer Security
D. Perfect forward secrecy
D. Perfect forward secrecy
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) needs to create a policy set that meets international standards for data privacy and sharing. Which of the following should the CISO read and understand before writing the policies?
A. PCI DSS
B. GDPR
C. NIST
D. ISO 31000
B. GDPR
The IT department at a university is concerned about professors placing servers on the university
network in an attempt to bypass security controls. Which of the following BEST represents this
type of threat?
A. A script kiddie
B. Shadow IT
C. Hacktivism
D. White-hat
B. Shadow IT
A commercial cyber-threat intelligence organization observes IoCs across a variety of unrelated customers. Prior to releasing specific threat intelligence to other paid subscribers, the organization is MOST likely obligated by contracts to:
A. perform attribution to specific APTs and nation-state actors.
B. anonymize any PII that is observed within the IoC data.
C. add metadata to track the utilization of threat intelligence reports.
D. assist companies with impact assessments based on the observed data.
B. anonymize any PII that is observed within the IoC data.
While checking logs, a security engineer notices a number of end users suddenly downloading files with the .tar.gz extension. Closer examination of the files reveals they are PE32 files. The end users state they did not initiate any of the downloads. Further investigation reveals the end users all clicked on an external email containing an infected MHT file with an href link a week prior. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?
A. A RAT was installed and is transferring additional exploit tools.
B. The workstations are beaconing to a command-and-control server.
C. A logic bomb was executed and is responsible for the data transfers.
D. A fireless virus is spreading in the local network environment.
A. A RAT was installed and is transferring additional exploit tools.
An organization is developing a plan in the event of a complete loss of critical systems and data. Which of the following plans is the organization MOST likely developing?
A. Incident response
B. Communications
C. Disaster recovery
D. Data retention
C. Disaster recovery
Which of the following is the purpose of a risk register?
A. To define the level or risk using probability and likelihood
B. To register the risk with the required regulatory agencies
C. To identify the risk, the risk owner, and the risk measures
D. To formally log the type of risk mitigation strategy the organization is using
C. To identify the risk, the risk owner, and the risk measures
A university with remote campuses, which all use different service providers, loses Internet connectivity across all locations. After a few minutes, Internet and VoIP services are restored, only to go offline again at random intervals, typically within four minutes of services being restored. Outages continue throughout the day, impacting all inbound and outbound connections and services. Services that are limited to the local LAN or WiFi network are not impacted, but all
WAN and VoIP services are affected. Later that day, the edge-router manufacturer releases a CVE outlining the ability of an attacker to
exploit the SIP protocol handling on devices, leading to resource exhaustion and system reloads.
Which of the following BEST describe this type of attack? (Choose two.)
A. DoS
B. SSL stripping
C. Memory leak
D. Race condition
E. Shimming
F. Refactoring
A. DoS
D. Race condition
A company recently set up an e-commerce portal to sell its product online. The company wants to start accepting credit cards for payment, which requires compliance with a security standard. Which of the following standards must the company comply with before accepting credit cards on its e-commerce platform?
A. PCI DSS
B. ISO 22301
C. ISO 27001
D. NIST CSF
A. PCI DSS
Which of the following BEST describes a security exploit for which a vendor patch is not readily available?
A. Integer overflow
B. Zero-day
C. End of life
D. Race condition
B. Zero-day
The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of an insurance company received an email from Ann, the company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO), requesting a transfer of $10,000 to an account. The email states Ann is on vacation and has lost her purse, containing cash and credit cards. Which of the following social- engineering techniques is the attacker using?
A. Phishing
B. Whaling
C. Typo squatting
D. Pharming
B. Whaling
An organization wants to implement a third factor to an existing multifactor authentication. The organization already uses a smart card and password. Which of the following would meet the organization’s needs for a third factor?
A. Date of birth
B. Fingerprints
C. PIN
D. TPM
B. Fingerprints
An employee has been charged with fraud and is suspected of using corporate assets. As authorities collect evidence, and to preserve the admissibility of the evidence, which of the following forensic techniques should be used?
A. Order of volatility
B. Data recovery
C. Chain of custody
D. Non-repudiation
C. Chain of custody
A company wants to deploy PKI on its Internet-facing website. The applications that are currently deployed are:
- www.company.com (main website)
- contactus.company.com (for locating a nearby location)
- quotes.company.com (for requesting a price quote)
The company wants to purchase one SSL certificate that will work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store.company.com. Which of the following certificate types would BEST meet the requirements?
A. SAN
B. Wildcard
C. Extended validation
D. Self-signed
B. Wildcard
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned about the amount of PII that is stored locally on each salesperson’s laptop. The sales department has a higher-than-average rate of lost equipment.
Which of the following recommendations would BEST address the CSO’s concern?
