SCW 100 Question Test Flashcards

1
Q

When was the department of the navy established?

A

1798

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2
Q

S1

A

Admin officer

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3
Q

S2

A

Intelligence officer

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4
Q

S3

A

Operations officer

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5
Q

S4

A

Supply officer

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6
Q

S6

A

Communications officer

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7
Q

S7

A

Training officer

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8
Q

The CMC provides a direct channel for communications between the enlisted personnel and the command on the problems or questions that cannot be resolved through normal command channels

A

True

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9
Q

What is the monthly report distributed BUPERS 4013 that lists the commands enlisted personnel count

A

Enlisted distribution verification program

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10
Q

In which conflict of war did Marvin Shields earn his Medal of Honor

A

Vietnam

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11
Q

What were admiral Morells contribution to the Seabees

A

Decided to activate organize and man construction battalions after the attach of Pearl Harbor

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12
Q

Originally commissioned in 1942 as the 5th naval construction battalion and decommissioned in 1945 after WWII when was NMCB 5 recommissioned

A

July 10th 1951

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13
Q

The bezel ring on the compass turns_______ degrees or ______ mils per click

A

3/53.3

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14
Q

Which is not a responsibility of a reconnaissance patrol

A

Provide physical security

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15
Q

Referring to the echelons of defense where are listing/observations posts placed

A

Security area

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16
Q

______ is the ability to efficiently apply fire on a target

A

Fire discipline

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17
Q

The code of conduct consists of ______ articles

A

6

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18
Q

If you are faced with hostile intent and if time allows which of the following would apply in the escalation of force

A

Shout, show, shove, shoot

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19
Q

What is the procedure for reading grid coordinates

A

Right, then up

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20
Q

1250-1

A

Requisition/consumption reporting document for processing NSN material

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21
Q

1250-2

A

Requisition/consumption on reporting document for procuring non-NSN material

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22
Q

1149

A

Requisition invoice/shipping document used for open purchase items or services

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23
Q

DD200

A

Survey form as well as a report for lost stolen or damaged items

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24
Q

What color ink do you use on a 1250-1 when returning material back

A

Red

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25
Q

Who is responsible for supply and re-supply of the platoon in combat

A

Right guide

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26
Q

CSR, CTR, MLO, and ARP are the four functional outlets under which organization

A

Supply

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27
Q

______ is defined as coordination of training project, selection and logistic support

A

Administrative control (ADCON)

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28
Q

What does SSAP stand for

A

SEABEE skills assessment program

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29
Q

How many pressure points are there on the human body

A

22

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30
Q

All navy owned property bought for immediate use in shore establishments that costs between 300-5000 or costs more than 5000 but has useful life expectancy less than 2 year is

A

Minor property

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31
Q

Typical air det had ______ personnel and is ready to fly in ______ hours from receipt of warning order

A

89/48

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32
Q

Who prepares operation orders for the battalion?

A

S3 operations officer

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33
Q

The four methods of controlling bleeding are direct pressure, indirect pressure, tourniquet and ______

A

Elevation

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34
Q

What is the most serious burn because the burn is so deep it requires a long time to heal and scars will form over the burn area

A

Third degree burn

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35
Q

Heat exhaustion is the most serious of the three types of heat casualties

A

False

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36
Q

What does MHE and WHE STAND for

A

Material handling equipment/ weight handling equipment

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37
Q

When transporting someone on a litter you always want to carry them ______?

A

Feet first

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38
Q

Component

A

NMCB P25 TOA

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39
Q

Facility

A

250 man tent camp

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40
Q

Assembly

A

16x32 tent

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41
Q

What scheduling report is broken down by construction master activities

A

Level II

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42
Q

The construction master activities the NCF uses match the number of sections in a set of specification and one additional for contingency construction. How many construction master activities are there?

A

17

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43
Q

Who is the chairman of the occupational safety and health counsel

A

XO

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44
Q

If a piece of equipments required parts are not available for over 3 working days the piece of CESE is placed where

A

Deadline

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45
Q

What are the ACLs for the following aircrafts: C-130, C-17, and C-5

A

25,000/90,000/150,000

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46
Q

The dimensions of the 463L pallet is

A

108x88

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47
Q

What is a SIXCON used to transport

A

Fuel and water

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48
Q

Which communication asset allows for the ability to remotely control a radio set from up to 2 miles

A

AN/GRA-39

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49
Q

Who is responsible for the operations in the MOCC

A

XO

50
Q

When performing 1-man CPR, the ratio of breaths to heart compressions is

A

2 to 30

51
Q

What is the first method used in the control of bleeding

A

Direct pressure

52
Q

The AN/PSN-11 is an ______

A

GPS receiver

53
Q

What is capillary bleeding

A

Bleeding is slow oozing from the wound

54
Q

Which type of bleeding is life threatening and difficult to control

A

Arterial

55
Q

True or false. Possessing a secret clearance grants you access to see all secret information

A

False

56
Q

What is hypothermia

A

Cooling of the body caused by low temperatures

57
Q

Immediate messages (0) must be delivered within

A

30min

58
Q

The AN/VRC 90A and AN/VRC 92A are nearly identical except 92A has ______

A

Two transmitters and two amplifiers

59
Q

What is the smallest section of runway required to launch and recover aircraft

A

Minimum operating strip

60
Q

Who is responsible for the recording, marking and reporting of all conditions on the taxiway, parking apron, fueling station, and any other collateral damage encountered

