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SCWS Flashcards

1
Q

What form must be used by manufacturers of chemical products to communicate to the user the chemical, physical, and hazardous properties

A

MSDS

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2
Q

Which of t/he following eye protection provides temporary protection

A

Plastic Eye Protection

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3
Q

Who is authorized to disperse chemicals or do pest control operations?

A

Certified Pest Control Personnel

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4
Q

What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?

A

Prevent similar mishaps

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5
Q

Who is responsible for planning all work assignments with considerations for PPE and safeguards required?

A

Supervisor/Platoon Commander

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6
Q

Injury or illness that does not result in death or permanent disability, but does cause loss or permanent impairment of any body part

A

Permanent partial disability

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7
Q

Non fatal injury that permanently or totally incapacitates a person to the extent they cannot be gainfully employed

A

Permanent total disability

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8
Q

Non-fatal traumatic injury that causes any loss of time from work beyond day/shift it occurred

A

Lost time case

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9
Q

Non-fatal injury or occupational illness that requires one or more visits to medical

A

First aid case

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10
Q

Non-fatal injury that does not cause loss of time

A

No lost time case

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11
Q

Any hazmat that because of its properties/quantity/concentration may pose substantial hazard to human health or the environment

A

Hazardous substance

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12
Q

What is required for the use of hazmat in each respective workspace

A

Hazmat authorized use list

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13
Q

How many principal pressure points in the body

A

11

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14
Q

What form do you submit to reflect a change in operating area or mission assignment requiring
additional equipment?

A

ACR

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15
Q

What item is listed in the MLN

A

Shelf life codes

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16
Q

What form is used as a requisition and consumption reporting document or procurement of non-/
NSN material?

A

NAVSUP 1250-2

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17
Q

What form is used by tenders and bases as invoices?

A

NAVSUP 1250-1

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18
Q

What form is used to request tracer action on shipments sent by insured mail?

A

DD 1348

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19
Q

asting of equipment and its support material which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1800
construction hours or days is found in

A

COSAL

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20
Q

What form is used when item over $500 has been received and shelf life has expired

A

SF 364

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21
Q

What form is used when item is received in deficient condition that use would cause serious
injury or death

A

SF 368

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22
Q

Amount of money estimated for unit to perform its mission

A

OPTAR

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23
Q

Habitability items (beds, desks, chairs) are what kind of equipment

A

Personnel support equipment

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24
Q

Items considered essential for the protection of life, requiring custodial signature, and special
management control are classified as

A

Controlled equipage

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25
Q

What form is used to establish custody of utility uniform articles

A

DD 1149

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26
Q

What form is used to request container surface shipment of unaccompanied baggage

A

DD 1149

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27
Q

Purpose of ACR

A

Submit allowance change request to any published allowance list

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28
Q

What form uses full MILSTRIP data when requisitioning material through any supply system

A

NAVSUP 1250-1

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29
Q

First step in unloading pistol or magazine fed weapon

A

Remove magazine

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30
Q

Inspection required to ensure weapon is safe

A

Open slide, inspect chamber visually or by feel

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31
Q

When do you take a weapon off of safe

A

When you intend to fire

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32
Q

what check is considered a pre-firing safety check

A

Ensuring bore is clear

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33
Q

If a weapon misfires and is not likely to cook-off what is the minimum time to wait before
opening breach

A

10 seconds

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34
Q

Uncontrolled fire of an automatic weapon

A

Runaway gun

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35
Q

What marking on small arms ammunition is color-coded

A

Band around the nose

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36
Q

Color of armor piercing ammo

A

black

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37
Q

What type of defensive emplacement is used by command post personnel for the 240

A

Prone emplacement

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38
Q

What MG team member is responsible for its effective employment

A

Team leader

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39
Q

Max range 240

A

3725 meters

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40
Q

Max effective 240 point target

A

800 meters

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41
Q

Number of ammunition types available for MK 19

A

4

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42
Q

Safety features on MK 19

A

Charging handle, thumb safety

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43
Q

Max effective of MK 19

A

2191 meters area, 1486 meters point

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44
Q

Arming range of MK 19 round

A

18 to 36 meters

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45
Q

cycle rate of fire of MK 19

A

325 to 375 rounds

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46
Q

Max effective range of .50

A

1500 meters point, 1830 meters area

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47
Q

Cycle rate of fire of .50

A

450 to 550

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48
Q

Max range of .50

A

6764 meters

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49
Q

M203 is moved what direction to unlock and for loading procedures

A

Forward

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50
Q

Locking for firing M203 is done by what barrel action

A

forward

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51
Q

What is the most critical factor a COC must have in order to be successful

A

Communication

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52
Q

Priority message must be handled within

A

1-3 hours

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53
Q

What is a primary factor to consider when designing the company’s radio and wire plans