A. Deploy an MDM solution.
B. Implement managed FDE.
C. Replace all hard drives with SEDs.
D. Install DLP agents on each laptop.
B. Implement managed FDE.
A user contacts the help desk to report the following:
- Two days ago, a pop-up browser window prompted the user for a name and password after connecting to the corporate wireless SSID. This had never happened before, but the user entered the information as requested.
- The user was able to access the Internet but had trouble accessing the department share until the next day.
- The user is now getting notifications from the bank about unauthorized transactions.
Which of the following attack vectors was MOST likely used in this scenario?
A. Rogue access point
B. Evil twin
C. DNS poisoning
D. ARP poisoning
A. Rogue access point
A host was infected with malware. During the incident response, Joe, a user, reported that he did not receive any emails with links, but he had been browsing the Internet all day. Which of the following would MOST likely show where the malware originated?
A. The DNS logs
B. The web server logs
C. The SIP traffic logs
D. The SNMP logs
A. The DNS logs
A recently discovered zero-day exploit utilizes an unknown vulnerability in the SMB network protocol to rapidly infect computers. Once infected, computers are encrypted and held for ransom.
Which of the following would BEST prevent this attack from reoccurring?
A. Configure the perimeter firewall to deny inbound external connections to SMB ports.
B. Ensure endpoint detection and response systems are alerting on suspicious SMB connections.
C. Deny unauthenticated users access to shared network folders.
D. Verify computers are set to install monthly operating system, updates automatically.
A. Configure the perimeter firewall to deny inbound external connections to SMB ports.
Joe, an employee, receives an email stating he won the lottery. The email includes a link that requests a name, mobile phone number, address, and date of birth be provided to confirm Joe’s identity before sending him the prize. Which of the following BEST describes this type of email?
A. Spear phishing
B. Whaling
C. Phishing
D. Vishing
C. Phishing
Which of the following refers to applications and systems that are used within an organization without consent or approval?
A. Shadow IT
B. OSINT
C. Dark web
D. Insider threats
A. Shadow IT
A manufacturer creates designs for very high security products that are required to be protected and controlled by the government regulations. These designs are not accessible by corporate
networks or the Internet. Which of the following is the BEST solution to protect these designs?
A. An air gap
B. A Faraday cage
C. A shielded cable
D. A demilitarized zone
A. An air gap
A company processes highly sensitive data and senior management wants to protect the sensitive data by utilizing classification labels. Which of the following access control schemes would be BEST for the company to implement?
A. Discretionary
B. Rule-based
C. Role-based
D. Mandatory
D. Mandatory
Which of the following policies would help an organization identify and mitigate potential single points of failure in the company’s IT/security operations?
A. Least privilege
B. Awareness training
C. Separation of duties
D. Mandatory vacation
C. Separation of duties
Which of the following would be the BEST method for creating a detailed diagram of wireless access points and hotspots?
A. Footprinting
B. White-box testing
C. A drone/UAV
D. Pivoting
A. Footprinting
See Question 42 through 44 and Diagram
Which of the following will MOST likely adversely impact the operations of unpatched traditional programmable-logic controllers, running a back-end LAMP server and OT systems with human-
management interfaces that are accessible over the Internet via a web interface? (Choose two.)
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Data exfiltration
C. Poor system logging
D. Weak encryption
E. SQL injection
F. Server-side request forgery
D. Weak encryption
F. Server-side request forgery
A company recently transitioned to a strictly BYOD culture due to the cost of replacing lost or damaged corporate-owned mobile devices. Which of the following technologies would be BEST to balance the BYOD culture while also protecting the company’s data?
A. Containerization
B. Geofencing
C. Full-disk encryption
D. Remote wipe
C. Full-disk encryption
A Chief Security Office’s (CSO’s) key priorities are to improve preparation, response, and recovery practices to minimize system downtime and enhance organizational resilience to
ransomware attacks. Which of the following would BEST meet the CSO’s objectives?
A. Use email-filtering software and centralized account management, patch high-risk systems, and restrict administration privileges on fileshares.
B. Purchase cyber insurance from a reputable provider to reduce expenses during an incident.
C. Invest in end-user awareness training to change the long-term culture and behavior of staff and executives, reducing the organization’s susceptibility to phishing attacks.
D. Implement application whitelisting and centralized event-log management, and perform regular testing and validation of full backups.
D. Implement application whitelisting and centralized event-log management, and perform regular testing and validation of full backups.
A network engineer has been asked to investigate why several wireless barcode scanners and wireless computers in a warehouse have intermittent connectivity to the shipping server. The barcode scanners and computers are all on forklift trucks and move around the warehouse during their regular use. Which of the following should the engineer do to determine the issue? (Choose
two.)
A. Perform a site survey
B. Deploy an FTK Imager
C. Create a heat map
D. Scan for rogue access points
E. Upgrade the security protocols
F. Install a captive portal
A. Perform a site survey
C. Create a heat map
A security administrator suspects an employee has been emailing proprietary information to a competitor. Company policy requires the administrator to capture an exact copy of the employee’s hard disk. Which of the following should the administrator use?
