SCWS Flashcards
1
Q
What form must be used by manufacturers of chemical products to communicate to the user the chemical, physical, and hazardous properties
A
MSDS
2
Q
Which of t/he following eye protection provides temporary protection
A
Plastic Eye Protection
3
Q
Who is authorized to disperse chemicals or do pest control operations?
A
Certified Pest Control Personnel
4
Q
What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
A
Prevent similar mishaps
5
Q
Who is responsible for planning all work assignments with considerations for PPE and safeguards required?
A
Supervisor/Platoon Commander
6
Q
Injury or illness that does not result in death or permanent disability, but does cause loss or permanent impairment of any body part
A
Permanent partial disability
7
Q
Non fatal injury that permanently or totally incapacitates a person to the extent they cannot be gainfully employed
A
Permanent total disability
8
Q
Non-fatal traumatic injury that causes any loss of time from work beyond day/shift it occurred
A
Lost time case
9
Q
Non-fatal injury or occupational illness that requires one or more visits to medical
A
First aid case
10
Q
Non-fatal injury that does not cause loss of time
A
No lost time case
11
Q
Any hazmat that because of its properties/quantity/concentration may pose substantial hazard to human health or the environment
A
Hazardous substance
12
Q
What is required for the use of hazmat in each respective workspace
A
Hazmat authorized use list
13
Q
How many principal pressure points in the body
A
11
14
Q
What form do you submit to reflect a change in operating area or mission assignment requiring
additional equipment?
A
ACR
15
Q
What item is listed in the MLN
A
Shelf life codes
16
Q
What form is used as a requisition and consumption reporting document or procurement of non-/
NSN material?
A
NAVSUP 1250-2
17
Q
What form is used by tenders and bases as invoices?
A
NAVSUP 1250-1
18
Q
What form is used to request tracer action on shipments sent by insured mail?
A
DD 1348
19
Q
asting of equipment and its support material which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1800
construction hours or days is found in
A
COSAL
20
Q
What form is used when item over $500 has been received and shelf life has expired
A
SF 364
21
Q
What form is used when item is received in deficient condition that use would cause serious
injury or death
A
SF 368
22
Q
Amount of money estimated for unit to perform its mission
A
OPTAR
23
Q
Habitability items (beds, desks, chairs) are what kind of equipment
A
Personnel support equipment
24
Q
Items considered essential for the protection of life, requiring custodial signature, and special
management control are classified as
A
Controlled equipage
25
What form is used to establish custody of utility uniform articles
DD 1149
26
What form is used to request container surface shipment of unaccompanied baggage
DD 1149
27
Purpose of ACR
Submit allowance change request to any published allowance list
28
What form uses full MILSTRIP data when requisitioning material through any supply system
NAVSUP 1250-1
29
First step in unloading pistol or magazine fed weapon
Remove magazine
30
Inspection required to ensure weapon is safe
Open slide, inspect chamber visually or by feel
31
When do you take a weapon off of safe
When you intend to fire
32
what check is considered a pre-firing safety check
Ensuring bore is clear
33
If a weapon misfires and is not likely to cook-off what is the minimum time to wait before
opening breach
10 seconds
34
Uncontrolled fire of an automatic weapon
Runaway gun
35
What marking on small arms ammunition is color-coded
Band around the nose
36
Color of armor piercing ammo
black
37
What type of defensive emplacement is used by command post personnel for the 240
Prone emplacement
38
What MG team member is responsible for its effective employment
Team leader
39
Max range 240
3725 meters
40
Max effective 240 point target
800 meters
41
Number of ammunition types available for MK 19
4
42
Safety features on MK 19
Charging handle, thumb safety
43
Max effective of MK 19
2191 meters area, 1486 meters point
44
Arming range of MK 19 round
18 to 36 meters
45
cycle rate of fire of MK 19
325 to 375 rounds
46
Max effective range of .50
1500 meters point, 1830 meters area
47
Cycle rate of fire of .50
450 to 550
48
Max range of .50
6764 meters
49
M203 is moved what direction to unlock and for loading procedures
Forward
50
Locking for firing M203 is done by what barrel action