A

Comms assets available

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54
Q

What report should be submitted to COC if unit is in a fire fight

A

SPOT report

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55
Q

What report should follow a SPOT report

A

SALUTE report

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56
Q

Contents of SALUTE report

A

Size, activity, location, uniform, time, equipment

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57
Q

What is the first factor to consider when preparing helo LZ

A

Type of helo

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58
Q

When preparing helo LZ, approaches and exits must be cleared of obstacles of what height

A

10 meters and higher

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59
Q

When using smoke to mark an LZ, never tell the pilot the color of your smoke

A

True

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60
Q

Analysis of weather and terrain is done with what acronym

A

KOCOA

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61
Q

Entanglements are primarily used for what purpose

A

Channel enemy into a beaten zone

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62
Q

When establishing fields of fire, what do you need to know about the weapon

A

Weapon capabilities

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63
Q

what is the interval distance between single fighting positions in open terrain

A

5 meters

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64
Q

Purpose of magnetic north line on fire sketch plan

A

for directional use, for rel life

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65
Q

Curved flight path of a bullet after it has been fired

A

Trajectory

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66
Q

when moving on foot in enemy terrain, you should

A

More short distances quickly, pick next position before moving, pick alternate route
before moving

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67
Q

If you are a fire team leader, what factors determine the formation you use

A

Terrain features and tactical situations

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68
Q

what is the key information in a patrol order

A

Time of departure, comm plan, and general route to the objective

69
Q

What format contains the patrol’s mission, general instructions, and short briefing of the situation

A

Warning order

70
Q

When holding key terrain in an area, it gives you what advantage

A

Fields of fire and observation

71
Q

How are elevations represented on a map

A

Contour lines

72
Q

How many counterclockwise clicks of the bezel ring are required for an azimuth of 72 degrees

A

24

73
Q

Forward azimuth is 130 degrees, what is the back azimuth

A

310 degrees

74
Q

What method should you use to find a feature not defined on the map

A

Intersection

75
Q

Minimum daily water requirement to maintain efficiency

A

2 qts

76
Q

Three classifications of barbed wire

A

Tactical, protective, supplementary

77
Q

What chemical agent is the most effective and lethal

A

Nerve

78
Q

What document provides a complete listing of tools and material authorized to UCTs

A

P-35 TOA

79
Q

With regard to OPDS, what does SALM stand for

A

Single anchor leg moor

80
Q

What does ROC and POE stand for

A

Required operational capabilities and projected operational environment

81
Q

What are the areas of naval doctrine

A

What are the areas of naval doctrine

82
Q

Purpose and use of ACR

A

Allowance change request, to add equipment

83
Q

What is beadwindow and gingerbread

A

Beadwindow is to notify disclosure of EEFI, gingerbread is to notify hostile forces are trying to intrude on the net

84
Q

What does ORM stand for and why is it used

A

Operational risk management, to reduce risk to an acceptable level

85
Q

What military map color denotes vegetation

A

Green

86
Q

In defensive combat emphasis is placed on what type of patrol

A

Security patrols

87
Q

In the echelons of defense, the main battle area is

A

Forward defense

88
Q

When going from bright light to darkness, how long does it take for your eyes to adjust to your
best night vision

A

30 minutes

89
Q

What part of SMEAC describes enemy forces, friendly forces, attachments and detachments

A

Situation

90
Q

What is the rule for reading a military map

A

Read right then up

91
Q

NAVFAC P-922 gives information and procedures for

A

Arctic operations

92
Q

What is the identifying marking for organic CESE

A

Red back ound with white numerals

93
Q

What is BEEP

A

Battalion quipment evaluation program

94
Q

What does BEEP do?

A

Provide incoming battalion with a realistic condition evaluation of CESE, facilities, tools
and materials

95
Q

What are three parts of the offshore petroleum discharge system

A

SALM, Tanker, BTU

96
Q

What is the total umber of air detachments in the UCT community

A

6, 3 each coast

97
Q

Three US Maritime Services

A

Navy, CG, Marines

98
Q

How many pallet positions on a C 130

A

6

99
Q

How many pallet positions on C 17

A

18

100
Q

How many pallet ositions on a C-5A

A

36

101
Q

What is the SEABEE Birthday?

A

05 March 1942

102
Q

Who is considered the father of the SEABEES?

A

ADM Ben Moreell

103
Q

What are the four categories of HAZMAT?

A

1 catastrophic, 2 critical, 3 marginal, 4 negligible

104
Q

Who is CM3 Marvin Shields?