A. dd
B. chmod
C. dnsenum
D. logger
A. dd - the command line tool used to make a copy in linux
Which of the following is MOST likely to outline the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data processors?
A. SSAE SOC 2
B. PCI DSS
C. GDPR
D. ISO 31000
C. GDPR
Phishing and spear-phishing attacks have been occurring more frequently against a company’s staff. Which of the following would MOST likely help mitigate this issue?
A. DNSSEC and DMARC
B. DNS query logging
C. Exact mail exchanger records in the DNS
D. The addition of DNS conditional forwarders
C. Exact mail exchanger records in the DNS
On which of the following is the live acquisition of data for forensic analysis MOST dependent? (Choose two.)
A. Data accessibility
B. Legal hold
C. Cryptographic or hash algorithm
D. Data retention legislation
E. Value and volatility of data
F. Right-to-audit clauses
E. Value and volatility of data
F. Right-to-audit clauses
Which of the following incident response steps involves actions to protect critical systems while maintaining business operations?
A. Investigation
B. Containment
C. Recovery
D. Lessons learned
B. Containment
A security auditor is reviewing vulnerability scan data provided by an internal security team. Which of the following BEST indicates that valid credentials were used?
A. The scan results show open ports, protocols, and services exposed on the target host
B. The scan enumerated software versions of installed programs
C. The scan produced a list of vulnerabilities on the target host
D. The scan identified expired SSL certificates
B. The scan enumerated software versions of installed programs
Which of the following BEST explains the difference between a data owner and a data custodian?
A. The data owner is responsible for adhering to the rules for using the data, while the data custodian is responsible for determining the corporate governance regarding the data
B. The data owner is responsible for determining how the data may be used, while the data custodian is responsible for implementing the protection to the data
C. The data owner is responsible for controlling the data, while the data custodian is responsible for maintaining the chain of custody when handling the date
D. The data owner grants the technical permissions for data access, while the data custodian maintains the database access controls to the data
B. The data owner is responsible for determining how the data may be used, while the data custodian is responsible for implementing the protection to the data
A network engineer needs to build a solution that will allow guests at the company’s headquarters to access the Internet via WiFi. This solution should not allow access to the internal corporate
network, but it should require guests to sign off on the acceptable use policy before accessing the Internet. Which of the following should the engineer employ to meet these requirements?
A. Implement open PSK on the APs
B. Deploy a WAF
C. Configure WIPS on the APs
D. Install a captive portal
D. Install a captive portal
An organization with a low tolerance for user inconvenience wants to protect laptop hard drives against loss or data theft. Which of the following would be the MOST acceptable?
A. SED
B. HSM
C. DLP
D. TPM
A. SED, Self encrypted drives, can keep your data safe, even if drives are lost, stolen, or missplaced by accident across different stores enclosures.
- A security analyst receives a SIEM alert that someone logged in to the appadmin test account, which is only used for the early detection of attacks. The security analyst then reviews the following application log:
See figure in question 58.
Which of the following can the security analyst conclude?
A. A replay attack is being conducted against the application.
B. An injection attack is being conducted against a user authentication system.
C. A service account password may have been changed, resulting in continuous failed logins within the application.
D. A credentialed vulnerability scanner attack is testing
C. A service account password may have been changed, resulting in continuous failed logins within the application.
In which of the following situations would it be BEST to use a detective control type for mitigation?
A. A company implemented a network load balancer to ensure 99.999% availability of its web application.
B. A company designed a backup solution to increase the chances of restoring services in case of a natural disaster.
C. A company purchased an application-level firewall to isolate traffic between the accounting department and the information technology department.
D. A company purchased an IPS system, but after reviewing the requirements, the appliance was supposed to monitor, not block, any traffic.
E. A company purchased liability insurance for flood protection on all capital assets.
D. A company purchased an IPS system, but after reviewing the requirements, the appliance was supposed to monitor, not block, any traffic.
QUESTION 61
The IT department’s on-site developer has been with the team for many years. Each time an application is released, the security team is able to identify multiple vulnerabilities. Which of the
following would BEST help the team ensure the application is ready to be released to production?
A. Limit the use of third-party libraries.
B. Prevent data exposure queries.
C. Obfuscate the source code.
D. Submit the application to QA before releasing it.
D. Submit the application to QA before releasing it.
QUESTION 61
A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users’ passwords. Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?
A. OAuth
B. SSO
C. SAML
D. PAP
C. SAML
QUESTION 62
An analyst needs to identify the applications a user was running and the files that were open before the user’s computer was shut off by holding down the power button. Which of the following would MOST likely contain that information?
A. NGFW
B. Pagefile
C. NetFlow
D. RAM
C. NetFlow
QUESTION 63
A remote user recently took a two-week vacation abroad and brought along a corporate-owned laptop. Upon returning to work, the user has been unable to connect the laptop to the VPN.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the user’s inability to connect the laptop to the VPN?