A

Damage assessment team

61
Q

Noises greater than ______ and peak noises greater than ______ require hearing protection

A

84dba/140dba

62
Q

Lifelines protect from falling heights greater than ______

A

6 feet

63
Q

How often shall all sources of temporary power be re-inspected

A

14 days

64
Q

Naval planning must take into consideration objectives, capabilities and resources

A

True

65
Q

The antropin/2Pam chloride auto-injector is used to counter the effects of and relieve the symptoms of ______

A

Nerve agents

66
Q

Once all personnel exit a confined space for duration, the space must be re-certified

A

True

67
Q

When reporting an unsafe/unhealthful working condition you must report to the ______. If they do not report the problem, report to the ______

A

Chain of command/ safety office

68
Q

The M-291 kit is used for immediate decontamination of personal and vehicles

A

False

69
Q

Who must sign a motor vehicle utilization record DD Form 1970

A

All vehicle operators

70
Q

The COSAL is a supply document that ______

A

Lists the items required to achieve maximum, self-supporting capabilities for an extended period of time

71
Q

How many stations are in a detailed troop decon

A

8

72
Q

Which of the following aircraft is considered strategic and tactical

A

C-17

73
Q

CTR receives, stores and issues repair parts for CESE and material handling equipment

A

False

74
Q

OPTAR funds can be used to buy project materials

A

False

75
Q

What does APL stand for

A

Allowance parts lists

76
Q

What color does M8 paper become when it comes in contact with a liquid nerve or blood agent

A

Pink, red brown, shades of red

77
Q

You, as the operator, detect an intrusion over the net. What do you announce over the radio

A

Gingerbread

78
Q

The AN/GRA-39 control group has a range of

A

2 miles

79
Q

What is the range of the TA-312/PT wet/dry

A

14-22 miles

80
Q

The AN/GRA-39 remote unit contains a speaker

A

True

81
Q

HF

A

1.6mhz to 29.9999mhz

82
Q

VHF

A

30mhz to 299.9999

83
Q

UHF

A

300mhz to 2.9999ghz

84
Q

True or false. The COMFIRSTNCDINST 11200.2 recommends an equipment to mechanic ratio of 5 to 1

A

True

85
Q

What is the kill radius of the M67 frag grenade

A

5 meters

86
Q

How are chemical weapons delivered

A

Burst spray thermal

87
Q

Who in the Alfa company chain of command is tasked with ensuring proper 3-M maintenance and repair of automotive, construction, material and weight handling equipment

A

A4

88
Q

Marshaling

A

The movement of cargo, equipment and personnel to an area from the embarkation point

89
Q

DACG

A

Responsible for controlling the flow of cargo, equipment and personnel from the marshaling area to the aircraft

90
Q

TALC

A

Supports airlift mission in locations with no or limited support functions

91
Q

AACG

A

Responsible for receiving airlifted material from the airfield and movement to the deployment site

92
Q

Which command center has the responsibility to monitor and control all unit movements during a deployment

A

UMCC

93
Q

What is donned in MOPP level II

A

Over garment and boots

94
Q

True or false. The acronym ACL stands for allowable cabin/cargo load

A

True

95
Q

In the NBC kit what color represents radiological

A

White

96
Q

Armor piercing incendiary

A

Aluminum

97
Q

Blank rounds

A

Violet

98
Q

Tracer rounds

A

Orange or red

99
Q

Standard ball round

A

Green or brass

100
Q

Armor piercing

A

Black

101
Q

How many weapon conditions are there

A

4

102
Q

What condition is the M16A3 in when the magazine is removed bolt foreword ejection port cover closed and in safe

A

4

103
Q

True or false. The M16A2 rifle is a lightweight gas operated air cooled magazine fed shoulder fired semi or fully automatic weapon

A

True

104
Q

AT4

A

300m

105
Q

M2

A

1830

106
Q

M203

A

350m

107
Q

240B

A

1800m

108
Q

What is the 8 steps cycle of operation for a M16, respectively

A

Feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting, ejecting, cocking

109
Q

Combined traversing and searching fire is

A

Distributed in width and depth by changing the elevation horizontal direction of the gun

110
Q

What is the sustained rate of fire for the M16

A

12-15 rounds per minute

111
Q

What is the point target of a M240B

A

800m

112
Q

What acronym would a squad leader use to issue fire commands

A

ADDRAC

113
Q

True or false. The M500 shotgun has an area target of 50M

A

False

114
Q

What are the characteristics of the M240B

A

Air cooled, belt fed, gas operated, automatic, crew served weapon

115
Q

What is the point and area target of the M203, respectively

A

150/350m

116
Q

True or false. Supplementary wire entanglements are sited parallel to and along the friendly side of the final protective line to break up enemy attack formations and to hold enemy in areas covered by the most intense defensive fire

A

False

117
Q

Camouflage

A

Anything you use to keep yourself, your equipment and your position from looking like they really are

118
Q

Cover

A

Anything that gives protection

119
Q

Concealment

A

Anything that hides you from enemy observation but does not hide you from enemy fire

120
Q

Which instruction establishes the policy and provides guidance for the naval construction force equipment management program

A

COMFIRSTNCDINST 11200.2

121
Q

What is trajectory

A

The flight path the bullet takes from the weapon to target