forward
51
What is the most critical factor a COC must have in order to be successful
Communication
52
Priority message must be handled within
1-3 hours
53
What is a primary factor to consider when designing the company's radio and wire plans
Comms assets available
54
What report should be submitted to COC if unit is in a fire fight
SPOT report
55
What report should follow a SPOT report
SALUTE report
56
Contents of SALUTE report
Size, activity, location, uniform, time, equipment
57
What is the first factor to consider when preparing helo LZ
Type of helo
58
When preparing helo LZ, approaches and exits must be cleared of obstacles of what height
10 meters and higher
59
When using smoke to mark an LZ, never tell the pilot the color of your smoke
True
60
Analysis of weather and terrain is done with what acronym
KOCOA
61
Entanglements are primarily used for what purpose
Channel enemy into a beaten zone
62
When establishing fields of fire, what do you need to know about the weapon
Weapon capabilities
63
what is the interval distance between single fighting positions in open terrain
5 meters
64
Purpose of magnetic north line on fire sketch plan
for directional use, for rel life
65
Curved flight path of a bullet after it has been fired
Trajectory
66
when moving on foot in enemy terrain, you should
More short distances quickly, pick next position before moving, pick alternate route
before moving
67
If you are a fire team leader, what factors determine the formation you use
Terrain features and tactical situations
68
what is the key information in a patrol order
Time of departure, comm plan, and general route to the objective
69
What format contains the patrol's mission, general instructions, and short briefing of the situation
Warning order
70
When holding key terrain in an area, it gives you what advantage
Fields of fire and observation
71
How are elevations represented on a map
Contour lines
72
How many counterclockwise clicks of the bezel ring are required for an azimuth of 72 degrees
24
73
Forward azimuth is 130 degrees, what is the back azimuth
310 degrees
74
What method should you use to find a feature not defined on the map
Intersection
75
Minimum daily water requirement to maintain efficiency
2 qts
76
Three classifications of barbed wire
Tactical, protective, supplementary
77
What chemical agent is the most effective and lethal
Nerve
78
What document provides a complete listing of tools and material authorized to UCTs
P-35 TOA
79
With regard to OPDS, what does SALM stand for
Single anchor leg moor
80
What does ROC and POE stand for
Required operational capabilities and projected operational environment
81
What are the areas of naval doctrine
What are the areas of naval doctrine
82
Purpose and use of ACR
Allowance change request, to add equipment
83
What is beadwindow and gingerbread
Beadwindow is to notify disclosure of EEFI, gingerbread is to notify hostile forces are trying to intrude on the net
84
What does ORM stand for and why is it used
Operational risk management, to reduce risk to an acceptable level
85
What military map color denotes vegetation
Green
86
In defensive combat emphasis is placed on what type of patrol
Security patrols
87
In the echelons of defense, the main battle area is
Forward defense
88
When going from bright light to darkness, how long does it take for your eyes to adjust to your
best night vision
30 minutes
89
What part of SMEAC describes enemy forces, friendly forces, attachments and detachments
Situation
90
What is the rule for reading a military map
Read right then up
91
NAVFAC P-922 gives information and procedures for
Arctic operations
92
What is the identifying marking for organic CESE
Red back ound with white numerals
93
What is BEEP
Battalion quipment evaluation program
94
What does BEEP do?
Provide incoming battalion with a realistic condition evaluation of CESE, facilities, tools
and materials
95
What are three parts of the offshore petroleum discharge system
SALM, Tanker, BTU
96
What is the total umber of air detachments in the UCT community
6, 3 each coast
97
Three US Maritime Services
Navy, CG, Marines
98
How many pallet positions on a C 130
6
99
How many pallet positions on C 17
18
100
How many pallet ositions on a C-5A
36
101
What is the SEABEE Birthday?
05 March 1942
102
Who is considered the father of the SEABEES?
ADM Ben Moreell
103
What are the four categories of HAZMAT?
1 catastrophic, 2 critical, 3 marginal, 4 negligible
104
Who is CM3 Marvin Shields?