A. Due to foreign travel, the user’s laptop was isolated from the network.
B. The user’s laptop was quarantined because it missed the latest path update.
C. The VPN client was blacklisted.
D. The user’s account was put on a legal hold.
A. Due to foreign travel, the user’s laptop was isolated from the network.
QUESTION 64
An organization needs to implement more stringent controls over administrator/root credentials and service accounts. Requirements for the project include:
-Check-in/checkout of credentials
-The ability to use but not know the password
-Automated password changes
-Logging of access to credentials
Which of the following solutions would meet the requirements?
A. OAuth 2.0
B. Secure Enclave
C. A privileged access management system
D. An OpenID Connect authentication system
D. An OpenID Connect authentication system
QUESTION 65
Several employees return to work the day after attending an industry trade show. That same day, the security manager notices several malware alerts coming from each of the employee’s workstations. The security manager investigates but finds no signs of an attack on the perimeter firewall or the NIDS. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the malware alerts?
A. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media
B. A fileless virus that is contained on a vCard that is attempting to execute an attack
C. A Trojan that has passed through and executed malicious code on the hosts
D. A USB flash drive that is trying to run malicious code but is being blocked by the host firewall
A. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media
QUESTION 66
After reading a security bulletin, a network security manager is concerned that a malicious actor may have breached the network using the same software flaw. The exploit code is publicly
available and has been reported as being used against other industries in the same vertical.
Which of the following should the network security manager consult FIRST to determine a priority list for forensic review?
A. The vulnerability scan output
B. The IDS logs
C. The full packet capture data
D. The SIEM alerts
A. The vulnerability scan output
QUESTION 67
A financial organization has adopted a new secure, encrypted document-sharing application to help with its customer loan process. Some important PII needs to be shared across this new platform, but it is getting blocked by the DLP systems. Which of the following actions will BEST allow the PII to be shared with the secure application without compromising the organization’s
security posture?
A. Configure the DLP policies to allow all PII
B. Configure the firewall to allow all ports that are used by this application
C. Configure the antivirus software to allow the application
D. Configure the DLP policies to whitelist this application with the specific PII
E. Configure the application to encrypt the PII
D. Configure the DLP policies to whitelist this application with the specific PII
QUESTION 68
An auditor is performing an assessment of a security appliance with an embedded OS that was vulnerable during the last two assessments. Which of the following BEST explains the appliance’s
vulnerable state?
A. The system was configured with weak default security settings.
B. The device uses weak encryption ciphers.
C. The vendor has not supplied a patch for the appliance.
D. The appliance requires administrative credentials for the assessment.
C. The vendor has not supplied a patch for the appliance.
QUESTION 69
A company’s bank has reported that multiple corporate credit cards have been stolen over the past several weeks. The bank has provided the names of the affected cardholders to the company’s forensics team to assist in the cyber-incident investigation. An incident responder learns the following information:
- The timeline of stolen card numbers corresponds closely with affected users making Internet-based purchases from diverse websites via enterprise desktop PCs.
- All purchase connections were encrypted, and the company uses an SSL inspection proxy for the inspection of encrypted traffic of the
hardwired network. - Purchases made with corporate cards over the corporate guest WiFi
network, where no SSL inspection occurs, were unaffected.
Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?
A. HTTPS sessions are being downgraded to insecure cipher suites
B. The SSL inspection proxy is feeding events to a compromised SIEM
C. The payment providers are insecurely processing credit card charges
D. The adversary has not yet established a presence on the guest WiFi network
C. The payment providers are insecurely processing credit card charges
QUESTION 70
A security analyst has been asked to investigate a situation after the SOC started to receive alerts from the SIEM. The analyst first looks at the domain controller and finds the following events:
See figure 1 in question..
To better understand what is going on, the analyst runs a command and receives the following
output:
See figure 2 in question..
Based on the analyst’s findings, which of the following attacks is being executed?
A. Credential harvesting
B. Keylogger
C. Brute-force
D. Spraying
D. Spraying
QUESTION 71
Which of the following cloud models provides clients with servers, storage, and networks but nothing else?
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. DaaS
C. IaaS
QUESTION 72
A network administrator needs to build out a new datacenter, with a focus on resiliency and uptime. Which of the following would BEST meet this objective? (Choose two.)
A. Dual power supply
B. Off-site backups
C. Automatic OS upgrades
D. NIC teaming
E. Scheduled penetration testing
F. Network-attached storage
A. Dual power supply
B. Off-site backups
QUESTION 73
A researcher has been analyzing large data sets for the last ten months. The researcher works with colleagues from other institutions and typically connects via SSH to retrieve additional data.
Historically, this setup has worked without issue, but the researcher recently started getting the following message:
See figure in question
Which of the following network attacks is the researcher MOST likely experiencing?