A

Only Seabee to be awarded MOH in Vietnam, was part of team 1104 and was killed on
10 Jun 1965 during the battle at Dong Xoai

105
Q

In the individual ust aid kit the words ‘put other side next to wound’ appear on

A

Battle Dressing

106
Q

When overheate , drinking ice water too fast can cause

A

Heat Cramps

107
Q

Signs and sympt ms of heat exhaustion

A

Ashen/gray, cold, moist, clammy skin and dilated pupils

108
Q

Heat stroke is also called

A

Sunstroke

109
Q

When examining person with a chest injury outside of combat, what position should they be in

A

Sitting/fowlers position

110
Q

what dressing go s on a sucking chest wound

A

occlusive

111
Q

Uniforms worn in the field should be made of what percent cotton

A

35

112
Q

When purifying water with iodine, how many tabs per I qt

A

1

113
Q

Large vessels int e body carrying blood away from the heart

A

Arteries

114
Q

White phosphorus burns to the skin is complicated because the particles

A

Ignite on contact with air

115
Q

Chemical protective over garments provide protection against what kind of CBR threats

A

All known CBR agents

116
Q

When M9 detection paper comes in contact with a liquid chem agent, it turns

A

Red

117
Q

Removing CBR contamination from the skin is accomplished using

A

M291 kit

118
Q

what level of MOPP means that higher authorities have determined from enemy statements that
there is intent to deploy CBR warfare

A
119
Q

Color of high explosive 40mm round

A

Yellow

120
Q

Portion of the bor at the rear of the breach that holds round when weapon is loaded

A

Chamber

121
Q

When round react to barrel heat

A

Cook off

122
Q

Number of round a weapon can fire in 1 min to include reload time

A

cycle rate of fire

123
Q

Number of round a weapon can fire in 1 min with unlimited ammo

A

Max rate of fire

124
Q

Actual rate of fire a weapon can deliver for an indefinite period

A

Sustained rate of fire

125
Q

Greatest distance a weapon can be expected to fire accurately

A

Max effective range

126
Q

Greatest distance a weapon can fire

A

Max range

127
Q

Speed projectile travels as it leave the barrel

A

Muzzle velocity

128
Q

Path of bullet during flight

A

trajectory

129
Q

240 sustained rate of fire

A

100

130
Q

240 has folding front sights

A

False

131
Q

What happens when 240 is placed on safe

A

Bolt is not allowed to slide forward

132
Q

What type of dug in emplacement does not allow firing of 240 in the standing position

A

trench

133
Q

Max effective range M203

A

150 meters point, 350 meters area

134
Q

Max range M203

A

400 meters

135
Q

minimum range M203 in combat

A

31 meters

136
Q

Pulling for-end rearward on the MS00 12 gauge shotgun causes shell to be ejected through

A

The ejection port

137
Q

First step in unloading M500

A

Push safety to safe

138
Q

Max rounds MS00 can hold

A

five rounds

139
Q

Length of ammo used in M500

A

2 ¾ inches

140
Q

Major component of M9 that holds most of the moving parts

A

Receiver

141
Q

Max range of M9

A

1800 meters

142
Q

Max effective range M9

A

50 meters

143
Q

How many rounds can a M9 mag hold

A

15

144
Q

What is the M4

A

Gas operated, air cooled magazine fed shoulder fired assault weapon

145
Q

Commander establishes combat operations center for what primary purpose

A

To ensure proper centralized command and control element

146
Q

What officer exercises staff supervision of the COC

A
147
Q

What type of fire is used to cover a gap between adjacent platoons

A

Indirect fire

148
Q

What weapons are positioned before positioning of squads

A

Crew served weapons

149
Q

How many members in a MG team

A

4

150
Q

What vehicle position is never occupied by the convoy commander

A

Lead vehicle

151
Q

What do you do if your vehicle is fired upon in the killing zone

A

Drive through the killing zone

152
Q

Most effective counter action from elements not in killing zone during an ambush

A

Flanking maneuver against the enemy

153
Q

During vehicle unloading, who provides cover while occupants dismount

A

Sentries/gunners

154
Q

Three major form CBR contaminants can be delivered

A

Solid, liqJd, gas

155
Q

Which agent should be decontaminated first if you are contaminated by a mixture of agents

A

Chemical

156
Q

What happens to k overgarment when it comes in contact with POLs

A

Overgarment must be replaced

157
Q

What level of decon aims at sustaining operations, reducing contact with hazard, and limit spread
of contamination

A

Operational decon

158
Q

You should initiate skin decon technique within how long after being contaminated

A

1 minute

159
Q

Principles of handling EPWs

A

5 S’s and T/ seize, search, segregate, silence, speed, and tag

160
Q

Tracer rounds are what color

A

Orange or Red

161
Q

What form do you submit to reflect a change in operating area or mission assignment requiring
additional equipment

A

ACR

162
Q

What item is listed in the MLN

A

shelf life codes

163
Q

When ordering frequently requested items, the ASG assists in identifying

A

NSN

164
Q

What form is used to request tracer action on shipments sent by insured mail

A

DD 1348

165
Q

listing of equipment and its support material which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1800
construction hours or days is found in

A

COSAL

166
Q

What form is used when item over $500 has been received and shelflife has expired

A

SF 364

167
Q

What form is used when item is received in deficient condition that use would cause serious
injury or death

A

SF 368

168
Q
A

SCWS (1 decks)

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