Only Seabee to be awarded MOH in Vietnam, was part of team 1104 and was killed on
10 Jun 1965 during the battle at Dong Xoai
105
In the individual ust aid kit the words 'put other side next to wound' appear on
Battle Dressing
106
When overheate , drinking ice water too fast can cause
Heat Cramps
107
Signs and sympt ms of heat exhaustion
Ashen/gray, cold, moist, clammy skin and dilated pupils
108
Heat stroke is also called
Sunstroke
109
When examining person with a chest injury outside of combat, what position should they be in
Sitting/fowlers position
110
what dressing go s on a sucking chest wound
occlusive
111
Uniforms worn in the field should be made of what percent cotton
35
112
When purifying water with iodine, how many tabs per I qt
1
113
Large vessels int e body carrying blood away from the heart
Arteries
114
White phosphorus burns to the skin is complicated because the particles
Ignite on contact with air
115
Chemical protective over garments provide protection against what kind of CBR threats
All known CBR agents
116
When M9 detection paper comes in contact with a liquid chem agent, it turns
Red
117
Removing CBR contamination from the skin is accomplished using
M291 kit
118
what level of MOPP means that higher authorities have determined from enemy statements that
there is intent to deploy CBR warfare
119
Color of high explosive 40mm round
Yellow
120
Portion of the bor at the rear of the breach that holds round when weapon is loaded
Chamber
121
When round react to barrel heat
Cook off
122
Number of round a weapon can fire in 1 min to include reload time
cycle rate of fire
123
Number of round a weapon can fire in 1 min with unlimited ammo
Max rate of fire
124
Actual rate of fire a weapon can deliver for an indefinite period
Sustained rate of fire
125
Greatest distance a weapon can be expected to fire accurately
Max effective range
126
Greatest distance a weapon can fire
Max range
127
Speed projectile travels as it leave the barrel
Muzzle velocity
128
Path of bullet during flight
trajectory
129
240 sustained rate of fire
100
130
240 has folding front sights
False
131
What happens when 240 is placed on safe
Bolt is not allowed to slide forward
132
What type of dug in emplacement does not allow firing of 240 in the standing position
trench
133
Max effective range M203
150 meters point, 350 meters area
134
Max range M203
400 meters
135
minimum range M203 in combat
31 meters
136
Pulling for-end rearward on the MS00 12 gauge shotgun causes shell to be ejected through
The ejection port
137
First step in unloading M500
Push safety to safe
138
Max rounds MS00 can hold
five rounds
139
Length of ammo used in M500
2 ¾ inches
140
Major component of M9 that holds most of the moving parts
Receiver
141
Max range of M9
1800 meters
142
Max effective range M9
50 meters
143
How many rounds can a M9 mag hold
15
144
What is the M4
Gas operated, air cooled magazine fed shoulder fired assault weapon
145
Commander establishes combat operations center for what primary purpose
To ensure proper centralized command and control element
146
What officer exercises staff supervision of the COC
147
What type of fire is used to cover a gap between adjacent platoons
Indirect fire
148
What weapons are positioned before positioning of squads
Crew served weapons
149
How many members in a MG team
4
150
What vehicle position is never occupied by the convoy commander
Lead vehicle
151
What do you do if your vehicle is fired upon in the killing zone
Drive through the killing zone
152
Most effective counter action from elements not in killing zone during an ambush
Flanking maneuver against the enemy
153
During vehicle unloading, who provides cover while occupants dismount
Sentries/gunners
154
Three major form CBR contaminants can be delivered
Solid, liqJd, gas
155
Which agent should be decontaminated first if you are contaminated by a mixture of agents
Chemical
156
What happens to k overgarment when it comes in contact with POLs
Overgarment must be replaced
157
What level of decon aims at sustaining operations, reducing contact with hazard, and limit spread
of contamination
Operational decon
158
You should initiate skin decon technique within how long after being contaminated
1 minute
159
Principles of handling EPWs
5 S's and T/ seize, search, segregate, silence, speed, and tag
160
Tracer rounds are what color
Orange or Red
161
What form do you submit to reflect a change in operating area or mission assignment requiring
additional equipment
ACR
162
What item is listed in the MLN
shelf life codes
163
When ordering frequently requested items, the ASG assists in identifying
NSN
164
What form is used to request tracer action on shipments sent by insured mail
DD 1348
165
listing of equipment and its support material which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1800
construction hours or days is found in
COSAL
166
What form is used when item over $500 has been received and shelflife has expired
SF 364
167
What form is used when item is received in deficient condition that use would cause serious
injury or death
SF 368
168