A. MAC cloning
B. Evil twin
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. ARP poisoning
C. Man-in-the-middle
QUESTION 74
A network administrator has been alerted that web pages are experiencing long load times. After determining it is not a routing or DNS issue, the administrator logs in to the router, runs a command, and receives the following output:
CPU 0 percent busy, from 300 seconds ago
1 sec ave: 99 percent busy
5 sec ave: 97 percent busy
1 min ave: 83 percent busy
Which of the following is the router experiencing?
A. DDoS attack
B. Memory leak
C. Buffer overflow
D. Resource exhaustion
D. Resource exhaustion
QUESTION 75
A company provides mobile devices to its users to permit access to email and enterprise applications. The company recently started allowing users to select from several different vendors and device models. When configuring the MDM (MOBILE DEVICE MANAGEMENT), which of the following is a key security implication of this heterogeneous device approach?
A. The most common set of MDM configurations will become the effective set of enterprise mobile security controls.
B. All devices will need to support SCEP-based enrollment; therefore, the heterogeneity of the chosen architecture may unnecessarily expose private keys to adversaries.
C. Certain devices are inherently less secure than others, so compensatory controls will be needed to address the delta between device vendors.
D. MDMs typically will not support heterogeneous deployment environments, so multiple MDMs will need to be installed and configured.
C. Certain devices are inherently less secure than others, so compensatory controls will be needed to address the delta between device vendors.
A pharmaceutical sales representative logs on to a laptop and connects to the public WiFi to check emails and update reports. Which of the following would be BEST to prevent other devices on the network from directly accessing the laptop? (Choose two.)
A. Trusted Platform Module
B. A host-based firewall
C. A DLP solution
D. Full disk encryption
E. A VPN
F. Antivirus software
A. Trusted Platform Module
B. A host-based firewall
QUESTION 77
A company is implementing MFA (MULTI-FACTOR AUTHENTICATION) for all applications that store sensitive data. The IT manager wants MFA to be non-disruptive and user friendly. Which of the following technologies should the IT manager use when implementing MFA?
A. One-time passwords
B. Email tokens
C. Push notifications
D. Hardware authentication
C. Push notifications
QUESTION 78
The CSIRT is reviewing the lessons learned from a recent incident. A worm was able to spread unhindered throughout the network and infect a large number of computers and servers. Which of the following recommendations would be BEST to mitigate the impacts of a similar incident in the
future?
A. Install a NIDS device at the boundary.
B. Segment the network with firewalls.
C. Update all antivirus signatures daily.
D. Implement application blacklisting.
B. Segment the network with firewalls.
QUESTION 79
A company is adopting a BYOD policy and is looking for a comprehensive solution to protect company information on user devices. Which of the following solutions would BEST support the policy?
A. Mobile device management
B. Full-device encryption
C. Remote wipe
D. Biometrics
A. Mobile device management
QUESTION 80
A development team employs a practice of bringing all the code changes from multiple team members into the same development project through automation. A tool is utilized to validate the code and track source code through version control. Which of the following BEST describes this
process?
A. Continuous delivery
B. Continuous integration
C. Continuous validation
D. Continuous monitoring
B. Continuous integration
QUESTION 81
A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution
must have a two-drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should
the administrator select?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 6
B. 1
QUESTION 82
Which of the following BEST explains the reason why a server administrator would place a document named password.txt on the desktop of an administrator account on a server?
A. The document is a honeyfile and is meant to attract the attention of a cyberintruder.
B. The document is a backup file if the system needs to be recovered.
C. The document is a standard file that the OS needs to verify the login credentials.
D. The document is a keylogger that stores all keystrokes should the account be compromised.
A. The document is a honeyfile and is meant to attract the attention of a cyberintruder.
QUESTION 83
A security administrator has generated an SSH key pair to authenticate to a new server. Which of the following should the security administrator do NEXT to use the keys securely for authentication? Choose 2
A. Install the public key on the server
B. Install the private key on the server.
C. Encrypt the public key.
D. Encrypt the private key.
E. Install both keys on the server.
F. Securely wipe the certificate signing request.
C. Encrypt the public key.
E. Install both keys on the server.
QUESTION 84
A company has just experienced a malware attack affecting a large number of desktop users. The antivirus solution was not able to block the malware, but the HIDS alerted to C2 calls as ‘Troj.Generic’. Once the security team found a solution to remove the malware, they were able to remove the malware files successfully, and the HIDS stopped alerting. The next morning, however, the HIDS once again started alerting on the same desktops, and the security team
discovered the files were back. Which of the following BEST describes the type of malware infecting this company’s network?
A. Trojan
B. Spyware
C. Rootkit
D. Botnet
A. Trojan
QUESTION 85
An organization wants to host an externally accessible web server that will not contain sensitive user information. Any sensitive information will be hosted on file servers. Which of the following is the BEST architecture configuration for this organization?
A. Host the web server in a DMZ and the file servers behind a firewall
B. Host the web server and the file servers in a DMZ
C. Host the web server behind a firewall and the file servers in a DMZ
D. Host both the web server and file servers behind a firewall
A. Host the web server in a DMZ and the file servers behind a firewall
QUESTION 86
Which of the following describes the ability of code to target a hypervisor from inside a guest OS?
A. Fog computing
B. VM escape
C. Software-defined networking
D. Image forgery
E. Container breakout
B. VM escape
explanation: VM escaping is a vulnerability in virtualization technology where an attacker escapes the isolation of a virtual machine and gains access to the underlying operating system and other VMs on the same physical machine.
QUESTION 87
A company posts a sign indicating its server room is under video surveillance. Which of the following control types is represented?
A. Administrative
B. Detective
C. Technical
D. Deterrent
A. Administrative
QUESTION 88
A security administrator has received multiple calls from the help desk about customers who are unable to access the organization’s web server. Upon reviewing the log files. the security administrator determines multiple open requests have been made from multiple IP addresses, which is consuming system resources. Which of the following attack types does this BEST describe?
A. DDoS
B. DoS
C. Zero day
D. Logic bomb
A. DDoS
89
See pass for sure for question and answer
QUESTION 90
A junior systems administrator noticed that one of two hard drives in a server room had a red error notification. The administrator removed the hard drive to replace it but was unaware that the server was configured in an array. Which of the following configurations would ensure no data is
lost?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 2
D. RAID 3
B. RAID 1
QUESTION 91
A system in the network is used to store proprietary secrets and needs the highest level of security possible. Which of the following should a security administrator implement to ensure the system cannot be reached from the Internet?
A. VLAN
B. Air gap
C. NAT
D. Firewall
B. Air gap
Explanation:
An air gap, air wall or air gapping is a network security measure employed on one or more
computers to ensure that a secure computer network is physically isolated from unsecured
networks, such as the public Internet or an unsecured local area network. It means a computer or
network has no network interfaces connected to other networks, with a physical or conceptual air
gap, analogous to the air gap used in plumbing to maintain water quality.
QUESTION 92
Which of the following is the BEST use of a WAF (Web application firewall)?
A. To protect sites on web servers that are publicly accessible
B. To allow access to web services of internal users of the organization.
C. To maintain connection status of all HTTP requests
D. To deny access to all websites with certain contents
A. To protect sites on web servers that are publicly accessible.
Explanation: A web application firewall (WAF) protects web applications from a variety of application layer attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, and cookie poisoning, among others
QUESTION 93
A transitive trust:
A. is automatically established between a parent and a child.
B. is used to update DNS records.
C. allows access to untrusted domains.
D. can be used in place of a hardware token for logins.
A. is automatically established between a parent and a child.
QUESTION 94
A systems administrator wants to disable the use of usernames and passwords for SSH authentication and enforce key-based authentication. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT to enforce this new configuration?
A. Issue a public/private key pair for each user and securely distribute a private key to each
employee.
B. Instruct users on how to create a public/private key pair and install users’ public keys on the
server.
C. Disable the username and password authentication and enable TOTP in the sshd.conf file.
D. Change the default SSH port. enable TCP tunneling. and provide a pre-configured SSH client.
D. Change the default SSH port. enable TCP tunneling. and provide a pre-configured SSH client.
QUESTION 95
Which of the following would MOST likely be a result of improperly configured user accounts?
A. Resource exhaustion
B. Buffer overflow
C. Session hijacking
D. Privilege escalation
D. Privilege escalation
QUESTION 96
An organization is concerned about video emissions from users’ desktops. Which of the following
is the BEST solution to implement?
A. Screen filters
B. Shielded cables
C. Spectrum analyzers
D. Infrared detection
A. Screen filters
QUESTION 97
A security administrator receives alerts from the perimeter UTM. Upon checking the logs, the administrator finds the following output:
Time: 12/25 0300
From Zone: Untrust
To Zone: DMZ
Attacker: externalip.com
Victim: 172.16.0.20
To Port: 80
Action: Alert
Severity: Critical
When examining the PCAP associated with the event, the security administrator finds the following information:
<script>
alert ("Click here for important information regarding your account! http://externalip.com/account.php");
</script>
Which of the following actions should the security administrator take?
A. Upload the PCAP to the IDS in order to generate a blocking signature to block the traffic.
B. Manually copy the
data from the PCAP file and generate a blocking signature in the HIDS to block the traffic for future events.
C. Implement a host-based firewall rule to block future events of this type from occurring.
D. Submit a change request to modify the XSS vulnerability signature to TCP reset on future
attempts.
B. Manually copy the
data from the PCAP file and generate a blocking signature in the HIDS to block the traffic for future events.
QUESTION 98
Which of the following encryption algorithms require one encryption key? (Select TWO).
A. MD5
B. 3DES
C. BCRYPT
D. RC4
E. DSA
B. 3DES
D. RC4
QUESTION 99
A company moved into a new building next to a sugar mill. Cracks have been discovered in the walls of the server room, which is located on the same side as the sugar mill loading docks. The cracks are believed to have been caused by heavy trucks. Moisture has begun to seep into the server room, causing extreme humidification problems and equipment failure. Which of the following BEST describes the type of threat the organization faces?
A. Foundational
B. Man-made
C. Environmental
D. Natural
A. Foundational
Explanation: Foundational Security refers to the basic controls that keep an organization’s information systems secure.
QUESTION 100
Which of the following should a technician use to protect a cellular phone that is needed for an investigation, to ensure the data will not be removed remotely?
A. Air gap
B. Secure cabinet
C. Faraday cage
D. Safe
C. Faraday cage
QUESTION 101
Which of the following is the MOST likely motivation for a script kiddie threat actor?
A. Financial gain
B. Notoriety
C. Political expression
D. Corporate espionage
B. Notoriety
QUESTION 102
Moving laterally within a network once an initial exploit is used to gain persistent access for the purpose of establishing further control of a system is known as:
A. pivoting.
B. persistence.
C. active reconnaissance.
D. a backdoor.
B. persistence.
QUESTION 103
An organization discovers that unauthorized applications have been installed on company- provided mobile phones. The organization issues these devices, but some users have managed to bypass the security controls. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue, and how can the
organization BEST prevent this from happening?
A. The mobile phones are being infected with malware that covertly installs the applications. Implement full disk encryption and integrity-checking software.
B. Some advanced users are jailbreaking the OS and bypassing the controls. Implement an MDM solution to control access to company resources.
C. The mobile phones have been compromised by an APT and can no longer be trusted. Scan the devices for the unauthorized software, recall any compromised devices, and issue completely new ones.
D. Some advanced users are upgrading the devices’ OS and installing the applications. The organization should create an AUP that prohibits this activity.
B. Some advanced users are jailbreaking the OS and bypassing the controls. Implement an MDM solution to control access to company resources.
QUESTION 104
Which of the following is a valid multifactor authentication combination?
A. OTP token combined with password
B. Strong password and PIN combination
C. OTP token plus smart card
D. Presence detecting facial recognition
A. OTP token combined with password
QUESTION 105
A security analyst is investigating a call from a user regarding one of the websites receiving a 503: Service Unavailable error. The analyst runs a netstat-an command to discover if
the web server is up and listening. The analyst receives the following output:
TCP 10.1.5.2:80 192.168.2.112:60973 TIME_WAIT
TCP 10.1.5.2:80 192.168.2.112:60974 TIME_WAIT
TCP 10.1.5.2:80 192.168.2.112:60975 TIME_WAIT
TCP 10.1.5.2:80 192.168.2.112:60976 TIME_WAIT
TCP 10.1.5.2:80 192.168.2.112:60977 TIME_WAIT
TCP 10.1.5.2:80 192.168.2.112:60978 TIME_WAIT
Which of the following types of attack is the analyst seeing?
A. Buffer overflow
B. Domain hijacking
C. Denial of service
D. ARP poisoning
C. Denial of service
QUESTION 106
Which of the following serves to warn users against downloading and installing pirated software on company devices?
A. AUP
B. NDA
C. ISA
D. BPA
A. AUP
QUESTION 107
An employee opens a web browser and types a URL into the address bar. Instead of reaching the requested site, the browser opens a completely different site. Which of the following types of attacks have MOST likely occurred? (Select TWO).
A. DNS hijacking
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Domain hijacking
D. Man-in-the-browser
E. Session hijacking
A. DNS hijacking
D. Man-in-the-browser.
Explanation:
DNS hijacking is a type of cyber-attack in which DNS queries are manipulated in order to redirect users to malicious sites.
Man in the browser (MitB) is a cybersecurity attack where the perpetrator installs a Trojan horse on the victim’s computer that is capable of modifying that user’s web transactions.
QUESTION 108
A company is experiencing an increasing number of systems that are locking up on Windows startup. The security analyst clones a machine, enters into safe mode, and discovers a file in the startup process that runs Wstart.bat.
@echo off
:asdhbawdhbasdhbawdhb
start notepad.exe
start notepad.exe
start calculator.exe
start calculator.exe
goto asdhbawdhbasdhbawdhb
Given the file contents and the system’s issues, which of the following types of malware is present?
A. Rootkit
B. Logic bomb
C. Worm
D. Virus
B. Logic bomb
QUESTION 109
Which of the following attacks can be mitigated by proper data retention policies?
A. Dumpster diving
B. Man-in-the-browser
C. Spear phishing
D. Watering hole
A Dumpster Diving
Explanation:
Dumpster diving risks would be mitigated by proper data SANITATION policies. Retention refers to the policies that govern how we keep data secure through backups, legal hold, etc.
QUESTION 110
A company employee recently retired, and there was a schedule delay because no one was
capable of filling the employee’s position. Which of the following practices would BEST help to prevent this situation in the future?
A. Mandatory vacation
B. Separation of duties
C. Job rotation
D. Exit interviews
C. Job rotation
QUESTION 111
During a security audit of a company’s network, unsecure protocols were found to be in use. A network administrator wants to ensure browser-based access to company switches is using the most secure protocol. Which of the following protocols should be implemented?
A. SSH2
B. TLS1.2
C. SSL1.3
D. SNMPv3
B. TLS1.2
QUESTION 112
A healthcare company is revamping its IT strategy in light of recent regulations. The company is concerned about compliance and wants to use a pay-per-use model.
Which of the following is the BEST solution?
A. On-premises hosting
B. Community cloud
C. Hosted infrastructure
D. Public SaaS
D. Public SaaS
Explanation:
Pay-as-you-use is a payment model in cloud computing that charges based on resource usage. The practice is similar to the utility bills, where only actually consumed resources are charged
he highest level of cloud scenarios is the SaaS model of application delivery. In this scenario customers don’t purchase or install applications, but work with applications over the Internet and periodically pay for this service.
QUESTION 113
Which of the following represents a multifactor authentication system?
A. An iris scanner coupled with a palm print reader and fingerprint scanner with liveness detection
B. A secret passcode that prompts the user to enter a secret key if entered correctly
C. A digital certificate on a physical token that is unlocked with a secret passcode
D. A one-time password token combined with a proximity badge
D. A one-time password token combined with a proximity badge
QUESTION 114
A preventive control differs from a compensating control in that a preventive control is:
A. put in place to mitigate a weakness in a user control.
B. deployed to supplement an existing control that is EOL.
C. relied on to address gaps in the existing control structure.
D. designed to specifically mitigate a risk.
C. relied on to address gaps in the existing control structure.
Explanation:
What are preventative controls in IT?
Preventative controls are security controls that are designed to prevent an event from occurring. These guardrails are a first line of defense to help prevent unauthorized access or unwanted changes to your network.
QUESTION 115
The exploitation of a buffer-overrun vulnerability in an application will MOST likely lead to:
A. arbitrary code execution.
B. resource exhaustion.
C. exposure of authentication credentials.
D. dereferencing of memory pointers.
A. arbitrary code execution.
QUESTION 116
The president of a company that specializes in military contracts receives a request for an interview. During the interview, the reporter seems more interested in discussing the president’s family life and personal history than the details of a recent company success. Which of the
following security concerns is this MOST likely an example of?
A. Insider threat
B. Social engineering
C. Passive reconnaissance
D. Phishing
B. Social engineering
QUESTION 117
Which of the following is an example of federated access management?
A. Windows passing user credentials on a peer-to-peer network
B. Applying a new user account with a complex password
C. Implementing a AM framework for network access
D. Using a popular website login to provide access to another website
D. Using a popular website login to provide access to another website
Federated identity management (FIM) is an arrangement between multiple enterprises or domains that enables their users to use the same identification data (digital identity) to access all their networks.
QUESTION 118
A company network is currently under attack. Although security controls are in place to stop the attack, the security administrator needs more information about the types of attacks being used. Which of the following network types would BEST help the administrator gather this information?
A. DMZ
B. Guest network
C. Ad hoc
D. Honeynet
D. Honeynet
QUESTION 119
An organization’s policy requires users to create passwords with an uppercase letter, lowercase letter, number, and symbol. This policy is enforced with technical controls, which also prevents users from using any of their previous 12 passwords. The quantization does not use single sign-on, nor does it centralize storage of passwords. The incident response team recently discovered that passwords for one system were compromised. Passwords for a completely separate system have NOT been compromised, but unusual login activity has been detected fc that separate system. Account login has been detected for users who are on vacation.
Which of the following BEST describes what is happening?
A. Some users are meeting password complexity requirements but not password length requirements.
B. The password history enforcement is insufficient, and old passwords are still valid across many different systems.
C. Some users are reusing passwords, and some of the compromised passwords are valid on multiple systems.
D. The compromised password file has been brute-force hacked, and the complexity requirements are not adequate to mitigate this risk.
D. The compromised password file has been brute-force hacked, and the complexity requirements are not adequate to mitigate this risk.
QUESTION 120
A company recently implemented a new security system. In the course of configuration, the security administrator adds the following entry:
#Whitelist
USB\VID13FE&PID_4127&REV_0100
Which of the following security technologies is MOST likely being configured?
A. Application whitelisting
B. HIDS
C. Data execution prevention
D. Removable media control
D. Removable media control
QUESTION 121
A security analyst needs to be proactive in understand the types of attacks that could potentially target the company’s execute. Which of the following intelligence sources should to security analyst review?
A. Vulnerability feeds
B. Trusted automated exchange of indicator information
C. Structured threat information expression
D. Industry information-sharing and collaboration groups
C. Structured threat information expression
Explanation: STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression) is a standardized XML programming language for conveying data about cybersecurity threats in a common language that can be easily understood by humans and security technologies. Designed for broad use, there are several core use cases for STIX.
